00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 55-year-old man has been referred to you due to a personality change...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man has been referred to you due to a personality change that has been going on for a year. He has become loud, sexually flirtatious, and inappropriate in social situations. He has also been experiencing difficulties with memory and abstract thinking, but his arithmetic ability remains intact. There is no motor impairment, and his speech is relatively preserved. Which area of the brain is most likely affected?

      Your Answer: Frontal lobe

      Explanation:

      Pick’s Disease: A Rare Form of Dementia

      Pick’s disease is a type of dementia that is not commonly seen. It is characterized by the degeneration of the frontal and temporal lobes of the brain. The symptoms of this disease depend on the location of the lobar atrophy, with patients experiencing either frontal or temporal lobe syndromes. Those with frontal atrophy may exhibit early personality changes, while those with temporal lobe atrophy may experience aphasia and semantic memory impairment.

      Pathologically, Pick’s disease is associated with Pick bodies, which are inclusion bodies found in the neuronal cytoplasm. These bodies are argyrophilic, meaning they have an affinity for silver staining. Unlike Alzheimer’s disease, EEG readings for Pick’s disease are relatively normal.

      To learn more about Pick’s disease, the National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke provides an information page on frontotemporal dementia. this rare form of dementia can help individuals and their loved ones better manage the symptoms and seek appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old man visits his doctor with a complaint about his penis. He...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man visits his doctor with a complaint about his penis. He explains that he experiences a noticeable curvature during erection, which has become more severe in recent years. He feels ashamed and worried that it could be cancerous.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Peyronie’s disease

      Explanation:

      The patient is exhibiting symptoms of Peyronie’s disease, a condition where fibrous tissue accumulates in the penis, causing it to curve or bend in a particular direction. This is a non-malignant connective tissue disorder that affects approximately 5% of men. The condition results in scar tissue forming in the tunica albuginea, the thick sheath of tissue surrounding the corpora cavernosa, leading to pain, abnormal curvature, erectile dysfunction, indentation, loss of girth, and shortening.

      Bowenoid papulosis, on the other hand, is a rare pre-cancerous skin condition that causes the accumulation of red or dark papules on the penis, but does not cause curvature. It is linked to human papillomavirus (HPV) and can transform into invasive squamous cell carcinoma in a small percentage of cases.

      Bowen’s disease is a neoplastic skin disease that causes a grey plaque to form on the penis or scrotum, usually affecting older men. It is an early stage or intraepidermal form of squamous cell carcinoma.

      Penile lymphoma is unlikely in a young man without associated systemic symptoms, and a history of progressive curvature of the penis is more suggestive of Peyronie’s disease. Erythroplasia of Queyrat is another in situ squamous cell carcinoma of the penis that causes red patches to form.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genitourinary
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 40-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with multiple sclerosis presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with multiple sclerosis presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with blurring of her vision and pain on eye movement. The GP suspects that she may have optic neuritis.
      Which of the following signs is most likely to be present on examination?

      Your Answer: Increased intraocular pressure

      Correct Answer: Reduced colour vision

      Explanation:

      Signs and Symptoms of Optic Neuritis

      Optic neuritis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the optic nerve, often associated with demyelinating diseases like multiple sclerosis. One of the signs of optic neuritis is reduced color vision in the affected eye. Other symptoms may include decreased pupillary light reaction, relative afferent pupillary defect, reduced visual acuity, visual field defects, swollen optic disc, and pain on eye movements. However, optic neuritis is not associated with increased intraocular pressure, erythema, or vesicles around the affected eye. It is important to differentiate optic neuritis from other eye conditions to provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 42-year-old Irish man presents to the Dermatology clinic with a 3-cm pigmented...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old Irish man presents to the Dermatology clinic with a 3-cm pigmented lesion on his right shin. He also has a Fitzpatrick skin type 1. The lesion appears macular and contains three different shades of pigment. What is the most crucial next step?

