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  • Question 1 - What is the most accurate description of raloxifene in the management of osteoporosis?...

    Correct

    • What is the most accurate description of raloxifene in the management of osteoporosis?

      Your Answer: A selective oestrogen receptor modulator

      Explanation:

      Raloxifene: A Selective Oestrogen Receptor Modulator

      Raloxifene is a medication that belongs to the class of selective oestrogen receptor modulators (SERMs). It works by selectively binding to oestrogen receptors in different parts of the body, acting as an agonist or antagonist depending on the location.

      There are two types of oestrogen receptors, alpha and beta, which are found in various locations such as the breast, uterus, bone, and vasculature. Raloxifene acts as an oestrogen agonist in the bone, promoting mineralisation, while acting as an antagonist in the uterus and breast, preventing hyperplasia.

      This is different from tamoxifen, another SERM, which acts as a partial agonist in the endometrium and can promote endometrial hyperplasia. Raloxifene’s selective action makes it a useful medication for treating osteoporosis and reducing the risk of breast cancer in postmenopausal women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 52-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset, painless visual loss affecting her left eye....

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset, painless visual loss affecting her left eye. She awoke from sleep to find that she could only perceive light and dark and was unable to drive to work because of this.
      She has a history of recurrent miscarriage, although she has gone on to have one healthy child. Her medical history is otherwise unremarkable. She is anxious and has a blood pressure of 154/89 mmHg; her heart rate is 78 bpm and regular.
      A picture of her left retina is shown below:
      Which of the following is the most useful investigation?

      Your Answer: Thrombophilia screen

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Sudden Visual Loss with Flame-Shaped Hemorrhages

      Explanation: Sudden visual loss with extensive flame-shaped hemorrhages on retinal photographs can be indicative of central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO). This may be linked to an underlying thrombophilia, especially in patients with a history of recurrent miscarriage. Therefore, a thrombophilia screen is the most appropriate next step. However, it is important to note that raised intraocular pressure can also be a risk factor for retinal vein occlusion.

      Carotid angiography is not recommended as central retinal artery occlusion presents with a pale retina, not extensive hemorrhages. CT renal angiogram is not indicated unless there are signs and symptoms of uncontrolled hypertension. Intraocular pressure measurement is not useful in this case as it is associated with acute glaucoma, which presents with pain and a firm globe, and is not associated with the retinal picture seen in CRVO. Ultrasound of both kidneys is only useful in the case of hypertensive retinopathy, which is not suggested by sudden visual loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      41.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You are working in a GP practice, and your next patient is a...

    Correct

    • You are working in a GP practice, and your next patient is a female aged 35, who has recently registered. She is living in a hostel near to the practice. She has a previous medical history of anxiety and depression, and is coded to be an ex-intravenous drug user.

      She reports having intensely itchy 'lumps' on her arms and legs for the past two weeks. Upon examination, she has multiple red bumps and raised areas on her limbs and torso, with some of these appearing in a curved line pattern. Her hands, feet, and groin are unaffected.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bedbug infestation

      Explanation:

      If a patient complains of intensely itchy bumps on their arms, torso, or legs, it may be a sign of a bed bug infestation. This is especially true if the patient has recently stayed in a hotel, hostel, or other temporary accommodation, as bed bugs can easily travel on clothing and luggage.

      While scabies is a possible differential diagnosis, it is less likely if the patient doesn’t have involvement of the finger webs or linear burrows beneath the skin. Bed bug bites tend to appear as lumps or welts, rather than small spots.

      If the lesions are aligned in a line or curve, this is also suggestive of a bed bug infestation, as the insects tend to move across the skin in a linear fashion.

      Dealing with Bed Bugs: Symptoms, Treatment, and Prevention

      Bed bugs are a type of insect that can cause a range of clinical problems, including itchy skin rashes, bites, and allergic reactions. Infestation with Cimex hemipterus is the primary cause of these symptoms. In recent years, bed bug infestations have become increasingly common in the UK, and they can be challenging to eradicate. These insects thrive in mattresses and fabrics, making them difficult to detect and eliminate.

      Topical hydrocortisone can help control the itch. However, the definitive treatment for bed bugs is through a pest management company that can fumigate your home. This process can be costly, but it is the most effective way to eliminate bed bugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - At what age would a typical toddler develop the skill to construct a...

    Incorrect

    • At what age would a typical toddler develop the skill to construct a tower using three blocks?

      Your Answer: 2 years

      Correct Answer: 18 months

      Explanation:

      Fine Motor and Vision Developmental Milestones

      Fine motor and vision developmental milestones are important indicators of a child’s growth and development. At three months, a baby can reach for objects and hold a rattle briefly if given to their hand. They are visually alert, particularly to human faces, and can fix and follow to 180 degrees. By six months, they can hold objects in a palmar grasp and pass them from one hand to another. They become visually insatiable, looking around in every direction. At nine months, they can point with their finger and develop an early pincer grip. By 12 months, they have a good pincer grip and can bang toys together.

      In terms of bricks, a 15-month-old can build a tower of two, while an 18-month-old can build a tower of three. A two-year-old can build a tower of six, and a three-year-old can build a tower of nine. When it comes to drawing, an 18-month-old can make circular scribbles, while a two-year-old can copy a vertical line. A three-year-old can copy a circle, a four-year-old can copy a cross, and a five-year-old can copy a square and triangle.

      It’s important to note that hand preference before 12 months is abnormal and may indicate cerebral palsy. These milestones serve as a guide for parents and caregivers to monitor a child’s development and ensure they are meeting their milestones appropriately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - You are studying the measurement of a new biomarker for cognitive decline in...

