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  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old Nigerian woman was referred for evaluation of progressive weakness and tingling...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old Nigerian woman was referred for evaluation of progressive weakness and tingling in her lower limbs over the past 5 months. She has also noticed a decline in her vision and difficulty hearing the television. She is currently unemployed and struggling financially.

      During examination, she had excoriations around the mucocutaneous junction of her mouth. Fundus examination revealed pale optic discs on both sides. Rinne's test showed air conduction to be better than bone conduction. Audiogram revealed that she could hear 8000 Hz at 60 decibels and 250 Hz at 20 decibels.

      The distal groups of muscles in all limbs were weak with 4/5 power, and tendon reflexes were reduced. Romberg's test was positive.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Combination B vitamin deficiency

      Explanation:

      Strachan’s syndrome is a nutritional disorder that was first observed in Jamaican sugarcane workers and later in Japanese POW camp prisoners. It is caused by a combination of B vitamin deficiencies and is characterized by painful peripheral neuropathy, optic atrophy, and sensorineural deafness. Unlike beriberi or pellagra, it does not resolve with replacement of B12 alone and can lead to blindness if left untreated. Hartnup’s disease, on the other hand, is an autosomal recessive amino acid disorder that presents in childhood with skin rash, emotional instability, and episodic cerebellar ataxia. Neuropathic beriberi is associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy and bilateral lower limb parasthesias, but does not typically involve optic atrophy. Peroneal muscular atrophy, also known as Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease, is characterized by foot drop, weakness of distal lower limb muscles, high-arched feet, and hammer toes. Hereditary motor and sensory neuropathy type 3 is an autosomal dominant motor and sensory neuropathy that usually presents with calf muscle weakness before the age of 30.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      626.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 28-year-old man presents to his GP with shortness of breath. This has...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents to his GP with shortness of breath. This has been occurring for the past 6 months and is sometimes accompanied by wheezing, particularly later on during the day. He does not have any past medical history and occasionally takes over-the-counter antihistamines for hay-fever. His only recent travel history is a holiday to Spain, where he found he was less short of breath and he was less wheezy. His only family history of note is his mother who died of a heart attack aged 65. He works as a car mechanic and smokes 5 roll-up cigarettes per day and drinks on average 5-6 units of alcohol per week.

      What investigation would be most helpful in determining the diagnosis of this 28-year-old man?

      Your Answer: Serum IgE measurement

      Correct Answer: Peak expiratory flow rate measurements at both home and at work

      Explanation:

      The probable diagnosis in this scenario is occupational asthma, which is supported by the timing of the patient’s breathlessness and wheezing, as well as the relief of symptoms during vacation. To confirm the diagnosis of occupational asthma, it is recommended to measure peak expiratory flow rates both at home and work to identify any differences. Once this is done, additional tests can be conducted to determine the allergen responsible for the occupational asthma.

      Occupational Asthma: Causes and Symptoms

      Occupational asthma is a type of asthma that is caused by exposure to certain chemicals in the workplace. Patients may experience worsening asthma symptoms while at work or notice an improvement in symptoms when away from work. The most common cause of occupational asthma is exposure to isocyanates, which are found in spray painting and foam moulding using adhesives. Other chemicals associated with occupational asthma include platinum salts, soldering flux resin, glutaraldehyde, flour, epoxy resins, and proteolytic enzymes.

      To diagnose occupational asthma, it is recommended to measure peak expiratory flow at work and away from work. If there is a significant difference in peak expiratory flow, referral to a respiratory specialist is necessary. Treatment may include avoiding exposure to the triggering chemicals and using medications to manage asthma symptoms. It is important for employers to provide a safe working environment and for employees to report any concerns about potential exposure to harmful chemicals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      102.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 14-year-old boy with a history of congenital hearing loss presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy with a history of congenital hearing loss presents to the Emergency Department (ED) after collapsing during a basketball game. He regained consciousness within a few minutes. He had started taking azithromycin for a sinus infection a week prior. On examination, his vital signs are stable, and cardiovascular and respiratory systems are normal. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows sinus rhythm with a rate of 75 bpm, a PR interval of 0.16 s, a QRS interval of 0.12 s, and a corrected QT interval of 0.47 s. What is the most likely syndrome causing his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Romano-Ward syndrome

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Long-QT syndrome is a genetic condition that causes a prolonged QT interval, which is normally between 0.35-0.43 seconds. When this condition is accompanied by congenital deafness, it is known as Jervell-Lange-Nielsen syndrome. Long-QT syndrome increases the risk of ventricular tachy-arrhythmias, which can lead to syncope, cardiac arrest, or sudden death. The risk of tachy-arrhythmias is further increased by low levels of magnesium or potassium and medications that prolong the QT interval, such as clarithromycin. Beta-blockers are the preferred treatment for patients with long-QT syndrome. Other cardiac conditions include Brugada syndrome, which is characterized by ST elevation in leads V1-V3 and a RBBB pattern, Romano-Ward syndrome, which also involves a prolonged QT interval but without deafness, Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome, which is a pre-excitation syndrome with a short PR interval, broad QRS complex, and a delta wave, and Lown-Ganong-Levine syndrome, which is another pre-excitation syndrome with a very short PR interval, normal QRS, and no delta wave.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      356.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 65 year old man with a medical history of type 2 diabetes...

