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  • Question 1 - If a 6-year-old boy is diagnosed with absence seizures, what is the likelihood...

    Correct

    • If a 6-year-old boy is diagnosed with absence seizures, what is the likelihood that he will become seizure-free by the time he turns 17?

      Your Answer: 90-95%

      Explanation:

      Absence seizures have a favorable prognosis.

      Absence seizures, also known as petit mal, are a type of epilepsy that is commonly observed in children. This form of generalised epilepsy typically affects children between the ages of 3-10 years old, with girls being twice as likely to be affected as boys. Absence seizures are characterised by brief episodes that last only a few seconds and are followed by a quick recovery. These seizures may be triggered by hyperventilation or stress, and the child is usually unaware of the seizure. They may occur multiple times a day and are identified by a bilateral, symmetrical 3Hz spike and wave pattern on an EEG.

      The first-line treatment for absence seizures includes sodium valproate and ethosuximide. The prognosis for this condition is generally good, with 90-95% of affected individuals becoming seizure-free during adolescence.

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      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 2 - A 14-year-old boy is referred by his GP with a two-week history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy is referred by his GP with a two-week history of general malaise, fatigue and pharyngitis. On examination, multiple small lymph nodes were palpable in the neck, axillae and groins.

      Investigations revealed:
      Haemoglobin 125 g/L (130-180)
      WBC 16.0 ×109/L (4-11)
      Platelets 160 ×109/L (150-400)
      Blood film Lymphocytosis noted

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)

      Correct Answer: Epstein-Barr virus infection (EBV)

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between Acute EBV, CMV, and Toxoplasmosis

      Acute EBV typically presents with symptoms such as fatigue, malaise, fever, pharyngitis, and bilateral lymphadenopathy. Heterophil antibody tests are usually positive. On the other hand, CMV mononucleosis has a lower incidence of pharyngitis and cervical adenopathy. The clinical presentation of CMV infectious mononucleosis may be similar to EBV, but it is usually not accompanied by posterior cervical adenopathy, and non-exudative pharyngitis is minimal or absent.

      Primary toxoplasmosis is acquired through the ingestion of undercooked meat containing toxoplasma cysts or fresh food contaminated by toxoplasma excreted in cats’ faeces. The infection is asymptomatic in 80-90% of immunocompetent patients. Highly characteristic of toxoplasmosis is asymmetrical lymphadenopathy limited to an isolated lymph node group. Patients with toxoplasmosis have little or no fever, fatigue, or pharyngitis.

      Mild transient thrombocytopenia is not uncommon in EBV infectious mononucleosis. In contrast, patients with toxoplasmosis have little or no fever, fatigue, or pharyngitis. The diagnosis of ALL and HD is made by a combination of blood film examination, bone marrow aspiration and biopsy, and lymph node biopsy.

      In summary, while EBV and CMV mononucleosis may have similar clinical presentations, the absence of posterior cervical adenopathy and minimal or absent non-exudative pharyngitis may indicate CMV. Asymmetrical lymphadenopathy limited to an isolated lymph node group is highly characteristic of toxoplasmosis.

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      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 3 - For which children is it necessary to defer their polio vaccination and refer...

    Incorrect

    • For which children is it necessary to defer their polio vaccination and refer them to a child specialist for additional guidance?

      Your Answer: A child with spina bifida

      Correct Answer: A child with uncontrolled epilepsy

      Explanation:

      Polio Vaccination and Neurological Conditions

      The Department of Health’s ‘Green Book’ provides guidelines for polio vaccination and neurological conditions. According to the book, stable pre-existing neurological conditions such as spina bifida and congenital brain abnormalities do not prevent polio vaccination. However, if a child has an unstable or deteriorating neurological condition, vaccination should be deferred, and the child should be referred to a specialist for further assessment and advice. This includes children with uncontrolled epilepsy.