    Correct

    • You are studying the measurement of a new biomarker for cognitive decline in elderly patients, and how it might be applied to geriatric medicine. You assume that the data for this particular biomarker are likely to be normally distributed.

      When considering the normal distribution, which of the following is true?

      Your Answer: The mean, median and mode are the same value

      Explanation:

      Understanding Normal Distribution and Parametric Tests

      The normal distribution is a bell-shaped curve that is symmetrical on both sides. Its mean, median, and mode are equal, making it a useful tool for analyzing data. For instance, the probability that a normally distributed random variable x, with mean sigma, and standard deviation µ, lies between (sigma – 1.96 µ) and (sigma + 1.96 µ) is 0.95, while the probability that it lies between (sigma – µ) and (sigma + µ) is 0.68. Additionally, 95% of the distribution of sample means lie within 1.96 standard deviations of the population mean.

      Parametric tests are statistical tests that assume the data are normally distributed. However, data that are not normally distributed can still be subject to a parametric test, but they need to be transformed first. Understanding normal distribution and parametric tests is crucial for researchers and analysts who want to make accurate inferences from their data.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      35.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 7-year-old boy has developed involuntary movements of his arms and face over...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old boy has developed involuntary movements of his arms and face over the last few days. Some of these he converts into apparently purposeful movement by pushing back his hair or scratching his nose. There is reduced tone in the limbs, and he is unsteady. He seems unconcerned and intermittently giggles. His mother tells you that he had a sore throat four weeks previously.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sydenham’s chorea

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sydenham’s Chorea: A Common Cause of Acute Chorea Worldwide

      Sydenham’s chorea, also known as St Vitus’ dance, is a neurological manifestation of rheumatic fever and remains the most common cause of acute chorea worldwide. While it was commonly seen in the 1930s, it occurs less frequently in the UK today. This condition can occur with or without symptoms of rheumatic fever and is usually self-limiting. Improvement occurs over about two weeks, but total recovery can take up to nine months, and may recur in some patients.

      In this scenario, the short time course of the chorea and the girl’s age are useful diagnostically. It is important to note that psychological changes may precede or accompany the choreiform movements, as demonstrated by the girl’s emotional lability.

      It is important to consider other potential causes of chorea, such as cerebral tumour, cerebrovascular accident, Guillain–Barré syndrome, and Huntington’s chorea. However, in this case, these conditions are unlikely as they do not fit with the girl’s symptoms and age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      214.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 7-year-old boy presents with a viral upper respiratory tract infection. On examination,...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old boy presents with a viral upper respiratory tract infection. On examination, you hear a heart murmur that has not been noted previously.
      Which of the following features is most indicative of an innocent murmur?

      Your Answer: The murmur is short and systolic in nature

      Explanation:

      Understanding Innocent Murmurs in Children

      Innocent murmurs are common in children and are usually harmless. They are short in duration, soft, systolic, and typically located at the left sternal border. Innocent murmurs may change with the child’s position or respiration, but they do not usually radiate and are without symptoms in the patient.

      It is important to note that a grade 4/6 murmur is loud with a thrill and is usually pathological. Murmurs that are only diastolic in nature or pansystolic in nature are also usually pathological. The presence of abnormal heart sounds is another indication of a pathological murmur.

      If an innocent murmur is suspected, it should disappear when the child has recovered from a febrile illness. If the murmur persists when the child is well, further investigation is warranted.

      Understanding the characteristics of innocent murmurs can help healthcare professionals differentiate between harmless murmurs and those that require further investigation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      140.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 12-year-old girl with a learning disability is brought to see her General...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old girl with a learning disability is brought to see her General Practitioner (GP) by her father. Her mother is very upset, and asked her father to bring her to see the GP as she spends a lot of time in her bedroom, and her mother has walked in many times and found her masturbating in her bed. There are no concerns about her behaviour at school.
      Which of the following management steps would be most appropriate in primary care?

      Your Answer: Reassure the patient and father that this is normal adolescent behaviour

      Explanation:

      Managing Adolescent Masturbation in Children with Learning Disabilities

      It is not uncommon for adolescents with learning disabilities to engage in sexual behaviour, including masturbation. However, it is important to assess whether this behaviour is age-appropriate and not a cause for concern. In this case, as the child is masturbating privately and there are no reports of concerning behaviour from school or other services, reassurance to the patient and father that this is normal adolescent behaviour is appropriate. Referral to CAMHS, learning disability team, psychosexual counselling, or social services is not indicated at this time. It is important to use tools such as the Brook Traffic Light tool to identify normal age-appropriate sexualised behaviours and those which are a cause for concern.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
      97.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A study examines whether playing golf increases the likelihood of developing medial epicondylitis....

    Correct

    • A study examines whether playing golf increases the likelihood of developing medial epicondylitis. Sixty individuals who frequently play golf are paired with sixty individuals who do not play golf. Out of the golfers, thirty have experienced medial epicondylitis at some point, while only ten of the non-golfers have. What is the odds ratio for developing medial epicondylitis among individuals who play golf?

      Your Answer: 5

      Explanation:

      When calculating the odds, it is important to distinguish them from the risk. For instance, the odds of a golfer developing medial epicondylitis are 1, which is obtained by dividing the number of golfers who develop the condition (30) by the number of golfers in the sample (30). If we were to calculate the risk, we would divide the number of golfers who develop the condition (30) by the total number of individuals in the sample (60), resulting in a risk of 0.5.

      Similarly, the odds of a non-golfer developing medial epicondylitis are 0.2, which is obtained by dividing the number of non-golfers who develop the condition (10) by the number of non-golfers in the sample (50). The risk, on the other hand, would be obtained by dividing the number of non-golfers who develop the condition (10) by the total number of individuals in the sample (60), resulting in a risk of 0.16.