      Your Answer: Biopsy

      Explanation:

      Importance of Biopsy in Diagnosing Melanoma

      When a patient with type 1 or 2 skin presents with a pigmented lesion that is large and has multiple colors, it is suggestive of melanoma. It is crucial to inquire about any changes over time and symptoms such as bleeding or itching. A comprehensive medical history should include family history of skin cancers, risk factors such as sun exposure, hobbies, travel, sunburns as a child, previous skin cancers or abnormal moles, and history of immunosuppression. The ABCDE rule should be followed for suspicious pigmented lesions.

      A biopsy is necessary for diagnosis and determining the prognosis of melanoma based on the Breslow depth. Clinical photographs and follow-up in 3 months may be appropriate in some cases, but if there is a suspicion of melanoma, an urgent biopsy is necessary. Scrapings for mycology are not useful in diagnosing pigmented lesions, and measuring ACE levels is not appropriate in this scenario.

      In conclusion, a biopsy is essential in diagnosing melanoma and determining its prognosis. It is crucial to follow the ABCDE rule and obtain a comprehensive medical history to identify any risk factors. Early detection and prompt treatment can significantly improve the patient’s outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 75-year-old woman complains of an itchy rash on her hands, anterior aspects...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old woman complains of an itchy rash on her hands, anterior aspects of both elbows, axillae and groins. Several other residents in her nursing home have reported similar symptoms.

      What could be the possible diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Scabies

      Explanation:

      Skin Conditions and Their Characteristics

      Scabies is a skin infestation caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei. The mite burrows into the skin, resulting in a rash that is itchy and typically affects the skin folds and interdigital webs of the arms and legs. The itch may persist for a few weeks even after successful treatment. The condition is spread through skin contact and sharing of clothes and bedding. Treatment involves the use of permethrin-containing lotions.

      Henoch-Schönlein purpura is a type of vasculitis that affects the blood vessels in the skin. Psoriasis is characterized by plaques on the extensor surfaces of the body, which are topped with thick, silvery scales. Pemphigus vulgaris may present as crusted, weeping, diffuse lesions in elderly patients. If the blisters are intact, bullous pemphigoid or cicatricial pemphigoid may be considered. Look for involvement in other sites, as erosions in the mouth are typically involved in pemphigus vulgaris. Bullous pemphigoid is associated with new medication and involves the flexural areas of the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - This nerve is a direct continuation of the posterior cord of the brachial...

    Incorrect

    • This nerve is a direct continuation of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus. It receives contributions from C5-C8 and T1. It exits the axilla by leaving the posterior wall, traversing the triangular space of the arm. What nerve is this, and which age groups are typically affected?

      Your Answer: Lower subscapular nerve

      Correct Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Radial Nerve

      The radial nerve is a significant branch of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus, along with the axillary nerve, thoracodorsal nerve, and subscapular nerves. The median nerve, on the other hand, is a continuation of the medial and lateral cord. The long thoracic nerve originates from the ventral rami of C5 to C7.

      After exiting the axilla, the radial nerve descends behind the medial head of the triceps in the posterior compartment. It then passes through the lateral intermuscular septum at the midpoint of the arm and lies between the brachialis and brachioradialis muscles. The nerve then travels through the cubital fossa on the lateral side beneath the brachioradialis muscle. It gives off the major posterior interosseous branch and continues downwards as the superficial radial nerve. This nerve descends until it reaches the back of the hand and passes superficial to the anatomical snuffbox.

      In summary, the radial nerve is an important nerve in the upper limb that provides motor and sensory innervation to various muscles and skin areas. Its anatomy and course are crucial to understand for medical professionals to diagnose and treat any potential injuries or conditions related to this nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      62.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 25-year-old woman is experiencing labour with a suspected case of shoulder dystocia...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is experiencing labour with a suspected case of shoulder dystocia and failure of progression. What is the Wood's screw manoeuvre and how can it be used to deliver the baby?