      It is important to note that a family history of seizures or epilepsy doesn’t prevent immunization. However, if there is a personal or family history of febrile seizures, there is an increased risk of these occurring after any fever, including post-immunization. In such cases, immunization should proceed as recommended, with advice on the prevention and management of fever beforehand.

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      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 4 - A 6-year-old girl is brought in for a follow-up appointment regarding her asthma....

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought in for a follow-up appointment regarding her asthma. She has been using inhaled treatment for the past 12 months and is currently taking salbutamol as needed and a very low dose of inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) daily. She has been using the very low dose ICS at the current dose for the past six months. Her parents report that she still needs to use her salbutamol on most days of the week, but never more than once a day. On clinical examination, her chest is clear and there are no focal cardiorespiratory findings. Her inhaler technique is good and there are no issues with compliance. Based on BTS/SIGN guidelines, what is the most appropriate plan for her current management?

      Your Answer: Increase the inhaled corticosteroids to a low daily dose

      Explanation:

      Treatment Ladder for Asthma in Children

      Here we have a 7-year-old child who is currently on a regular inhaled very low dose corticosteroid and salbutamol PRN for asthma. However, despite the regular inhaled steroid, the child still requires salbutamol most days, indicating suboptimal control and the need for treatment escalation.

      To guide treatment titration, the British Thoracic Society treatment ladder is the most well-recognized guideline in the UK. Based on this, the next step should be to add in an inhaled long-acting beta2 agonist or an LTRA (Leukotriene receptor antagonist) if over 5 years old. If the child was under 5 years old, then an LTRA alone would be added.

      It is important to note that higher inhaled corticosteroid doses are treatment options further up the ladder, and theophylline would not normally feature in the primary care setting. Continuing the same treatment with review in 12 months is not appropriate as the child’s current disease control is suboptimal.

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      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 5 - An 8-year-old boy comes to the General Practitioner with his father complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-year-old boy comes to the General Practitioner with his father complaining of bed-wetting, thirst and increasing lethargy for the past 2 weeks. The father reports that his son has lost some weight. The patient appears healthy and the examination is normal. Urinalysis reveals 4+ glucose and moderate ketones. His capillary blood glucose level is 16 mmol/l.
      What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Arrange for fasting blood sugar, haemoglobin A1c and Paediatric outpatient review within two weeks

      Correct Answer: Acute Paediatric referral to be seen today

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Management of Suspected Diabetes Mellitus in a Paediatric Patient

      When a paediatric patient presents with symptoms of polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss, along with a raised capillary blood glucose, diabetes mellitus is a likely diagnosis. This insidious onset over several weeks can make it difficult to detect, and children may appear well despite being in diabetic ketoacidosis. Therefore, it is crucial to confirm the diagnosis and initiate appropriate treatment on the same day to prevent any life-threatening complications.

      While urine culture may be appropriate for suspected urinary tract infections, elevated blood glucose makes diabetes mellitus a more likely diagnosis. Therefore, arranging for fasting blood sugar, haemoglobin A1c, and paediatric outpatient review within two weeks is necessary.

      Initiating insulin therapy in primary care is essential, but the patient will also need urgent secondary care investigation, such as blood gas analysis, to rule out ketoacidosis. The patient may require fluid resuscitation and extensive education regarding diabetes, which can be best accessed in secondary care.

      Although measuring C-peptide may distinguish between different types of diabetes, it is usually unnecessary in patients with features suggestive of type I diabetes, as seen in this patient. Therefore, appropriate management of suspected diabetes mellitus in a paediatric patient involves prompt diagnosis, initiation of insulin therapy, and urgent secondary care investigation to prevent any life-threatening complications.

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      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 6 - What could be the cause of stridor in a 6-month-old infant? ...

    Incorrect

    • What could be the cause of stridor in a 6-month-old infant?

      Your Answer: Acute bronchiolitis

      Correct Answer: Laryngomalacia

      Explanation:

      Causes of Stridor: An Overview

      Stridor is a high-pitched, wheezing sound that occurs during breathing and is often a sign of an underlying respiratory problem. One common cause of stridor is laryngomalacia, a congenital condition that results in flaccidity of supraglottic structures. This condition may not present until the child is a few months old.