      To calculate the odds ratio, we divide the odds of golfers developing the condition (1) by the odds of non-golfers developing the condition (0.2), resulting in an odds ratio of 5.

      Understanding Odds and Odds Ratio

      When analyzing data, it is important to understand the difference between odds and probability. Odds are a ratio of the number of people who experience a particular outcome to those who do not. On the other hand, probability is the fraction of times an event is expected to occur in many trials. While probability is always between 0 and 1, odds can be any positive number.

      In case-control studies, odds ratios are the usual reported measure. This ratio compares the odds of a particular outcome with experimental treatment to that of a control group. It is important to note that odds ratios approximate to relative risk if the outcome of interest is rare.

      For example, in a trial comparing the use of paracetamol for dysmenorrhoea compared to placebo, the odds of achieving significant pain relief with paracetamol were 2, while the odds of achieving significant pain relief with placebo were 0.5. Therefore, the odds ratio was 4.

      Understanding odds and odds ratio is crucial in interpreting data and making informed decisions. By knowing the difference between odds and probability and how to calculate odds ratios, researchers can accurately analyze and report their findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      253.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 72-year-old man presents with a four month history of left sided hearing...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man presents with a four month history of left sided hearing loss. He denies any pain, discharge tinnitus, vertigo or other symptoms of note. He is an ex-smoker with a 45 year pack history.

      On examination otoscopy of the right ear appears normal whilst the left ear shows a dullness to the tympanic membrane with air bubbles within the middle ear, the external auditory canal is clear. Rinne's test shows bone conduction better than air conduction in the left ear and air conduction better than bone conduction in the right ear. Weber's test lateralises to the left.

      What is the most appropriate cause of action?

      Your Answer: Two week wait referral to local ENT service

      Explanation:

      Understanding Head and Neck Cancer: Symptoms and Referral Criteria

      Head and neck cancer is a broad term that encompasses various types of cancer, including oral cavity cancers, pharynx cancers, and larynx cancers. Some of the common symptoms of head and neck cancer include a persistent sore throat, hoarseness, neck lump, and mouth ulcer.

      To ensure timely diagnosis and treatment, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has established referral criteria for suspected cancer pathways. For instance, individuals aged 45 and above with persistent unexplained hoarseness or an unexplained lump in the neck should be referred for an appointment within two weeks to rule out laryngeal cancer.

      Similarly, people with unexplained ulceration in the oral cavity lasting for more than three weeks or a persistent and unexplained lump in the neck should be referred for an appointment within two weeks to assess for possible oral cancer. Dentists should also consider an urgent referral for people with a lump on the lip or in the oral cavity or a red or red and white patch in the oral cavity consistent with erythroplakia or erythroleukoplakia.

      Lastly, individuals with an unexplained thyroid lump should be referred for an appointment within two weeks to rule out thyroid cancer. By following these referral criteria, healthcare professionals can ensure that individuals with head and neck cancer receive prompt and appropriate care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      45.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 35-year-old truck driver has recently been diagnosed with epilepsy and started on...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old truck driver has recently been diagnosed with epilepsy and started on sodium valproate. What guidance should be given regarding his group 2 license?

      Your Answer: He cannot drive until he is fit-free for 10 years without medication

      Explanation:

      Individuals who possess a group 2 license and have epilepsy are only permitted to operate a vehicle after a period of 10 years without experiencing seizures while not taking medication. This is a more stringent requirement compared to group 1 license holders. If a group 2 license holder is diagnosed with epilepsy, it is advised that they refrain from driving, even if their condition is under control with medication. Only after a decade of being seizure-free without medication can they undergo a reassessment to determine their eligibility to drive.

      The DVLA has guidelines for individuals with neurological disorders who wish to drive cars or motorcycles. However, the rules for drivers of heavy goods vehicles are much stricter. For individuals with epilepsy or seizures, they must not drive and must inform the DVLA. If an individual has had a first unprovoked or isolated seizure, they must take six months off driving if there are no relevant structural abnormalities on brain imaging and no definite epileptiform activity on EEG. If these conditions are not met, the time off driving is increased to 12 months. Individuals with established epilepsy or those with multiple unprovoked seizures may qualify for a driving license if they have been free from any seizure for 12 months. If there have been no seizures for five years (with medication if necessary), a ’til 70 license is usually restored. Individuals should not drive while anti-epilepsy medication is being withdrawn and for six months after the last dose.

      For individuals with syncope, a simple faint has no restriction on driving. A single episode that is explained and treated requires four weeks off driving. A single unexplained episode requires six months off driving, while two or more episodes require 12 months off. For individuals with other conditions such as stroke or TIA, they must take one month off driving. They may not need to inform the DVLA if there is no residual neurological deficit. If an individual has had multiple TIAs over a short period of time, they must take three months off driving and inform the DVLA. For individuals who have had a craniotomy, such as for meningioma, they must take one year off driving. If an individual has had a pituitary tumor, a craniotomy requires six months off driving, while trans-sphenoidal surgery allows driving when there is no debarring residual impairment likely to affect safe driving. Individuals with narcolepsy/cataplexy must cease driving on diagnosis but can restart once there is satisfactory control of symptoms. For individuals with chronic neurological disorders such as multiple sclerosis or motor neuron disease, they should inform the DVLA and complete the PK1 form (application for driving license holders’ state of health). If the tumor is a benign meningioma and there is no seizure history, the license can be reconsidered six months after surgery if the individual remains seizure-free.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      49.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - As a teacher, you are educating a parent on the application of topical...

    Correct

    • As a teacher, you are educating a parent on the application of topical steroids for their adolescent with atopic eczema. The parent has come across the concept of fingertip Units (FTU) for measuring the amount of steroid to use. Can you explain what 1 FTU represents?