      Your Answer: Hyperflex the mothers legs onto her abdomen and apply suprapubic pressure

      Correct Answer: Put your hand in the vagina and attempt to rotate the foetus 180 degrees

      Explanation:

      The Wood’s screw manoeuvre involves rotating the foetus 180 degrees by inserting a hand into the vagina. This is done in an attempt to release the anterior shoulder from the symphysis pubis. However, before attempting this manoeuvre, it is important to place the woman in the McRoberts position, which involves hyperflexing her legs onto her abdomen and applying suprapubic pressure. This creates additional space for the anterior shoulder. If the McRoberts position fails, the Rubin manoeuvre can be attempted by applying pressure on the posterior shoulder to create more room for the anterior shoulder. If these manoeuvres are unsuccessful, the woman can be placed on all fours and the same techniques can be attempted. If all else fails, an emergency caesarean section may be necessary.

      Shoulder dystocia is a complication that can occur during vaginal delivery when the body of the fetus cannot be delivered after the head has already been delivered. This is usually due to the anterior shoulder of the fetus becoming stuck on the mother’s pubic bone. Shoulder dystocia can cause harm to both the mother and the fetus. Risk factors for shoulder dystocia include fetal macrosomia, high maternal body mass index, diabetes mellitus, and prolonged labor.

      If shoulder dystocia is identified, it is important to call for senior help immediately. The McRoberts’ maneuver is often performed, which involves flexing and abducting the mother’s hips to increase the angle of the pelvis and facilitate delivery. An episiotomy may be performed to provide better access for internal maneuvers, but it will not relieve the bony obstruction. Symphysiotomy and the Zavanelli maneuver are not recommended as they can cause significant maternal morbidity. Oxytocin administration is not indicated for shoulder dystocia.

      Complications of shoulder dystocia can include postpartum hemorrhage and perineal tears for the mother, and brachial plexus injury and neonatal death for the fetus. It is important to manage shoulder dystocia promptly and appropriately to minimize the risk of these complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 54-year-old woman presents with back and flank pain affecting both sides. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman presents with back and flank pain affecting both sides. She has been diagnosed some years ago with antiphospholipid antibody syndrome and has suffered from a previous deep vein thrombosis. On assessment, temperature is 36.7oC, heart rate is 76 bpm, blood pressure 128/80 mmHg and she is still passing urine.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Sodium (Na+) 141 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 6.3 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 17.3 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 325 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Urine proteinuria +++
      Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical scenario?

      Your Answer: Bilateral renal artery stenosis

      Correct Answer: Bilateral renal vein thrombosis

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Bilateral Flank Pain, Renal Failure, and Proteinuria

      Bilateral flank pain, renal failure, and marked proteinuria can be caused by various conditions. One possible diagnosis is bilateral renal vein thrombosis, especially if the patient has a history of antiphospholipid antibody syndrome and previous deep vein thrombosis. Other causes of renal vein thrombosis include extrinsic compression of the renal vein by a tumour or a retroperitoneal mass, invasion of the renal vein or inferior vena cava by a tumour, or nephrotic syndrome that increases coagulability. Abdominal ultrasound and angiography can help diagnose renal vein thrombosis, and anticoagulation is the main treatment.

      Bilateral ureteric obstruction can cause anuria, while bilateral pyelonephritis can cause sepsis and leukocytes and nitrites in the urine. Medullary sponge kidney, a congenital disorder that causes cystic dilation of the collecting ducts in one or both kidneys, may present with haematuria or nephrocalcinosis but does not affect renal function. Bilateral renal artery stenosis can cause uncontrollable hypertension and reduced renal function but not pain. Therefore, a thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying cause of the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      73.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 58-year-old accountant undergoes a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) that lasted...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old accountant undergoes a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) that lasted for 45 minutes. The ST2 notifies you that the patient is restless. His heart rate is 100 bpm, and his blood pressure is 160/95 mmHg. He is experiencing fluid overload, and his blood test shows a sodium level of 122 mmol/l. What is the probable reason for these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) syndrome

      Explanation:

      TURP can lead to several complications, including Tur syndrome, urethral stricture/UTI, retrograde ejaculation, and perforation of the prostate. Tur syndrome occurs when irrigation fluid enters the bloodstream, causing dilutional hyponatremia, fluid overload, and glycine toxicity. Treatment involves managing the associated complications and restricting fluid intake.