    Correct

    • A 65 year old man with a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of feeling unwell and general malaise. He had undergone successful primary coronary intervention (PCI) following a myocardial infarction 4 weeks ago. Upon examination, the doctor notes a lacy reticular rash on his legs and a temperature of 38.2 degrees Celsius. His blood pressure is 164/87 mmHg.

      Lab results show:
      - Hb: 12.2g/dl
      - Eosinophils: 1.2 * 109/l
      - WBC: 14.5 * 109/l
      - Urea: 8 mmol/l
      - Creatinine: 142µmol/l

      What is the most likely cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Cholesterol embolus

      Explanation:

      After an invasive arterial procedure, a cholesterol embolus can occur, where debris from a ruptured plaque blocks small to medium arteries, leading to inflammation and damage to organs. Symptoms may include a lacy reticular rash, acute renal failure, and eosinophilia. Patients may experience fever, weight loss, and myalgia for several weeks before developing stroke or end-organ damage. Supportive care is currently the primary treatment for this condition.

      Cholesterol embolisation is a condition where cholesterol deposits break off and can lead to renal disease. This condition is commonly seen as a result of vascular surgery or angiography, but can also occur due to severe atherosclerosis, especially in large arteries like the aorta. Symptoms of cholesterol embolisation include eosinophilia, purpura, renal failure, and livedo reticularis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      85.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 34-year-old HIV-positive man presented to hospital with increasing shortness of breath and...

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old HIV-positive man presented to hospital with increasing shortness of breath and cough, as well as slightly worse vision over the last few weeks. He had a prolonged admission 4 months ago for a chest complaint and has been taking prophylactic co-trimoxazole. He is a current smoker with a 10-pack year history. On examination, he appeared unwell with a pulse of 110/min, respiratory rate of 28/min, BP of 95/65 mmHg, and saturations of 91% on air. Auscultation of his chest revealed fine crackles bilaterally, and the CXR showed reticular shadowing throughout both lung fields. His investigations revealed a low haemoglobin level, low white cell count, low CD4+ count, and elevated bilirubin, AST, and ALP levels. His TLCO was 80% predicted. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: CMV pneumonitis

      Explanation:

      CMV Pneumonitis in an Immunocompromised Patient

      This patient is presenting with CMV pneumonitis, a common opportunistic infection in individuals with advanced HIV disease and a CD4 count below 50 cells/mm3. CMV can also cause hepatitis, colitis, retinitis, radiculopathy, and encephalitis. The patient’s reduced visual acuity and abnormal liver function tests are consistent with CMV.

      Serology may not be useful in immunosuppressed individuals, so diagnosis is typically made through PCR of serum or histological staining of transbronchial biopsies. Rapid culture methods such as DEAFF can also be used.

      Treatment for CMV pneumonitis is with intravenous ganciclovir.

      Other potential infections, such as nocardia, P. jirovecii pneumonia, tuberculosis, and streptococcal pneumonia, can be ruled out based on the patient’s symptoms and radiological findings. In this case, the diffuse CXR shadowing, eye symptoms, and deranged LFTs make CMV pneumonitis the most likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      50.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 70-year-old man presented to the optician with a gradual decline in vision...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man presented to the optician with a gradual decline in vision and a headache. Upon examination, the optician noticed concerning fundoscopic appearance and referred him to the emergency department for further evaluation. The patient has a history of hypertension and diabetes, but reports good adherence to his medications including perindopril, amlodipine, hydrochlorothiazide, metformin, linagliptin, and dapagliflozin.

      What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Escalate antihypertensive treatment

      Explanation:

      The macular star pattern formed by the flame and blot haemorrhages around the fovea, along with arteriolar narrowing and AV nipping, suggest hypertensive retinopathy. However, the presence of papilloedema indicates stage IV hypertensive retinopathy, which requires immediate escalation of antihypertensive treatment to prevent ophthalmologic and systemic complications. If the patient’s diabetes is poorly controlled despite optimized oral therapy, basal-bolus insulin may be considered. While the patient’s fundoscopic features do not suggest diabetic retinopathy, uncontrolled hypertension can accelerate the progression of diabetic eye disease. Monitoring visual acuity weekly is not appropriate for this patient, as prompt treatment to control blood pressure is necessary. Trabeculectomy, the most common surgical intervention for glaucoma, is not needed in this case, as the patient does not exhibit the characteristic fundoscopic appearance of cupping or increased vertical cup-to-disc ratio associated with glaucoma.