      Your Answer: Sufficient to treat a skin area about twice that of the flat of an adult hand

      Explanation:

      The measurement for steroids using the fingertip unit (FTU) is equivalent to twice the area of an adult hand’s flat surface.

      Topical Steroids for Eczema Treatment

      Eczema is a common skin condition that causes red, itchy, and inflamed skin. Topical steroids are often used to treat eczema, but it is important to use the weakest steroid cream that effectively controls the patient’s symptoms. The potency of topical steroids varies, and the table below shows the different types of topical steroids by potency.

      To determine the appropriate amount of topical steroid to use, the fingertip rule can be applied. One fingertip unit (FTU) is equivalent to 0.5 g and is sufficient to treat an area of skin about twice the size of an adult hand. The table also provides the recommended number of FTUs per dose for different areas of the body.

      The British National Formulary (BNF) recommends specific quantities of topical steroids to be prescribed for a single daily application for two weeks. The recommended amounts vary depending on the area of the body being treated.

      In summary, when using topical steroids for eczema treatment, it is important to use the weakest steroid cream that effectively controls symptoms and to follow the recommended amounts for each area of the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      66.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - You encounter a 35 year old woman during her routine medication review. She...

    Correct

    • You encounter a 35 year old woman during her routine medication review. She has chronic plaque psoriasis on her trunk and her repeat prescription includes emollients, a topical coal-tar preparation, and a potent topical steroid cream for use during flare-ups. What guidance should you provide her regarding self-care with potent topical steroids for her psoriasis?

      Your Answer: Should not be used continuously on the same site for longer than 8 weeks; aim for at least 4 weeks break between courses

      Explanation:

      According to NICE, it is not recommended to use potent topical steroids for psoriasis on the same area for more than 8 weeks without a break of at least 4 weeks between courses. For very potent topical steroids, continuous use should not exceed 4 weeks, and patients should aim for a break of at least 4 weeks between courses. Prolonged use can lead to irreversible skin atrophy and striae, systemic steroid side effects, or destabilization of psoriasis. To maintain control when not using topical steroids, other topical therapies such as coal tar or vitamin D analogues can be used.

      Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can also affect the joints. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines for managing psoriasis and psoriatic arthropathy. For chronic plaque psoriasis, NICE recommends a stepwise approach starting with regular use of emollients to reduce scale loss and itching. First-line treatment involves applying a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, once daily in the morning and evening, for up to 4 weeks. If there is no improvement after 8 weeks, a vitamin D analogue twice daily can be used as second-line treatment. Third-line options include a potent corticosteroid applied twice daily for up to 4 weeks or a coal tar preparation applied once or twice daily. Phototherapy and systemic therapy are also options for managing psoriasis.

      For scalp psoriasis, NICE recommends using a potent topical corticosteroid once daily for 4 weeks. If there is no improvement, a different formulation of the corticosteroid or a topical agent to remove adherent scale can be used before applying the corticosteroid. For face, flexural, and genital psoriasis, a mild or moderate potency corticosteroid applied once or twice daily for a maximum of 2 weeks is recommended.

      When using topical steroids, it is important to be aware of potential side effects such as skin atrophy, striae, and rebound symptoms. The scalp, face, and flexures are particularly prone to steroid atrophy, so topical steroids should not be used for more than 1-2 weeks per month. Systemic side effects may occur when potent corticosteroids are used on large areas of the body. NICE recommends a 4-week break before starting another course of topical corticosteroids and using potent corticosteroids for no longer than 8 weeks at a time and very potent corticosteroids for no longer than 4 weeks at a time. Vitamin D analogues, such as calcipotriol, can be used long-term and tend to reduce the scale and thickness of plaques but not the redness. Dithranol and coal tar are other treatment options with their own unique mechanisms of action and potential adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      150.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 67-year-old man who experiences Stokes-Adams attacks has received a pacemaker that is...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man who experiences Stokes-Adams attacks has received a pacemaker that is functioning properly. What guidance should he be provided regarding driving?

      Your Answer: Cannot drive for 1 week

      Explanation:

      If you have had a pacemaker inserted or the box has been changed, it is important to inform the DVLA. It is also necessary to refrain from driving for a minimum of one week.

      DVLA Guidelines for Cardiovascular Disorders and Driving

      The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with cardiovascular disorders who wish to drive a car or motorcycle. For those with hypertension, driving is permitted unless the treatment causes unacceptable side effects, and there is no need to notify the DVLA. However, if the individual has Group 2 Entitlement, they will be disqualified from driving if their resting blood pressure consistently measures 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more.

      Individuals who have undergone elective angioplasty must refrain from driving for one week, while those who have undergone CABG or acute coronary syndrome must wait four weeks before driving. If an individual experiences angina symptoms at rest or while driving, they must cease driving altogether. Pacemaker insertion requires a one-week break from driving, while implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) implantation results in a six-month driving ban if implanted for sustained ventricular arrhythmia. If implanted prophylactically, the individual must cease driving for one month, and Group 2 drivers are permanently barred from driving with an ICD.

      Successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia requires a two-day break from driving, while an aortic aneurysm of 6 cm or more must be reported to the DVLA. Licensing will be permitted subject to annual review, but an aortic diameter of 6.5 cm or more disqualifies patients from driving. Finally, individuals who have undergone a heart transplant must refrain from driving for six weeks, but there is no need to notify the DVLA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      40.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following can cause a small pupil? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following can cause a small pupil?