      Understanding Post-Prostatectomy Syndromes

      Transurethral prostatectomy is a widely used procedure for treating benign prostatic hyperplasia. It involves the insertion of a resectoscope through the urethra to remove strips of prostatic tissue using diathermy. During the procedure, the bladder and prostate are irrigated with fluids, which can lead to electrolyte imbalances. Complications may arise, such as haemorrhage, urosepsis, and retrograde ejaculation.

      Post-prostatectomy syndromes are a common occurrence after transurethral prostatectomy. These syndromes can cause discomfort and pain, and may include urinary incontinence, erectile dysfunction, and bladder neck contracture. Patients may also experience a decrease in semen volume and a change in the sensation of orgasm. It is important for patients to discuss any concerns or symptoms with their healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment. With proper care and management, post-prostatectomy syndromes can be effectively managed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      54.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 33-year-old pregnant woman arrives at the maternity department at 40 weeks gestation....

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old pregnant woman arrives at the maternity department at 40 weeks gestation. The medical team decides to perform an artificial rupture of the membranes, but during an examination, they discover that the umbilical cord is palpable vaginally. What position should the woman assume in this situation?

      Your Answer: Legs hyper-flexed tightly to abdomen

      Correct Answer: On all fours

      Explanation:

      The recommended position for women with cord prolapse is on all fours, with their knees and elbows on the ground. It is important to avoid pushing the cord back in, but to keep it warm and moist. This position helps to prevent compression of the presenting part of the fetus. However, immediate preparations for a caesarian section should also be made. The Trendelenburg position, which involves tilting the head end of the bed downwards, is not recommended for cord prolapse. The Lloyd Davis position, which involves separating the legs, is also not recommended. The McRoberts manoeuvre, which involves hyper-flexing the legs tightly to the abdomen, is used for shoulder dystocia during vaginal delivery and is not appropriate for cord prolapse. The lithotomy position, which involves raising the legs in stirrups, is commonly used in obstetrics and gynaecology but is not recommended for cord prolapse.

      Understanding Umbilical Cord Prolapse

      Umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that can occur during delivery. It happens when the umbilical cord descends ahead of the presenting part of the fetus, which can lead to compression or spasm of the cord. This can cause fetal hypoxia and potentially irreversible damage or death. Certain factors increase the risk of cord prolapse, such as prematurity, multiparity, polyhydramnios, twin pregnancy, cephalopelvic disproportion, and abnormal presentations like breech or transverse lie.

      Around half of all cord prolapses occur when the membranes are artificially ruptured. Diagnosis is usually made when the fetal heart rate becomes abnormal and the cord is palpable vaginally or visible beyond the introitus. Cord prolapse is an obstetric emergency that requires immediate management. The presenting part of the fetus may be pushed back into the uterus to avoid compression, and the cord should be kept warm and moist to prevent vasospasm. The patient may be asked to go on all fours or assume the left lateral position until preparations for an immediate caesarian section have been carried out. Tocolytics may be used to reduce uterine contractions, and retrofilling the bladder with saline can help elevate the presenting part. Although caesarian section is the usual first-line method of delivery, an instrumental vaginal delivery may be possible if the cervix is fully dilated and the head is low.

      In conclusion, umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that requires prompt recognition and management. Understanding the risk factors and appropriate interventions can help reduce the incidence of fetal mortality associated with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      28.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A patient with chronic kidney disease has a creatinine of 350 μmol/l and...

    Correct

    • A patient with chronic kidney disease has a creatinine of 350 μmol/l and has persistent proteinuria.
      Which one of the following drugs is most likely of benefit to his renal prognosis?

      Your Answer: Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Proteinuria and Renal Prognosis

      Proteinuria, the presence of excess protein in the urine, can be a sign of kidney damage or disease. Patients with proteinuria of any cause are at increased cardiovascular risk and require attention to modifiable risk factors such as smoking and hyperlipidemia. However, the renal prognosis can improve with the use of angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, which are known to be effective in treating proteinuria. Aspirin and clopidogrel are not considered effective in improving renal outcomes for proteinuria. Blood pressure control is crucial in improving renal outcomes, and doxazosin may be useful in the right context. Methotrexate is not a recommended treatment option for proteinuria. Overall, ACE inhibitors remain the most effective treatment option for improving renal prognosis in patients with proteinuria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A young woman in her early twenties visits your GP clinic. She plans...