      Understanding Hypertensive Retinopathy through Keith-Wagener Classification

      Hypertensive retinopathy is a condition that affects the eyes due to high blood pressure. The Keith-Wagener classification is a system used to categorize the different stages of hypertensive retinopathy. Stage I is characterized by narrowing and twisting of the arterioles, as well as an increased light reflex known as silver wiring. In Stage II, there is arteriovenous nipping. Stage III is marked by the presence of cotton-wool exudates, flame and blot haemorrhages, and a macular star. Finally, Stage IV is papilloedema.

      This classification system helps doctors to identify and diagnose the severity of hypertensive retinopathy in patients. By understanding the different stages, doctors can provide appropriate treatment and management to prevent further damage to the eyes. It is important for individuals with high blood pressure to have regular eye exams to detect any signs of hypertensive retinopathy early on.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medical Ophthalmology
      229.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 25-year-old female presents with a persistent headache for the past eight weeks,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female presents with a persistent headache for the past eight weeks, which has worsened in the last week. She reports a constant frontal headache that is not relieved by paracetamol. The headache is present when she wakes up in the morning and persists throughout the day. Additionally, she has gained over 7 kg in weight in the last six months. On examination, she appears tearful and has a BMI of 32 kg/m2. However, there is no nuchal rigidity, and neurological examination is normal except for bilateral optic disc swelling on fundus examination. Her blood pressure is 122/88 mmHg, and her temperature is 37°C. What is the most appropriate investigation to make a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Visual field testing

      Correct Answer: Lumbar puncture

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Benign Intracranial Hypertension

      Benign intracranial hypertension (BIH) can be diagnosed based on the patient’s medical history and a lumbar puncture. However, it is important to rule out other conditions such as a space occupying lesion, hydrocephalus, and cerebral venous thrombosis. In order to do so, brain imaging is necessary.

      MRI brain is the preferred method for detecting cerebral venous thrombosis as it can identify a pyramidal defect in venous flow. CT brain can also be used, but it is not as sensitive as MRI. It is crucial to accurately diagnose BIH and rule out other conditions as they may require different treatments. Therefore, brain imaging should be performed in addition to a thorough medical history and lumbar puncture.

      Overall, the diagnosis of BIH requires a comprehensive approach that includes a combination of medical history, physical examination, and imaging studies. By ruling out other conditions, healthcare providers can ensure that patients receive the appropriate treatment for their specific condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      63.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 23-year-old woman, diagnosed with lupus and antiphospholipid syndrome, presented to the Rheumatology...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman, diagnosed with lupus and antiphospholipid syndrome, presented to the Rheumatology clinic complaining of sharp chest pain on her right side. The pain had started three days prior to her visit and was accompanied by shortness of breath. She also reported a vesicular rash that had appeared over the affected area one day ago. Her current medications include Methotrexate, Prednisolone, Aspirin, and Folic Acid. Upon admission to the rheumatology ward, a CT pulmonary angiography was performed, which showed no pulmonary emboli but revealed widespread bilateral changes of subsolid nodules and ground-glass opacification. As her shortness of breath worsened, her vital signs were taken, revealing a temperature of 39.1ºC, blood pressure of 107/55 mmHg, heart rate of 122 beats/min, and oxygen saturation of 88% on air. What is the most appropriate treatment for her likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Treat with aciclovir orally

      Correct Answer: Treat with aciclovir intravenous

      Explanation:

      The probable ailment for the immunocompromised woman experiencing acute pain and a blistering rash is chickenpox caused by varicella zoster virus. Her condition is severe and accompanied by extensive pulmonary alterations indicative of varicella pneumonitis.

      Intravenous aciclovir is the preferred treatment for varicella zoster infection in an immunocompromised individual, while options 1, 2, and 3 are ineffective.

      Chickenpox is a viral infection caused by the varicella zoster virus. It is highly contagious and can be spread through respiratory droplets. The virus can also reactivate later in life and cause shingles. Chickenpox is most infectious from four days before the rash appears until five days after. The incubation period is typically 10-21 days. Symptoms include fever and an itchy rash that starts on the head and trunk before spreading. The rash goes through stages of macular, papular, and vesicular. Management is supportive, with measures such as keeping cool and using calamine lotion. Immunocompromised patients and newborns with peripartum exposure should receive varicella zoster immunoglobulin. Complications can include secondary bacterial infection of the lesions, pneumonia, encephalitis, and rare complications such as disseminated haemorrhagic chickenpox.