      Your Answer: Pontine haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Causes of Pupil Size Changes

      Small pupils can be caused by a variety of factors, including Horner’s syndrome, old age, pontine hemorrhage, Argyll Robertson pupil, drugs, and poisons such as opiates and organophosphates. On the other hand, dilated pupils can be caused by Holmes-Adie (myotonic) pupil, third nerve palsy, drugs, and poisons such as atropine, CO, and ethylene glycol. It is important to identify the cause of pupil size changes as it can provide valuable information for diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      94.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A three-year-old baby girl is brought in by her father to your clinic....

    Correct

    • A three-year-old baby girl is brought in by her father to your clinic. He is worried that his baby might be experiencing some sort of vision issue. This worry first arose when he noticed that his baby's right pupil appeared white in a recent picture which was taken three days ago. This was never the case in previous pictures.

      What would be the most appropriate course of action to take next?

      Your Answer: Urgent ophthalmology referral

      Explanation:

      Leucocoria: Understanding the White Pupil Phenomenon

      Leucocoria, also known as white pupil, is a common occurrence in photographs. It is caused by the reflection of the camera flash from the optic nerve head. However, it is important to conduct a thorough ocular examination to rule out any treatable and potentially life-threatening ocular pathologies before concluding that there is nothing to worry about.

      In children, leucocoria could be a symptom of congenital cataract, congenital ocular toxoplasmosis, or retinoblastoma. Congenital cataract and congenital ocular toxoplasmosis are sight-threatening, while retinoblastoma is life-threatening. In the United Kingdom, the risk of retinoblastoma is estimated to be 1 in 20,000.

      Therefore, it is crucial to refer the child to an ophthalmologist urgently for further examination and investigation. Early detection and treatment can make a significant difference in the child’s vision and overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      28
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 46-year-old man has an ulcer on his right foot. He has had...

    Correct

    • A 46-year-old man has an ulcer on his right foot. He has had type 1 diabetes for 20 years.

      There is a small ulcer of 2 cm diameter on the outer aspect of his right big toe.

      His peripheral pulses are all palpable. He has a peripheral neuropathy to the mid shins. The ulcer has an erythematous margin and is covered by slough.

      Which is the most likely infective organism?

      Your Answer: Streptococcus pyogenes

      Explanation:

      Diabetic Foot Ulcers and Infections

      Diabetic foot ulcers can be categorized into two types: those in neuropathic feet and those in feet with ischemia. The former is warm and well-perfused with decreased sweating and dry skin, while the latter is cool and pulseless with thin, shiny skin and atrophy of subcutaneous tissues. Diabetic foot infections are serious and range from superficial paronychia to gangrene. Diabetics are more susceptible to foot ulceration due to neuropathy, vascular insufficiency, and reduced neutrophil function. Once skin ulceration occurs, pathogenic organisms can colonize the underlying tissues, and early signs of infection may be subtle. Local signs of wound infection include friable granulation tissue, yellow or grey moist tissue, purulent discharge, and an unpleasant odor. The most common pathogens are aerobic Gram-positive bacteria, particularly Staphylococcus aureus and beta-hemolytic Streptococci. If infection is suspected, deep swab and tissue samples should be sent for culture, and broad-spectrum antibiotics started. Urgent surgical intervention is necessary for a large area of infected sloughy tissue, localised fluctuance and expression of pus, crepitus in the soft tissues on radiological examination, and purplish discoloration of the skin. Antibiotic treatment should be tailored according to the clinical response, culture results, and sensitivity. If osteomyelitis is present, surgical resection should be considered, and antibiotics continued for four to six weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      50.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 6-month-old girl has poorly demarcated erythematous patches, with scale and crusting on...

    Correct

    • A 6-month-old girl has poorly demarcated erythematous patches, with scale and crusting on both cheeks. Milder patches are also to be found on the limbs and trunk. The limbs are predominantly affected in the flexures. The child has been scratching and has disturbed sleep because of the itch.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Atopic eczema

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Skin Conditions: Atopic Eczema, Impetigo, Acute Urticaria, Psoriasis, and Scabies

      When examining a child with skin complaints, it is important to distinguish between different skin conditions. Atopic eczema is a common cause of skin complaints in young children, presenting with poorly demarcated erythematous lesions, scale, and crusting. It typically affects the face in young children and only starts to predominate in the flexures at an older age.

      Impetigo, on the other hand, would cause lesions in a less widespread area and present with a yellow/golden crust. Acute urticaria would cause several raised smooth lesions that appear rapidly, without crust or scale. Psoriasis produces well-demarcated lesions, which are not seen in atopic eczema.

      Scabies would normally produce a more widespread rash with papules and excoriation, and sometimes visible burrows. It would not produce the scaled crusted lesions described in atopic eczema. By understanding the unique characteristics of each skin condition, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 32-year-old male smoker presents with sudden and severe pain on the left...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old male smoker presents with sudden and severe pain on the left side of his head, which has occurred four times this week. He reports that the pain is not throbbing and denies any visual disturbances or aura. Upon examination, there is profuse rhinorrhea, lacrimation, and swelling of the left eyelid. Additionally, the patient has partial ptosis and miosis on the left side. Further questioning reveals that both the patient and his father experience this pain every two years or so. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cluster headache

      Explanation:

      This case depicts the manifestation of a cluster headache, which is accompanied by several risk factors such as being a young male smoker with a positive family history. The occurrence of partial Horner’s syndrome is a common symptom in cluster headaches, but the primary autonomic symptoms are rhinorrhoea, nasal congestion, and lacrimation.

      Although the absence of visual disturbances like photophobia or blurred vision makes acute closed-angle glaucoma less probable, it is still advisable to consider this condition in such a presentation.

      While it is possible to have migraines without aura, the non-throbbing nature of the pain makes this diagnosis less likely.

      The one-sided pain distribution is inconsistent with a typical tension headache, which is usually described as a ‘tight band’ around the head.