      It is important to note that stridor doesn’t occur in bronchiolitis, asthma, or reflux. In the UK, viral croup is the most common cause of stridor in general practice, while epiglottitis is a much rarer cause that can produce severe stridor with distress and cyanosis very quickly. Structural abnormalities such as micrognathia and trachea-oesophageal fistula can also cause stridor.

      It is worth noting that stridor doesn’t occur with pertussis but used to be seen with diphtheria. Other causes of stridor include smoke inhalation, angio-oedema, and foreign body. Understanding the various causes of stridor is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment.

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      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 7 - A 16-year-old-girl comes to the clinic with complaints of not having started her...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old-girl comes to the clinic with complaints of not having started her periods yet. During the examination, it is observed that she has a high-arched palate, underdeveloped external genitalia, and no breast development. Her height is 151cm, which is at the 2nd centile for her age and gender.

      What condition is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Turner's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Turner’s syndrome is the likely diagnosis for a patient with short stature and primary amenorrhoea. Hypothyroidism may also cause these symptoms, but the presence of a high-arched palate makes it less likely. While gonadal dysgenesis (46, XX) can cause primary amenorrhoea, it doesn’t typically present with the characteristic dysmorphic features seen in Turner’s syndrome.

      Understanding Turner’s Syndrome

      Turner’s syndrome is a genetic condition that affects approximately 1 in 2,500 females. It is caused by the absence of one sex chromosome (X) or a deletion of the short arm of one of the X chromosomes. This condition is identified as 45,XO or 45,X.

      The features of Turner’s syndrome include short stature, a shield chest with widely spaced nipples, a webbed neck, a bicuspid aortic valve (present in 15% of cases), coarctation of the aorta (present in 5-10% of cases), primary amenorrhea, cystic hygroma (often diagnosed prenatally), a high-arched palate, a short fourth metacarpal, multiple pigmented naevi, lymphoedema in neonates (especially in the feet), and elevated gonadotrophin levels. Hypothyroidism is also more common in individuals with Turner’s syndrome, as well as an increased incidence of autoimmune diseases such as autoimmune thyroiditis and Crohn’s disease.

      In summary, Turner’s syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that affects females and is characterized by various physical features and health conditions. Early diagnosis and management can help individuals with Turner’s syndrome lead healthy and fulfilling lives.

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      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 8 - A mother brings her 4-year-old girl who is known to have Down's syndrome...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 4-year-old girl who is known to have Down's syndrome to surgery, as she is worried about her vision. Which of the following eye issues is the least commonly linked with Down's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Cataracts

      Correct Answer: Retinal detachment

      Explanation:

      Vision and Hearing Issues in Down’s Syndrome

      Individuals with Down’s syndrome are at a higher risk of experiencing vision and hearing problems. When it comes to vision, they are more likely to have refractive errors, which can cause blurred vision. Strabismus, a condition where the eyes do not align properly, is also common in 20-40% of individuals with Down’s syndrome. Cataracts, which can cause cloudiness in the eye lens, are more prevalent in those with Down’s syndrome, both congenital and acquired. Recurrent blepharitis, an inflammation of the eyelids, and glaucoma, a condition that damages the optic nerve, are also potential issues.

      In terms of hearing, otitis media and glue ear are very common in individuals with Down’s syndrome. These conditions can lead to hearing problems, which can affect speech and language development. It is important for individuals with Down’s syndrome to receive regular vision and hearing screenings to detect and address any issues early on.

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      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 9 - A three-year-old boy is brought to you by his mother due to concerns...

    Incorrect

    • A three-year-old boy is brought to you by his mother due to concerns about his walking pattern. During examination, you observe an in-toeing gait. Further examination of his limbs reveals bilateral femoral anteversion as the only abnormality. The child is otherwise developing normally.