      One common complication of chickenpox is secondary bacterial infection of the lesions, which can be increased by the use of NSAIDs. This can manifest as a single infected lesion or small area of cellulitis. In rare cases, invasive group A streptococcal soft tissue infections may occur, resulting in necrotizing fasciitis. Other rare complications of chickenpox include pneumonia, encephalitis (which may involve the cerebellum), disseminated haemorrhagic chickenpox, and very rarely, arthritis, nephritis, and pancreatitis. It is important to note that school exclusion may be necessary, as chickenpox is highly infectious and can be caught from someone with shingles. It is advised to avoid contact with others until all lesions have crusted over.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      53.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 50-year-old man with hypertension and dyslipidaemia has been diagnosed with early type...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with hypertension and dyslipidaemia has been diagnosed with early type 2 diabetes and started on glitazone therapy. He has been suffering from psoriasis for many years, which has been resistant to treatment. His dermatologist decides to initiate ciclosporin therapy and warns him about potential drug interactions. You advise him about some common interactions he should be cautious about. What drug or food should he be most concerned about in terms of increasing his ciclosporin levels?

      Your Answer: Orange juice

      Correct Answer: Verapamil

      Explanation:

      Drug Interactions with Ciclosporin: Understanding the Effects of Verapamil, Amoxicillin, Orange Juice, Cranberry Juice, and Rifampicin

      Ciclosporin is a medication commonly used to prevent organ rejection in transplant patients and to treat autoimmune diseases. However, its effectiveness can be affected by various drug interactions. Verapamil and cyclosporine, for example, can inhibit the hepatic/intestinal enzyme CYP3A4 metabolism, leading to an increase in plasma concentrations of either drug. As such, it is recommended to use alternative agents if possible. On the other hand, amoxicillin does not affect CYP3A4 metabolism, unlike macrolides. Orange juice, despite being commonly associated with grapefruit, does not inhibit CYP3A4 and therefore does not affect ciclosporin levels. Cranberry juice, however, inhibits CYP 2C9, leading to an increase in exposure to warfarin. Finally, rifampicin is a potent CYP450 inducer, leading to a decrease in ciclosporin levels. Other agents that can decrease ciclosporin levels include barbiturates, carbamazepine, phenytoin, octreotide, orlistat, and Hypericum perforatum (St John’s wort). Understanding these drug interactions is crucial in ensuring the safe and effective use of ciclosporin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
      145.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 20-year-old woman presents with increasing breathlessness and hypoxia two days after being...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman presents with increasing breathlessness and hypoxia two days after being admitted for severe burns. She has no significant medical history, but her father had a heart attack at age 40. She is a non-smoker and has a respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute and a pulse rate of 110 beats per minute. Crackles are heard over both lung fields on examination, and a chest x-ray shows bilateral hazy shadowing. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary haemorrhage

      Correct Answer: Adult respiratory distress syndrome

      Explanation:

      Adult Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS)

      Adult Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) is a complication that can develop in patients with severe burns. It is characterized by symptoms such as tachypnea, increasing breathlessness, and cyanosis, which can lead to refractory hypoxia. A classic sign of ARDS is bilateral peripheral interstitial and alveolar infiltrates that become progressively more confluent but spare the costophrenic angles. To differentiate ARDS from other conditions such as LVF, certain factors can be helpful. These include a normal heart size, absent septal lines, air bronchograms, and a peripheral distribution. these signs and symptoms can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat ARDS effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      68.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 67-year-old man was admitted for an elective coronary angiogram. He had a...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man was admitted for an elective coronary angiogram. He had a past medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension and chronic kidney disease. His blood results are below:

      Na+ 140 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 5.1 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Bicarbonate 21 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      Urea 11.8 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 194 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      What is the most effective measure to prevent contrast-induced nephropathy in this patient?

      Your Answer: Oral rehydration

      Correct Answer: IV 0.9% sodium chloride

      Explanation:

      Although Metformin is not harmful to the kidneys, it may cause lactic acidosis in individuals with renal impairment (eGFR <30). On the other hand, ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) should be discontinued. There is no proof that N-acetylcysteine or early haemodialysis after contrast administration is advantageous. Contrast media nephrotoxicity is characterized by a 25% increase in creatinine levels within three days of receiving intravascular contrast media. This condition typically occurs between two to five days after administration and is more likely to affect patients with pre-existing renal impairment, dehydration, cardiac failure, or those taking nephrotoxic drugs like NSAIDs. Procedures that may cause contrast-induced nephropathy include CT scans with contrast and coronary angiography or percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). Around 5% of patients who undergo PCI experience a temporary increase in plasma creatinine levels of more than 88 µmol/L. To prevent contrast-induced nephropathy, intravenous 0.9% sodium chloride should be administered at a rate of 1 mL/kg/hour for 12 hours before and after the procedure. Isotonic sodium bicarbonate may also be used. While N-acetylcysteine was previously used, recent evidence suggests it is not effective. Patients at high risk for contrast-induced nephropathy should have metformin withheld for at least 48 hours and until their renal function returns to normal to avoid the risk of lactic acidosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine
      59.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - You are urgently called to the Emergency Department to assist with a critical...