      The sudden onset and recurrence every two years make the presence of a brain tumour less likely.

      Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is known to be extremely painful. They are called cluster headaches because they tend to occur in clusters that last for several weeks, usually once a year. These headaches are more common in men and smokers, and alcohol and sleep patterns may trigger an attack. The pain is typically sharp and stabbing, and it occurs around one eye. Patients may experience redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, nasal stuffiness, and miosis and ptosis in some cases.

      To manage cluster headaches, acute treatment options include 100% oxygen or subcutaneous triptan. Prophylaxis involves using verapamil as the drug of choice, and a tapering dose of prednisolone may also be effective. It is recommended to seek specialist advice from a neurologist if a patient develops cluster headaches with respect to neuroimaging. Some neurologists use the term trigeminal autonomic cephalgia to group a number of conditions including cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania, and short-lived unilateral neuralgiform headache with conjunctival injection and tearing (SUNCT). Patients with these conditions should be referred for specialist assessment as specific treatment may be required, such as indomethacin for paroxysmal hemicrania.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      116.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 35-year-old patient presents with sudden monocular visual loss on the right, associated...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old patient presents with sudden monocular visual loss on the right, associated with pain behind the eye and alteration of colour vision. Examination the following day reveals a relative afferent pupillary defect in the right eye.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Optic neuritis

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Optic Nerve Lesions: A Guide

      When a patient presents with impaired colour appreciation and a relative afferent pupillary defect, an acute optic nerve lesion is likely. In younger patients, optic neuritis due to demyelination is the most common cause. Fundoscopy may reveal a swollen optic nerve head in the acute stage. Hemianopic visual disturbance is more commonly seen in cerebral infarction, while optic nerve glioma typically presents over a longer period with proptosis. Migraine can cause transient monocular visual disturbances, often accompanied by headache. Temporal arteritis is rare in patients under 50.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      65.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A previously well, 60-year-old hypertensive builder presents with pain, redness and swelling in...

    Incorrect

    • A previously well, 60-year-old hypertensive builder presents with pain, redness and swelling in the right knee, which started 12 hours ago. There is a family history of hypertension and joint problems.

      What investigation is most important in identifying the cause of this patient's knee symptoms?

      Your Answer: Joint aspiration for microscopy and culture

      Correct Answer: HLA status

      Explanation:

      Importance of Joint Aspiration in Identifying the Cause of Acute Monoarthropathy

      This patient is presenting with an acute monoarthropathy, characterized by pain, swelling, and erythema of a single joint. To identify the cause of these knee symptoms, the most important investigation is joint aspiration. This is because more than one diagnosis is possible with the limited information given, with septic arthritis and gout being the top differentials.

      Joint aspiration involves the removal of synovial fluid from the affected joint for microscopy and culture. If the cause is septic arthritis, the aspirate would be turbid or purulent, and microscopy would reveal the presence of infective organisms. This information is crucial in guiding appropriate therapy. On the other hand, if the cause is gout, the aspirate would be cloudy, and microscopy would reveal crystals.

      Other investigations, such as x-rays, would not be able to differentiate between these key differential diagnoses. X-rays are of no value in septic arthritis as they only become abnormal following joint destruction. Therefore, joint aspiration is the most important investigation in identifying the cause of acute monoarthropathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      32.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - You are helping a 29-year-old woman quit smoking. She has multiple medical conditions...

    Correct

    • You are helping a 29-year-old woman quit smoking. She has multiple medical conditions and takes various medications for them. Which of the following health issues would not prevent the prescription of bupropion (Zyban)?

      Your Answer: Stable angina

      Explanation:

      Although there is no concrete evidence to support this, it is recommended to avoid using bupropion during pregnancy. The BNF states that bupropion should not be used in cases of acute alcohol or benzodiazepine withdrawal, severe hepatic cirrhosis, CNS tumor, history of seizures, eating disorders, or bipolar disorder.

      Smoking cessation is the process of quitting smoking. In 2008, NICE released guidance on how to manage smoking cessation. The guidance recommends that patients should be offered nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), varenicline or bupropion, and that clinicians should not favour one medication over another. These medications should be prescribed as part of a commitment to stop smoking on or before a particular date, and the prescription should only last until 2 weeks after the target stop date. If unsuccessful, a repeat prescription should not be offered within 6 months unless special circumstances have intervened. NRT can cause adverse effects such as nausea and vomiting, headaches, and flu-like symptoms. NICE recommends offering a combination of nicotine patches and another form of NRT to people who show a high level of dependence on nicotine or who have found single forms of NRT inadequate in the past.

      Varenicline is a nicotinic receptor partial agonist that should be started 1 week before the patient’s target date to stop. The recommended course of treatment is 12 weeks, but patients should be monitored regularly and treatment only continued if not smoking. Varenicline has been shown in studies to be more effective than bupropion, but it should be used with caution in patients with a history of depression or self-harm. Nausea is the most common adverse effect, and varenicline is contraindicated in pregnancy and breastfeeding.

      Bupropion is a norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitor, and nicotinic antagonist that should be started 1 to 2 weeks before the patient’s target date to stop. There is a small risk of seizures, and bupropion is contraindicated in epilepsy, pregnancy, and breastfeeding. Having an eating disorder is a relative contraindication.