      What would be the appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Routine referral to orthopaedics

      Correct Answer: Reassure

      Explanation:

      It is normal for toddlers and young children to walk with their feet facing inwards, a condition known as in-toeing. This should resolve on its own by the age of 8-10 years, and parents should not be overly concerned. In-toeing is often caused by femoral anteversion, which typically corrects itself as the child grows. Orthotics and physiotherapy are not necessary for this condition, except in cases where it is associated with metatarsus adductus. However, if in-toeing persists beyond the age of 8 with symptoms such as frequent tripping or pain, referral to an orthopaedic specialist may be necessary. It is not necessary to refer children with in-toeing to paediatrics, as it is considered a normal variation.

      Common Variations in Lower Limb Development in Children

      Parents may become concerned when they notice what appears to be abnormalities in their child’s lower limbs. This often leads to a visit to the primary care physician and a referral to a specialist. However, many of these variations are actually normal and will resolve on their own as the child grows.

      One common variation is flat feet, where the medial arch is absent when the child is standing. This is typically seen in children of all ages and usually resolves between the ages of 4-8 years. Orthotics are not recommended, and parental reassurance is appropriate.

      Another variation is in-toeing, which can be caused by metatarsus adductus, internal tibial torsion, or femoral anteversion. In most cases, these will resolve on their own, but severe or persistent cases may require intervention such as serial casting or surgical intervention. Out-toeing is also common in early infancy and usually resolves by the age of 2 years.

      Bow legs, or genu varum, are typically seen in the first or second year of life and are characterized by an increased intercondylar distance. This variation usually resolves by the age of 4-5 years. Knock knees, or genu valgum, are seen in the third or fourth year of life and are characterized by an increased intermalleolar distance. This variation also typically resolves on its own.

      In summary, many variations in lower limb development in children are normal and will resolve on their own. However, if there is concern or persistent symptoms, intervention may be appropriate.

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      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 10 - A mother brings her 10 week old baby to your morning GP clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 10 week old baby to your morning GP clinic with a three day history of noisy breathing, coryza, reduced feeding, and increased fussiness. What signs would prompt you to consider admitting the infant?

      Your Answer: Respiratory rate of 49 breaths per minute

      Correct Answer: Feeding less than 50% of normal

      Explanation:

      If a child with bronchiolitis displays any high risk signs, it is important to admit them for support with feeding to prevent dehydration. The NICE CKS provides a comprehensive list of these signs, which include a respiratory rate exceeding 60 per minute, intermittent apnoea, grunting, moderate or severe chest in-drawing, cyanosis, pale, ashen, mottled or blue skin color, lack of response to social cues, inability to be roused or stay awake, and appearing ill. Reduced skin turgor is also a sign of dehydration to watch out for.

      Understanding Bronchiolitis

      Bronchiolitis is a condition that is characterized by inflammation of the bronchioles. It is a serious lower respiratory tract infection that is most common in children under the age of one year. The pathogen responsible for 75-80% of cases is respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), while other causes include mycoplasma and adenoviruses. Bronchiolitis is more serious in children with bronchopulmonary dysplasia, congenital heart disease, or cystic fibrosis.

      The symptoms of bronchiolitis include coryzal symptoms, dry cough, increasing breathlessness, and wheezing. Fine inspiratory crackles may also be present. Children with bronchiolitis may experience feeding difficulties associated with increasing dyspnoea, which is often the reason for hospital admission.

      Immediate referral to hospital is recommended if the child has apnoea, looks seriously unwell to a healthcare professional, has severe respiratory distress, central cyanosis, or persistent oxygen saturation of less than 92% when breathing air. Clinicians should consider referring to hospital if the child has a respiratory rate of over 60 breaths/minute, difficulty with breastfeeding or inadequate oral fluid intake, or clinical dehydration.

      The investigation for bronchiolitis involves immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions, which may show RSV. Management of bronchiolitis is largely supportive, with humidified oxygen given via a head box if oxygen saturations are persistently < 92%. Nasogastric feeding may be needed if children cannot take enough fluid/feed by mouth, and suction is sometimes used for excessive upper airway secretions.