    Correct

    • You are urgently called to the Emergency Department to assist with a critical patient. A 60-year-old male has been admitted with severe shortness of breath and is in a critical condition. The chest X-ray indicates heart failure as the likely diagnosis.

      The medical team has already administered 80 mg of furosemide intravenously, and the patient is currently receiving an intravenous nitroglycerin infusion. The patient's blood pressure is 100/70 mmHg.

      Despite these interventions, the patient's oxygen saturation levels remain low at 88% even with high flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask. What should be the next course of action to manage this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Non invasive ventilation (NIV)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Decompensated Heart Failure

      Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) and BiPAP are commonly used in heart failure to improve gas exchange and decrease the work of breathing. Morphine is sometimes prescribed to reduce anxiety and the work of breathing, although it is not included in guidelines as a recommended drug for decompensated heart failure. Inotropes such as milrinone and dobutamine can be used in cases of cardiogenic shock, where there is impaired end-organ function in patients with advanced heart failure. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can be administered intravenously to reduce pre-load in an already congested patient, although the effect of diuresis comes much later and has a modest overall contribution in managing shortness of breath. It is important to note that beta blockers are contraindicated in the acute presentation of pulmonary edema, particularly when administered intravenously. Overall, treatment options for decompensated heart failure vary depending on the severity of the condition and the individual patient’s needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      54.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 67-year-old man presents to the respiratory clinic with a three-month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents to the respiratory clinic with a three-month history of a productive cough and steady weight loss of 10 kg. He has noticed streaks of blood in his sputum over the past week and complains of night sweats. He has a history of bronchial asthma and has required hospital admission on several occasions. His current therapy includes salbutamol and beclomethasone inhalers and prednisolone 5 mg once daily. His chest x-ray shows right apical consolidation and a sputum sample is positive for acid-alcohol fast bacilli, leading to a presumptive diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis. He is started on antituberculous therapy but presents to the Emergency department five days later with breathlessness and wheeze. On examination, he has widespread expiratory wheezes and a PEFR of 110 L/min. His chest x-ray does not show any significant change. What is the most appropriate step in his management?

      Your Answer: Continue anti-tuberculous therapy and steroids at current dose

      Correct Answer: Continue anti-tuberculous therapy and increase steroid dose

      Explanation:

      Rifampicin Increases Corticosteroid Metabolism

      Rifampicin is known to increase the metabolism of corticosteroids. This means that the body breaks down corticosteroids more quickly when rifampicin is present. This can lead to lower levels of corticosteroids in the body, which can be problematic for patients who rely on these medications for long-term treatment.

      For patients who are on long-term corticosteroid therapy and need to start antituberculous therapy, it is important to adjust their dose of corticosteroids accordingly. This is because rifampicin can increase the metabolism of corticosteroids, which can lead to lower levels of these medications in the body. By increasing the dose of corticosteroids, patients can maintain therapeutic levels of these medications while also receiving treatment for tuberculosis. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients closely and adjust their medication regimens as needed to ensure optimal outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      33.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 67-year-old man with a history of metastatic prostate cancer to the spine...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man with a history of metastatic prostate cancer to the spine and right hip presents with right jaw pain that has been ongoing for four weeks. He recently had a right lower molar dental extraction six weeks ago. The patient is currently taking Oxycontin for pain and receives monthly IV zoledronic acid. A bone scan performed one month ago showed no changes over the past six months. He is also on leuprolide for prostate cancer. On physical examination, he has a temperature of 38.0°C (100.4°F), blood pressure of 116/70 mm Hg, pulse rate of 72/min, and respiration rate of 14/min. There is swelling over his right mandible with tenderness and limited mouth opening. His recent prostate specific antigen (PSA) is undetectable. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Temporomandibular joint dislocation

      Correct Answer: Osteonecrosis of the jaw

      Explanation:

      Osteonecrosis of the Jaw and Other Possible Causes of Jaw Pain

      Osteonecrosis of the jaw is a known complication of bisphosphonate therapy, especially when administered intravenously. Other factors that may contribute to this condition include the use of steroids and dental procedures. To prevent this complication, it is recommended that patients undergo dental assessment before starting treatment with IV bisphosphonates.

      Leuprolide, on the other hand, is known to cause osteoporosis, flushing, and generalized body pain. However, isolated jaw pain and fever are unlikely to be caused by this medication. In this case, a recent bone scan that showed no changes from the previous one and an undetectable PSA level make new bone metastases unlikely.