      In 2010, NICE recommended that all pregnant women should be tested for smoking using carbon monoxide detectors. All women who smoke, or have stopped smoking within the last 2 weeks, or those with a CO reading of 7 ppm or above should be referred to NHS Stop Smoking Services. The first-line interventions in pregnancy should be cognitive behaviour therapy, motivational interviewing, or structured self-help and support from NHS Stop Smoking Services. The evidence for the use of NRT in pregnancy is mixed, but it is often used if the above measures fail. There is no evidence that it affects the child’s birthweight. Pregnant women

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      80.5
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - An 80-year-old man presents with tiredness and increasing back pain over the last...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man presents with tiredness and increasing back pain over the last few months. A routine blood test shows he is anaemic with a haemoglobin of 98 g/L (130-180). He has also lost half a stone in weight over the past two months. Further blood tests reveal a deterioration in his renal function, with his eGFR dropping from 86 to 59 ml/min. His ESR is elevated at 74 mm/hr and his corrected calcium is 2.8 mmol/L (2.2-2.6). All other blood tests are normal and on examination, he appears systemically well with no signs of spinal cord compression, lymphadenopathy or organomegaly. What is the most appropriate next step in determining a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Send a urine sample for Bence Jones protein

      Explanation:

      Suspected Myeloma Diagnosis

      This patient is presenting with common symptoms of myeloma, including back pain and malaise. However, the early constitutional symptoms can be vague, making it an easy diagnosis to overlook. Further examination reveals anemia, renal impairment, and elevated ESR and calcium levels, all of which point towards myeloma. Despite normal serum protein electrophoresis, it is important to note that one-third of myeloma patients have positive urine Bence Jones protein. Therefore, the next step in establishing a diagnosis is to test the patient’s urine for Bence Jones protein. According to NICE guidelines, protein electrophoresis and a Bence-Jones protein urine test should be considered urgently within 48 hours if the presentation is consistent with possible myeloma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      593.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which Antihypertensive medication is banned for use by professional athletes? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which Antihypertensive medication is banned for use by professional athletes?

      Your Answer: Bisoprolol

      Correct Answer: Doxazosin

      Explanation:

      Prohibited Substances in Sports

      Beta-blockers and diuretics are among the substances prohibited in certain sports. In billiards and archery, the use of beta-blockers is not allowed as they can enhance performance by reducing anxiety and tremors. On the other hand, diuretics are generally prohibited as they can be used as masking agents to hide the presence of other banned substances. It is important to note that diuretics can be found in some combination products, such as Cozaar-Comp which contains hydrochlorothiazide. Athletes should be aware of the substances they are taking and ensure that they are not violating any anti-doping regulations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      80.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 60-year-old woman presents with swollen legs and is diagnosed with proteinuria. Identify...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman presents with swollen legs and is diagnosed with proteinuria. Identify the one characteristic that would strongly indicate a diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome instead of nephritic syndrome.

      Your Answer: Proteinuria > 3.5g/24 hours

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nephrotic Syndrome and Nephritic Syndrome

      Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, edema, and hyperlipidemia. On the other hand, nephritic syndrome is defined by azotemia, hematuria, hypertension, and oliguria. Both syndromes present with edema, but the amount of proteinuria is higher in nephrotic syndrome.

      In nephrotic syndrome, the glomerulus has small pores that allow protein to pass through but not cells, resulting in proteinuria and hypoalbuminemia. The liver compensates for protein loss by increasing the synthesis of albumin, LDL, VLDL, and lipoprotein(a), leading to lipid abnormalities. Patients with nephrotic syndrome are also at risk of hypercoagulability and infection due to the loss of inhibitors of coagulation and immunoglobulins in the urine.

      The etiology of nephrotic syndrome varies depending on age and comorbidities. Minimal change disease is the most common cause in children, while focal segmental glomerulosclerosis is the most common cause in younger adults. Membranous nephropathy is the most common cause in older people, and diabetic nephropathy in adults with long-standing diabetes. Secondary causes include amyloidosis, lupus nephritis, and multiple myeloma.

      Categorizing glomerular renal disease into syndromes such as nephrotic syndrome and nephritic syndrome helps narrow the differential diagnosis. Understanding the differences between these two syndromes is crucial in the diagnosis and management of glomerular renal disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      31.8
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 35-year-old teacher complains of intense headache of 2-hours duration. The pain is...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old teacher complains of intense headache of 2-hours duration. The pain is localised around the right eye and is associated with tearing and redness of the eye. The patient reported he has had similar episodes over the last year. He also admits that these episodes occurred every day for a few weeks with one to three attacks a day which last for 1-2 hours, frequently at night. After 6 weeks, the attacks stopped. She lost her job 6 months ago and has noticed an increase in the intensity of the pain since. Examination reveals drooping of the eyelid and small pupil on the right side.
      Select the single MOST likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Cluster headache

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Headache Types: Cluster Headache, Intracranial Neoplasm, Acute Anterior Uveitis, Migraine, and Tension-Type Headache

      Headaches can be caused by various factors, and it is important to differentiate between different types to provide appropriate treatment. Cluster headache is a rare condition that affects mostly men and is characterized by intense pain around one eye, accompanied by nasal stuffiness and sometimes Horner syndrome. In contrast, headache is often a late symptom of an intracranial neoplasm, and a new headache or change in pattern may indicate an underlying tumor. Acute anterior uveitis presents with eye pain, redness, photophobia, excessive tearing, and decreased vision. Migraine is a common type of headache that presents with severe, often unilateral pain, accompanied by vomiting and photophobia. Tension-type headache is usually mild to moderate and described as pressure or tightness around the head. Understanding the specific features and associated symptoms of each type of headache can aid in accurate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      26.7
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of abnormal vaginal discharge. She...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of abnormal vaginal discharge. She reports engaging in unprotected sexual activity multiple times this month. She has experienced similar symptoms in her late teens and early twenties.

      What test has the greatest sensitivity for the probable condition of the patient?