    Correct

    • A young woman in her early twenties visits your GP clinic. She plans to start trying for a baby in a year's time but wants to avoid pregnancy until then as she has important exams to take. She hopes to conceive soon after completing her exams. Which contraceptive method is known to cause a longer delay in the return to fertility?

      Your Answer: Depo-Provera

      Explanation:

      Condoms act as a barrier contraceptive and do not have any impact on ovulation, therefore they do not cause any delay in fertility. The intrauterine system (IUS) functions by thickening cervical mucous and may prevent ovulation in some women, but most women still ovulate. Once the IUS is removed, most women regain their fertility immediately.

      The combined oral contraceptive pill may postpone the return to a normal menstrual cycle in some women, but the majority of them can conceive within a month of discontinuing it. The progesterone-only pill is less likely to delay the return to a normal cycle as it does not contain oestrogen.

      Depo-Provera can last up to 12 weeks, and it may take several months for the body to return to a normal menstrual cycle, which can delay fertility. As a result, it is not the most suitable method for a woman who wants to resume ovulatory cycles immediately.

      Injectable Contraceptives: Depo Provera

      Injectable contraceptives are a popular form of birth control in the UK, with Depo Provera being the main option available. This contraceptive contains 150 mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is administered via intramuscular injection every 12 weeks. It can be given up to 14 weeks after the last dose without the need for extra precautions. The primary method of action is by inhibiting ovulation, while secondary effects include cervical mucous thickening and endometrial thinning.

      However, there are some disadvantages to using Depo Provera. Once the injection is given, it cannot be reversed, and there may be a delayed return to fertility of up to 12 months. Adverse effects may include irregular bleeding and weight gain, and there is a potential increased risk of osteoporosis. It should only be used in adolescents if no other method of contraception is suitable.

      It is important to note that there are contraindications to using Depo Provera, such as current breast cancer (UKMEC 4) or past breast cancer (UKMEC 3). While Noristerat is another injectable contraceptive licensed in the UK, it is rarely used in clinical practice and is given every 8 weeks. Overall, injectable contraceptives can be an effective form of birth control, but it is important to weigh the potential risks and benefits before deciding on this method.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 55-year-old woman presented to her GP with a four month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presented to her GP with a four month history of progressive distal sensory loss and weakness of both legs and arms. The weakness and numbness had extended to the elbows and knees.

      On examination, cranial nerves and fundoscopy were normal. Examination of the upper limb revealed bilaterally reduced tone and 3/5 power.

      Lower limb examination revealed some mild weakness of hip flexion and extension with marked weakness of dorsiflexion and plantarflexion. Both knee and ankle jerks were absent and both plantar responses were mute. There was absent sensation to all modalities affecting both feet extending to the knees.

      A lumbar puncture was performed and yielded the following data:

      Opening pressure 14 cm H2O (5-18)

      CSF protein 0.75 g/L (0.15-0.45)

      CSF white cell count 10 cells per ml (<5 cells)

      CSF white cell differential 90% lymphocytes -

      CSF red cell count 2 cells per ml (<5 cells)

      Nerve conduction studies showed multifocal motor and sensory conduction block with prolonged distal latencies.

      What is the likely diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Guillain-Barré syndrome

      Correct Answer: Chronic inflammatory demyelinating neuropathy (CIDP)

      Explanation:

      The patient’s history is consistent with a subacute sensory and motor peripheral neuropathy, which could be caused by inflammatory neuropathies such as CIDP or paraproteinaemic neuropathies. CIDP is characterized by progressive weakness and impaired sensory function in the limbs, and treatment includes corticosteroids, plasmapheresis, and physiotherapy. Guillain-Barré syndrome is an acute post-infectious neuropathy that is closely linked to CIDP. Cervical spondylosis would cause upper motor neuron signs, while HMSN is a chronic neuropathy with a family history. Multifocal motor neuropathy is a treatable neuropathy affecting motor conduction only.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      21.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 29-year-old woman presents with dry, eczematous hands. She reports being a very...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman presents with dry, eczematous hands. She reports being a very hygienic person, but since the onset of the COVID-19 pandemic, she has been washing her hands excessively - up to 60 times a day. She is aware that this is causing her skin to become dry and irritated, but her anxiety about contracting the virus is too great to stop. She works in a hospital and is worried about her colleagues noticing her frequent hand washing. You suspect she may have obsessive-compulsive disorder and decide to refer her to the community mental health team. What treatment options are likely to be offered to her?