      Furthermore, there is no history of trauma that could suggest temporomandibular joint dislocation. The patient’s continuous jaw pain without accompanying headaches or visual symptoms also makes giant cell arteritis an unlikely cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      93.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 28-year-old woman presents with a facial rash that has been present for...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with a facial rash that has been present for a few weeks. The rash appears erythematous, greasy, and has a fine scale on her cheeks, nasolabial folds, eyebrows, nasal bridge, and scalp. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematous (SLE)

      Correct Answer: Seborrhoeic dermatitis

      Explanation:

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is often the culprit behind an itchy rash that appears on the face and scalp. This condition is characterized by its distribution pattern, which affects these areas. It can be distinguished from acne rosacea, which typically does not involve the nasolabial folds and is marked by the presence of telangiectasia and pustules.

      Understanding Seborrhoeic Dermatitis in Adults

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a chronic skin condition that affects around 2% of the general population. It is caused by an inflammatory reaction related to the overgrowth of a fungus called Malassezia furfur, which is a normal inhabitant of the skin. The condition is characterized by eczematous lesions that appear on the sebum-rich areas of the body, such as the scalp, periorbital, auricular, and nasolabial folds. It can also lead to the development of otitis externa and blepharitis.

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is often associated with other medical conditions, such as HIV and Parkinson’s disease. The management of scalp disease typically involves the use of over-the-counter preparations containing zinc pyrithione or tar as a first-line treatment. If these are not effective, ketoconazole is the preferred second-line agent. Selenium sulphide and topical corticosteroids may also be useful.

      For the management of seborrhoeic dermatitis on the face and body, topical antifungals such as ketoconazole are recommended. Topical steroids can also be used, but only for short periods. However, the condition can be difficult to treat, and recurrences are common. It is important to seek medical advice if the symptoms persist or worsen despite treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      78.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 50-year-old male presents with difficulty sleeping, weight loss, and anxiety. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male presents with difficulty sleeping, weight loss, and anxiety. He has been taking combined cyclical oestrogen/progesterone hormone replacement therapy for the past two years. On examination, he has a body mass index of 25 kg/m2, a pulse of 100 beats per minute, and a blood pressure of 118/76 mmHg. No goitre is palpable, and eye movements are normal. Weakness of the proximal musculature of the shoulder and hip girdles is noted. Abdominal examination reveals a palpable splenic tip.

      Initial investigations reveal the following:
      - Serum total thyroxine 260 nmol/L (60-140)
      - Plasma TSH <0.1 mU/L (0.4-5.0)
      - Serum alkaline phosphatase 190 U/L (45-105)
      - Serum gamma glutamyl transferase 28 U/L (4-35)

      The patient's GP prescribes carbimazole 10 mg tds and propranolol 120 mg BD. At the six-week review, the patient appears clinically euthyroid. Repeat investigations show:
      - Free thyroxine 190 nmol/L
      - Plasma TSH 2.5 mU/L
      - Serum alkaline phosphatase 170 U/L
      - Serum gamma glutamyl transferase 35 U/L

      The dose of carbimazole is decreased to 20 mg daily. After one year, the GP decides to refer the patient to endocrine outpatients. Two weeks before the appointment, the patient had a chest infection treated with erythromycin. His blood test results show:
      - Serum thyroxine 85 nmol/L
      - Plasma TSH 11.2 mU/L
      - Serum alkaline phosphatase 100 U/L

      What would be the most appropriate next investigation?

      Your Answer: Isoenzymes of alkaline phosphatase

      Correct Answer: Serum free thyroxine

      Explanation:

      Importance of Serum Free Thyroxine in Evaluating Hypothyroidism in Patients on HRT

      The patient’s recent thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) test results indicate hypothyroidism, but her serum total thyroxine levels are within the normal range. However, it is important to note that the patient is currently receiving oestrogen/progesterone hormone replacement therapy (HRT).

      Thyroxine is primarily bound to thyroxine binding globulin in the bloodstream. Oestrogen therapy is known to increase the levels of thyroxine binding globulin in the serum. Therefore, the total serum thyroxine levels may not accurately reflect the patient’s thyroid function in this case.

      To confirm whether the patient is truly hypothyroid or not, it is crucial to measure the serum free thyroxine levels. This test measures the amount of unbound thyroxine in the bloodstream and is not affected by changes in thyroxine binding globulin levels. Therefore, it provides a more accurate assessment of the patient’s thyroid function, especially in patients on HRT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
      34.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 47-year-old woman presents to the endocrinology outpatient service with incidental hypercalcaemia on...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman presents to the endocrinology outpatient service with incidental hypercalcaemia on a routine blood test. She has no significant medical history.

      On examination, there are no notable findings.

      Lab results:

      - Parathyroid hormone: 8.2 pmol/L (normal range: 1.6 - 6.9)
      - Calcium: 2.78 mmol/L (normal range: 2.20-2.6)
      - Vitamin D: 72 nmol/L (normal range: >50)
      - Urea: 4.5 mmol/L (normal range: 2.0 - 7.0)
      - Creatinine: 70 µmol/L (normal range: 55 - 120)

      What is the most likely cause of these findings?