      Your Answer: Vulvo-vaginal swab with NAAT

      Explanation:

      Chlamydia is best diagnosed using nucleic acid amplification tests (NAATs), which are highly sensitive and specific. In clinical practice, NAATs are the preferred method of testing. For females, vulvo-vaginal swabs are the most effective, while urethral swabs are typically used for men. Although cultures are also highly sensitive and specific, they can be less effective due to various factors such as inadequate specimen collection and overgrowth of cell cultures. Additionally, cell culture is expensive and requires experienced technicians. Patients who test positive for chlamydia should also be advised on the risks associated with unprotected sex and offered long-acting contraceptives. A pregnancy test may also be necessary.

      Chlamydia is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the UK caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is often asymptomatic but can cause cervicitis and dysuria in women and urethral discharge and dysuria in men. Complications include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility. Testing is done through nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) on urine or swab samples. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years. Doxycycline is the first-line treatment, but azithromycin may be used if contraindicated. Partners should be notified and treated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 65-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of erectile dysfunction. He...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of erectile dysfunction. He has a history of angina and takes isosorbide mononitrate. What is the most suitable initial treatment option in this scenario? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Alprostadil

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Erectile Dysfunction: Alprostadil, Tadalafil, Penile Prosthesis, and Psychosexual Counselling

      Erectile dysfunction affects a significant percentage of men, with prevalence increasing with age. The condition shares the same risk factors as cardiovascular disease. The usual first-line treatment with a phosphodiesterase-5 (PDE5) inhibitor is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates, as concurrent use can lead to severe hypotension or even death. Therefore, alternative treatment options are available.

      Alprostadil is an effective treatment for erectile dysfunction, either topically or in the form of an intracavernosal injection. It is the most appropriate treatment to offer where PDE5 inhibitors are ineffective or for people who find PDE5 inhibitors ineffective.

      Tadalafil, a PDE5 inhibitor, is a first-line treatment for erectile dysfunction. It lasts longer than sildenafil, which can help improve spontaneity. However, it is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates, and a second-line treatment, such as alprostadil, should be used.

      A penile prosthesis is a rare third-line option if both PDE5 inhibitors and alprostadil are either ineffective or inappropriate. It involves the insertion of a fluid-filled reservoir under the abdominal wall, with a pump and a release valve in the scrotum, that are used to inflate two implanted cylinders in the penis.

      Psychosexual counselling is recommended for treatment of psychogenic erectile dysfunction or in those men with severe psychological distress. It is not recommended for routine treatment, but studies have shown that psychotherapy is just as effective as vacuum devices and penile prosthesis.

      In summary, treatment options for erectile dysfunction include alprostadil, tadalafil, penile prosthesis, and psychosexual counselling, depending on the individual’s needs and contraindications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      152
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - You are evaluating a patient with advanced breast cancer. The patient has asked...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a patient with advanced breast cancer. The patient has asked you to fill out a DS1500 form. When is it appropriate to complete this form?

      Your Answer: When life expectancy is < 6 months

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      When an individual’s life expectancy is less than 6 months, a DS1500 form is filled out to expedite the process of receiving benefit payments.

      Patients who suffer from chronic illnesses or cancer and require assistance with caring for themselves may be eligible for benefits. Those under the age of 65 can claim Personal Independence Payment (PIP), while those aged 65 and over can claim Attendance Allowance (AA). PIP is tax-free and divided into two components: daily living and mobility. Patients must have a long-term health condition or disability and have difficulties with activities related to daily living and/or mobility for at least 3 months, with an expectation that these difficulties will last for at least 9 months. AA is also tax-free and is for those who need help with personal care. Patients should have needed help for at least 6 months to claim AA.

      Patients who have a terminal illness and are not expected to live for more than 6 months can be fast-tracked through the system for claiming incapacity benefit (IB), employment support allowance (ESA), DLA or AA. A DS1500 form is completed by a hospital or hospice consultant, which contains questions about the diagnosis, clinical features, treatment, and whether the patient is aware of the condition/prognosis. The form is given directly to the patient and a fee is payable by the Department for Works and Pensions (DWP) for its completion. This ensures that the application is dealt with promptly and that the patient automatically receives the higher rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      58
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 29-year-old man who has recently moved to the UK from Uganda presents...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old man who has recently moved to the UK from Uganda presents with complaints of fatigue and purple skin lesions all over his body. During examination, multiple raised purple lesions are observed on his trunk and arms. Additionally, smaller purple lesions are noticed in his mouth. The patient has recently begun taking acyclovir for herpes zoster infection.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Kaposi's sarcoma

      Explanation:

      The patient’s raised purple lesions suggest Kaposi’s sarcoma, which is often associated with HIV infection. The recent herpes zoster infection also suggests underlying immunocompromise. Other conditions such as dermatofibromas, psoriasis, and drug reactions are unlikely to present in this way, and a haemangioma is less likely than Kaposi’s sarcoma.

      Kaposi’s sarcoma is a type of cancer that is caused by the human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8). It is characterized by the appearance of purple papules or plaques on the skin or mucosa, such as in the gastrointestinal and respiratory tract. These skin lesions may eventually ulcerate, while respiratory involvement can lead to massive haemoptysis and pleural effusion. Treatment options for Kaposi’s sarcoma include radiotherapy and resection. It is commonly seen in patients with HIV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      73.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (1/1) 100%
Eyes And Vision (3/3) 100%
Dermatology (6/6) 100%
Children And Young People (2/3) 67%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (2/2) 100%
Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability (1/1) 100%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (1/1) 100%
Neurology (4/4) 100%
Cardiovascular Health (2/3) 67%
Musculoskeletal Health (0/1) 0%
Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse (1/1) 100%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Kidney And Urology (1/1) 100%
Gynaecology And Breast (1/1) 100%
End Of Life (0/1) 0%
Passmed