      Your Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy

      Explanation:

      Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is characterized by the presence of obsessions and/or compulsions that can cause significant functional impairment and distress. Risk factors include family history, age, pregnancy/postnatal period, and history of abuse, bullying, or neglect. Treatment options include low-intensity psychological treatments, SSRIs, and more intensive CBT (including ERP). Severe cases should be referred to the secondary care mental health team for assessment and may require combined treatment with an SSRI and CBT or clomipramine as an alternative. ERP involves exposing the patient to an anxiety-provoking situation and stopping them from engaging in their usual safety behavior. Treatment with SSRIs should continue for at least 12 months to prevent relapse and allow time for improvement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - As an orthopaedic surgeon practicing in Scotland, can I proceed with investigations and...

    Incorrect

    • As an orthopaedic surgeon practicing in Scotland, can I proceed with investigations and treatments if a 16-year-old patient arrives alone to an appointment that was booked by their parent?

      Your Answer: Yes – you can proceed, as the age of competency is 15 in Scotland

      Correct Answer: Maybe – you need to assess the patient’s competency to consent for himself on an individual basis

      Explanation:

      Assessing Competency of a 15-Year-Old Patient in Scotland

      When a 15-year-old patient presents for a medical, dental, or surgical procedure in Scotland, their competency to consent must be assessed on an individual basis. According to the Age of Legal Capacity (Scotland) Act 1991, a person under 16 can consent to treatment if they are deemed capable of understanding the nature and possible consequences of the procedure by a qualified medical practitioner attending them.

      Verbal consent from a parent is not required if the patient is deemed competent. The fact that a parent booked the appointment also does not automatically grant consent. It is important to assess the patient’s understanding and ability to make an informed decision before proceeding with any treatment. The age of competency is not fixed at 15 in Scotland, and each patient must be evaluated on a case-by-case basis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 68-year-old on the post-surgical ward has been experiencing persistent vomiting since their...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old on the post-surgical ward has been experiencing persistent vomiting since their abdominal surgery for colorectal cancer 4 days ago. After a surgical evaluation, it has been determined that the patient does not require any additional surgery. The medical team is worried about the patient's deteriorating nutritional status and decides that the patient needs to be treated for malnutrition. What is the most suitable treatment option?

      Your Answer: Total parenteral nutrition via a peripherally inserted central catheter

      Explanation:

      Total parenteral nutrition is the appropriate treatment for this patient with intractable vomiting and severe malnutrition. However, it should be administered via a central vein to avoid phlebitis. A peripherally inserted central catheter is the recommended method for delivering parenteral nutrition. Increasing oral intake and oral nutritional supplements are not suitable options for this patient due to their persistent vomiting. While a percutaneous endoscopic tube may be necessary for long-term feeding, it is not the best option at this stage as it is invasive and the patient’s condition may be reversible.

      Nutrition Options for Surgical Patients

      When it comes to providing nutrition for surgical patients, there are several options available. The easiest and most common option is oral intake, which can be supplemented with calorie-rich dietary supplements. However, this may not be suitable for all patients, especially those who have undergone certain procedures.

      nasogastric feeding is another option, which involves administering feed through a fine bore nasogastric feeding tube. While this method may be safe for patients with impaired swallow, there is a risk of aspiration or misplaced tube. It is also usually contra-indicated following head injury due to the risks associated with tube insertion.

      Naso jejunal feeding is a safer alternative as it avoids the risk of feed pooling in the stomach and aspiration. However, the insertion of the feeding tube is more technically complicated and is easiest if done intra-operatively. This method is safe to use following oesophagogastric surgery.