      Your Answer: Multiple myeloma

      Correct Answer: Familial benign hypocalciuric hypercalcaemia

      Explanation:

      Familial benign hypocalciuric hypercalcaemia is a possible diagnosis even if the patient’s PTH level is normal or elevated. Other potential diagnoses to consider include primary hyperparathyroidism, tertiary hyperparathyroidism, and familial benign hypocalciuric hypercalcaemia.

      Understanding Familial Benign Hypocalciuric Hypercalcaemia

      Familial benign hypocalciuric hypercalcaemia is a rare genetic disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is characterised by asymptomatic hypercalcaemia, which means that there are high levels of calcium in the blood but no symptoms are present. This disorder is caused by a defect in the calcium-sensing receptor, which results in a decreased sensitivity to increases in extracellular calcium.

      In cases of hypercalcaemia that are not related to hyperparathyroidism, the parathyroid hormone level is usually suppressed. However, in familial benign hypocalciuric hypercalcaemia, the parathyroid hormone level is often not suppressed. This is because the calcium-sensing receptor is not functioning properly, which leads to a decreased sensitivity to increases in extracellular calcium.

      Overall, familial benign hypocalciuric hypercalcaemia is a rare genetic disorder that affects the body’s ability to regulate calcium levels. While it is usually asymptomatic, it is important to monitor calcium levels and seek medical attention if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
      35.9
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  • Question 18 - A 15-year-old male presents with chronic headaches and visual blurring lasting for 4...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old male presents with chronic headaches and visual blurring lasting for 4 months. He has no past medical history and no known family history. On examination, his heart sounds are normal with no added sounds and the respiratory examination is unremarkable. He has no focal neurological signs. Fundoscopy reveals papilloedema, hard exudates and flame haemorrhage. His blood pressure is 230/160 mmHg. His blood tests and arterial blood gas are as follows:

      Na+ 145 mmol/l
      K+ 2.8 mmol/l
      Urea 5.2 mmol/l
      Creatinine 70 µmol/l

      pH 7.50
      PaO2 13.2kPa
      PaCO2 3.3 kPa
      Bicarbonate 35 mmol/L

      Serum ambulatory renin activity 0.3 pmol/L @ 3-4 hours (normal range 0.8-3.5 pmol/ml/hr)
      Serum ambulatory aldosterone 25 pmol/L@ 3-4 hours (normal range 100-800)

      What is the recommended long-term treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Amiloride

      Explanation:

      The individual is young and displays severe hypertensive retinopathic changes, with a systolic reading exceeding 200 mmHg. They also have hypokalaemia and metabolic alkalosis. Notably, primary hyperaldosteronism has been ruled out as both renin and aldosterone levels are low. The likely diagnosis is Liddle’s syndrome, a genetic disorder affecting ENaC channels in the collecting duct. This results in heightened sodium reabsorption and increased potassium excretion. Treatment involves the use of amiloride, a potassium-sparing diuretic that directly blocks sodium channels in the collecting tubule, effectively resolving hypertension.

      Understanding Liddle’s Syndrome

      Liddle’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is a rare condition that causes hypertension and hypokalaemic alkalosis. The condition is believed to be caused by a malfunction in the sodium channels in the distal tubules of the kidneys, which leads to an increased reabsorption of sodium. This, in turn, causes an increase in blood pressure and a decrease in potassium levels in the body.

      The treatment for Liddle’s syndrome involves the use of medications such as amiloride or triamterene. These medications work by blocking the sodium channels in the kidneys, which helps to reduce the reabsorption of sodium and increase the excretion of potassium. With proper treatment, individuals with Liddle’s syndrome can manage their blood pressure and potassium levels effectively. It is important for individuals with this condition to work closely with their healthcare provider to develop a treatment plan that is tailored to their specific needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
      22.4
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  • Question 19 - An 82-year-old man presents to the respiratory clinic with poorly controlled COPD despite...

    Incorrect

    • An 82-year-old man presents to the respiratory clinic with poorly controlled COPD despite being prescribed inhaled salbutamol. He reports consistent breathlessness on minimal exertion, which is limiting his daily activities. There is no diurnal variation in his symptoms. He has a significant smoking history of 50 pack years and a past medical history of hypertension treated with ramipril. Recent blood tests show normal hemoglobin, platelets, and white blood cell count with a slightly elevated neutrophil count. The lymphocyte and eosinophil counts are within normal limits.