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      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 11 - Which condition is most closely linked to supravalvular aortic stenosis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which condition is most closely linked to supravalvular aortic stenosis?

      Your Answer: Noonan syndrome

      Correct Answer: William's syndrome

      Explanation:

      The boy diagnosed with William’s syndrome, who is also short for his age and has learning difficulties, is known for his exceptionally outgoing and sociable personality.

      Childhood syndromes are a group of medical conditions that affect children and are characterized by a set of common features. Patau syndrome, also known as trisomy 13, is a syndrome that presents with microcephaly, small eyes, cleft lip/palate, polydactyly, and scalp lesions. Edward’s syndrome, or trisomy 18, is characterized by micrognathia, low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping of fingers. Fragile X syndrome is a condition that causes learning difficulties, macrocephaly, a long face, large ears, and macro-orchidism. Noonan syndrome presents with a webbed neck, pectus excavatum, short stature, and pulmonary stenosis. Pierre-Robin syndrome is characterized by micrognathia, posterior displacement of the tongue, and cleft palate. Prader-Willi syndrome presents with hypotonia, hypogonadism, and obesity. William’s syndrome is characterized by short stature, learning difficulties, a friendly and extroverted personality, and transient neonatal hypercalcaemia. Finally, Cri du chat syndrome, also known as chromosome 5p deletion syndrome, presents with a characteristic cry due to larynx and neurological problems, feeding difficulties and poor weight gain, learning difficulties, microcephaly, micrognathism, and hypertelorism. It is important to note that Pierre-Robin syndrome has many similarities with Treacher-Collins syndrome, but the latter is autosomal dominant and usually has a family history of similar problems.

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      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 12 - Sophie is an 8 month old baby girl who comes to you with...

    Correct

    • Sophie is an 8 month old baby girl who comes to you with inadequate weight gain (75th to 25th centile), during examination she has a blanching, erythematous rash on her abdomen, colicky abdominal pain and regurgitation after feeds. She has been breastfed with additional 'Cow & Gate' formula. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cows' milk protein intolerance

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis based on the given history is cows’ milk protein intolerance. This is suggested by the involvement of multiple systems, the introduction of top up feeds at 7 months (which coincides with the onset of symptoms), and faltering growth. Charlie’s age also makes pyloric stenosis an unlikely diagnosis, as it typically presents between 2 to 8 weeks and is very rare above 6 months. The presentation is also atypical for eczema, infantile colic, and reflux due to the involvement of multiple systems.

      Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects approximately 3-6% of children and typically presents in formula-fed infants within the first 3 months of life. However, it can also occur in exclusively breastfed infants, although this is rare. Both immediate (IgE mediated) and delayed (non-IgE mediated) reactions can occur, with CMPA usually used to describe immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms of CMPI/CMPA include regurgitation and vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms such as irritability and crying, wheezing, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis.

      Diagnosis of CMPI/CMPA is often based on clinical presentation, such as improvement with cow’s milk protein elimination. However, investigations such as skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein may also be performed. If symptoms are severe, such as failure to thrive, referral to a pediatrician is necessary.

      Management of CMPI/CMPA depends on whether the child is formula-fed or breastfed. For formula-fed infants with mild-moderate symptoms, extensive hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk is the first-line replacement formula, while amino acid-based formula (AAF) is used for infants with severe CMPA or if there is no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants with CMPI/CMPA are also intolerant to soy milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should continue breastfeeding while eliminating cow’s milk protein from their diet. Calcium supplements may be prescribed to prevent deficiency while excluding dairy from the diet. When breastfeeding stops, eHF milk should be used until the child is at least 12 months old and for at least 6 months.

      The prognosis for CMPI/CMPA is generally good, with most children eventually becoming milk tolerant. In children with IgE-mediated intolerance, around 55% will be milk tolerant by the age of 5 years, while in children with non-IgE mediated intolerance, most will be milk tolerant by the age of 3 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur.