      Feeding jejunostomy is a surgically sited feeding tube that may be used for long-term feeding. It has a low risk of aspiration and is thus safe for long-term feeding following upper GI surgery. However, there is a risk of tube displacement and peritubal leakage immediately following insertion, which carries a risk of peritonitis.

      Percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy is a combined endoscopic and percutaneous tube insertion method. However, it may not be technically possible in patients who cannot undergo successful endoscopy. Risks associated with this method include aspiration and leakage at the insertion site.

      Finally, total parenteral nutrition is the definitive option for patients in whom enteral feeding is contra-indicated. However, individualised prescribing and monitoring are needed, and it should be administered via a central vein as it is strongly phlebitic. Long-term use is associated with fatty liver and deranged LFTs.

      In summary, there are several nutrition options available for surgical patients, each with its own benefits and risks. The choice of method will depend on the patient’s individual needs and circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      35.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - What is the association between cavitation and chest x-ray? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the association between cavitation and chest x-ray?

      Your Answer: Legionnaires' disease

      Correct Answer: Klebsiella pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Causes of Cavitating Lesions in the Lungs

      Cavitating lesions in the lungs are caused by various factors. These include squamous cell carcinoma, abscesses caused by Staphylococcus aureus, Klebsiella, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa, lymphoma, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, rheumatoid nodules, pulmonary infarction, and granulomatosis with polyangiitis.

      Cavitating lesions are characterized by the formation of cavities or holes in the lung tissue. These lesions can be seen on chest X-rays or CT scans and may be accompanied by symptoms such as coughing, chest pain, and shortness of breath. It is important to identify the underlying cause of cavitating lesions in order to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Radiology
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 45-year-old patient visits her primary care physician with a complaint of net-like...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old patient visits her primary care physician with a complaint of net-like mottled skin on her hands, lower arms, feet, and calves that has persisted for 6 months. She reports no other symptoms. The physician orders routine blood tests, including FBC and coagulation screen, which reveal a haemoglobin level of 140 g/l, platelet count of 98 * 109/L, and white cell count of 8 * 109/L. The APTT is 45s, and the PT is 12s. An autoantibody screen is also performed, with the following significant results: positive for anti-cardiolipin antibodies and lupus anticoagulant, but negative for anti-dsDNA. What is the most appropriate treatment option for the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lifelong low-molecular weight heparin (LMWH)

      Correct Answer: Daily low-dose aspirin

      Explanation:

      Patients who have been diagnosed with antiphospholipid syndrome and have not had a history of thrombosis are typically prescribed low-dose aspirin. This condition is characterized by CLOTS, which stands for clots, livedo reticularis, obstetric complications, and thrombocytopenia. Diagnosis is confirmed through blood tests that show thrombocytopenia, a prolonged APTT, and positive antiphospholipid antibodies such as anti-cardiolipin, anti-beta-2-glycoprotein-1 antibodies, and lupus anticoagulant. Treatment for Raynaud’s phenomena, which causes painful and pale fingers and toes in cold temperatures, involves daily nifedipine. Lifelong LMWH is not recommended, but lifelong warfarin is recommended for patients with antiphospholipid syndrome who have experienced a previous thrombotic event. LMWH may be an option during pregnancy.

      Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that can be acquired and is characterized by a higher risk of both venous and arterial thrombosis, recurrent fetal loss, and thrombocytopenia. It can occur as a primary disorder or as a secondary condition to other diseases, with systemic lupus erythematosus being the most common. One important point to remember for exams is that antiphospholipid syndrome can cause a paradoxical increase in the APTT. This is due to an ex-vivo reaction of the lupus anticoagulant autoantibodies with phospholipids involved in the coagulation cascade. Other features of this condition include livedo reticularis, pre-eclampsia, and pulmonary hypertension.