      What would be the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Assessment for long term oxygen therapy

      Correct Answer: Add a long acting beta agonist + muscarinic antagonist (LABA + LAMA)

      Explanation:

      If a patient with COPD is still experiencing breathlessness despite using a SABA/SAMA, the next step in management depends on whether they exhibit asthma/steroid-responsive features. In the absence of any history of asthma/atopy, diurnal variation in symptoms, or an elevated eosinophil count, it is unlikely that the patient is steroid responsive. Therefore, the most appropriate second-line treatment would be to add a LABA + LAMA, rather than using leukotriene receptor antagonists or ICS. Prophylactic antibiotics may be considered for patients with recurrent infective exacerbations, but this is not applicable in this case. It is premature to assess for long-term oxygen therapy until the patient is on optimal medical therapy.

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in 2018. The guidelines recommend general management strategies such as smoking cessation advice, annual influenza vaccination, and one-off pneumococcal vaccination. Pulmonary rehabilitation is also recommended for patients who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD.

      Bronchodilator therapy is the first-line treatment for patients who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting bronchodilators. The next step is determined by whether the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness. NICE suggests several criteria to determine this, including a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher blood eosinophil count, substantial variation in FEV1 over time, and substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow.

      If the patient does not have asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be added. If the patient is already taking a short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA), it should be discontinued and switched to a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA). If the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be added. If the patient remains breathless or has exacerbations, triple therapy (LAMA + LABA + ICS) should be offered.

      NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients who have optimised standard treatments and continue to have exacerbations. Mucolytics should be considered in patients with a chronic productive cough and continued if symptoms improve.

      Cor pulmonale features include peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, systolic parasternal heave, and loud P2. Loop diuretics should be used for oedema, and long-term oxygen therapy should be considered. Smoking cessation, long-term oxygen therapy in eligible patients, and lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients may improve survival in patients with stable COPD. NICE does not recommend the use of ACE-inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, or alpha blockers

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 50-year-old man with a history of hypertension and ischemic heart disease presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with a history of hypertension and ischemic heart disease presents to the emergency department after collapsing. He experienced weakness on his left side before suddenly falling to the ground. His partner reports that he was unconscious for approximately two minutes and noticed that the right side of his face drooped. However, the patient's symptoms resolved entirely after an hour.

      Given the patient's medical history and symptoms, what aspect of his history indicates that an alternative diagnosis is more probable than a TIA?

      Your Answer: Patient's age

      Correct Answer: Loss of consciousness

      Explanation:

      Loss of consciousness is not a common symptom of Transient ischaemic attacks (TIAs). Although the patient’s age is not typical for a TIA, it does not rule out the possibility, especially considering his risk factors. Anti-platelets are a preventive measure but do not guarantee complete risk reduction. A posterior circulation TIA can result in crossed patterns of weakness. The sudden onset and rapid, complete recovery of symptoms support a TIA diagnosis.

      A transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a brief period of neurological deficit caused by a vascular issue, lasting less than an hour. The original definition of a TIA was based on time, but it is now recognized that even short periods of ischaemia can result in pathological changes to the brain. Therefore, a new ’tissue-based’ definition is now used. The clinical features of a TIA are similar to those of a stroke, but the symptoms resolve within an hour. Possible features include unilateral weakness or sensory loss, aphasia or dysarthria, ataxia, vertigo, or loss of balance, visual problems, sudden transient loss of vision in one eye (amaurosis fugax), diplopia, and homonymous hemianopia.

      NICE recommends immediate antithrombotic therapy, giving aspirin 300 mg immediately unless the patient has a bleeding disorder or is taking an anticoagulant. If aspirin is contraindicated, management should be discussed urgently with the specialist team. Specialist review is necessary if the patient has had more than one TIA or has a suspected cardioembolic source or severe carotid stenosis. Urgent assessment within 24 hours by a specialist stroke physician is required if the patient has had a suspected TIA in the last 7 days. Referral for specialist assessment should be made as soon as possible within 7 days if the patient has had a suspected TIA more than a week previously. The person should be advised not to drive until they have been seen by a specialist.

      Neuroimaging should be done on the same day as specialist assessment if possible. MRI is preferred to determine the territory of ischaemia or to detect haemorrhage or alternative pathologies. Carotid imaging is necessary as atherosclerosis in the carotid artery may be a source of emboli in some patients. All patients should have an urgent carotid doppler unless they are not a candidate for carotid endarterectomy.

      Antithrombotic therapy is recommended, with clopidogrel being the first-line treatment. Aspirin + dipyridamole should be given to patients who cannot tolerate clopidogrel. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if the patient has suffered a stroke or TIA in the carotid territory and is not severely disabled. It should only be recommended if carotid stenosis is greater

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      12.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurology (2/3) 67%
Respiratory Medicine (3/4) 75%
Cardiology (2/3) 67%
Infectious Diseases (2/2) 100%
Oncology (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine (2/3) 67%
Medical Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics (0/1) 0%
Renal Medicine (1/1) 100%
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