      Antiphospholipid syndrome can also be associated with other autoimmune disorders, lymphoproliferative disorders, and, rarely, phenothiazines. Management of this condition is based on EULAR guidelines. Primary thromboprophylaxis involves low-dose aspirin, while secondary thromboprophylaxis depends on the type of thromboembolic event. Initial venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3, while recurrent venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin and low-dose aspirin. Arterial thrombosis should be treated with lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      62.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 48-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department following a motor vehicle...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department following a motor vehicle accident. The patient’s car was parked in the street when a small car hit her vehicle from behind. She was seated and restrained in the driver’s seat and was not ejected from the vehicle. The airbags did not deploy. The ambulance staff reported that the patient did lose consciousness at the scene but now is alert and orientated.
      Her primary and secondary surveys are normal. Her neurological examination is also normal and she has full cervical spine range of motion. The patient has a Glasgow Coma Scale of 15/15.
      Her observations and blood tests results are shown below.
      Temperature 36.9 °C
      Blood pressure 121/59 mmHg
      Heart rate 67 beats per minute
      Respiratory rate 18 breaths per minute
      Sp(O2) 98% (room air)
      Her computed tomography (CT) scan of the head, cervical spine, chest, abdomen and pelvis is normal. She is still complaining of diffuse, muscular pain throughout her body which was not present before the accident. She is able to mobilise slowly around the ward. She states that prior to the accident she was able to mobilise independently without difficulty and without pain.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Soft tissue injuries

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis for a patient with musculoskeletal pain after a motor vehicle accident

      Soft tissue injuries and the importance of early recognition

      After a high-impact motor vehicle accident, a patient may suffer from soft tissue injuries, which can be challenging to diagnose and manage with analgesia. However, it is crucial to recognise them early and encourage gentle mobilisation with optimal pain relief. In this case, the patient has normal radiological scans and examination findings, but her recent trauma suggests the possibility of soft tissue injuries.

      Unlikely causes of musculoskeletal pain

      A cervical spine injury is unlikely because the patient has a normal cervical range of motion and CT cervical spine. Fibromyalgia, a chronic condition that causes widespread musculoskeletal pain, is also unlikely due to the acute onset of the patient’s symptoms. Pneumothorax, a collapsed lung that can occur after trauma, typically presents with pleuritic chest pain and shortness of breath, which the patient does not have.

      Possible cause of musculoskeletal pain

      A rib fracture is a common injury after high-impact accidents, and the patient’s pain on deep breathing or coughing is consistent with this diagnosis. However, further evaluation may be necessary to confirm or rule out this possibility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      28.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 20-year-old African-Caribbean woman with sickle-cell anaemia presents with acute kidney injury. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old African-Caribbean woman with sickle-cell anaemia presents with acute kidney injury. Her only medication is hydroxycarbamide (hydroxyurea).
      What is the most probable reason for her condition?

      Your Answer: Drug-induced interstitial nephritis

      Correct Answer: Renal papillary necrosis

      Explanation:

      Causes of Acute Kidney Injury

      Acute kidney injury (AKI) can be caused by various factors. One of the causes is renal papillary necrosis, which is commonly associated with sickle-cell anaemia. This occurs when sickled red blood cells cause infarction and necrosis of renal papillae. Other causes of renal papillary necrosis include diabetes mellitus, acute pyelonephritis, and chronic paracetamol use.

      Another cause of AKI is hypoperfusion of renal tubules from hypotension. This happens when there is a decrease in blood pressure due to shock or dehydration, leading to the hypoperfusion of renal tubules and acute tubular necrosis.

      Drug-induced interstitial nephritis is also a cause of AKI. This occurs when there is an allergic reaction to certain drugs such as non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, antibiotics, and loop diuretics. Eosinophils in the urine are associated with this type of AKI.

      Pyelonephritis from Salmonella species is not a cause of AKI in patients with sickle-cell disease. However, diffuse cortical necrosis is a rare cause of AKI associated with disseminated intravascular coagulation, especially in obstetric emergencies such as abruptio placentae.

      In conclusion, AKI can be caused by various factors, and it is important to identify the underlying cause to provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      28.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurology (1/2) 50%
Genitourinary (1/1) 100%
Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Clinical Sciences (0/1) 0%
Obstetrics (0/2) 0%
Renal (1/3) 33%
Surgery (2/2) 100%
Gynaecology (1/1) 100%
Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Ethics And Legal (0/1) 0%
Radiology (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal (0/1) 0%
Trauma (1/1) 100%
Passmed