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  • Question 13 - A 14-month-old baby boy receives his first MMR vaccine. If any side-effects occur,...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-month-old baby boy receives his first MMR vaccine. If any side-effects occur, what are the most probable symptoms?

      Your Answer: Malaise, fever and rash: occurs after 2-3 days and lasts around 1-2 days

      Correct Answer: Malaise, fever and rash: occurs after 5-10 days and lasts around 2-3 days

      Explanation:

      MMR Vaccine: Information on Administration, Contraindications, and Adverse Effects

      The Measles, Mumps and Rubella (MMR) vaccine is given to children in the UK twice before they enter primary school. The first dose is administered at 12-15 months, while the second dose is given at 3-4 years old. This vaccine is part of the routine immunisation schedule for children.

      However, there are certain contraindications to the MMR vaccine. Children with severe immunosuppression, allergies to neomycin, or those who have received another live vaccine by injection within four weeks should not receive the MMR vaccine. Pregnant women should also avoid getting vaccinated for at least one month following the MMR vaccine. Additionally, if a child has undergone immunoglobulin therapy within the past three months, there may be no immune response to the measles vaccine if antibodies are present.

      While the MMR vaccine is generally safe, some adverse effects may occur. After the first dose of the vaccine, children may experience malaise, fever, and rash. These symptoms typically occur after 5-10 days and last for around 2-3 days. It is important to note that the benefits of the MMR vaccine far outweigh the risks, as it protects against serious and potentially life-threatening diseases.

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      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 14 - A 6-year-old girl with persistent social interaction difficulties is undergoing assessment by a...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl with persistent social interaction difficulties is undergoing assessment by a multidisciplinary team for a psychological developmental disorder. During her earlier years, there were no indications of developmental abnormalities and there is no delay or retardation in her language or cognitive development. Nevertheless, her parents report that she obsessively arranges her toys in a specific order every day and becomes upset if this routine is disrupted. According to the ICD-10 diagnostic criteria, what is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Autism spectrum disorder

      Explanation:

      The child is exhibiting symptoms of autism and Asperger’s syndrome, including difficulty with social interaction and repetitive behavior. However, there are no indications of delayed language or cognitive development, which are common in autism. Attention deficit disorder may also be a factor, as the child struggles with attention and persistence. While obsessive compulsive disorder could be a possibility due to the child’s preoccupation with counting toys, it is unlikely to explain the social interaction difficulties. Reactive attachment disorder of childhood is not a likely explanation, as the child’s behavior doesn’t align with the symptoms of this disorder.

      Autism spectrum disorder (ASD) is a neurodevelopmental condition that affects social interaction, communication, and behavior. It can be diagnosed in early childhood or later in life and is more common in boys than girls. Around 50% of children with ASD also have an intellectual disability. Symptoms can range from subtle difficulties in understanding and social function to severe disabilities. While there is no cure for ASD, early diagnosis and intensive educational and behavioral management can improve outcomes. Treatment involves a comprehensive approach that includes non-pharmacological therapies such as applied behavioral analysis, structured teaching methods, and family counseling. Pharmacological interventions may also be used to reduce symptoms like repetitive behavior, anxiety, and aggression. The goal of treatment is to increase functional independence and quality of life while decreasing disability and comorbidity.

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  • Question 15 - A mother has brought her 7-year-old son to see you as she is...

    Correct

    • A mother has brought her 7-year-old son to see you as she is worried about a lump in his neck. She says that the lump is painless and has been present for several months.

      On examination you find a 3 cm, non-tender cervical lymph node. You can also see some scratch marks over his trunk.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Benign lymphadenopathy

      Explanation:

      Differences in Presentation of Hodgkin’s and Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

      Hodgkin’s lymphoma is characterized by the presence of painless cervical and/or supraclavicular lymphadenopathy, although it can also occur in other areas. The progression of the disease is usually slow, taking several months. Most patients do not experience systemic symptoms such as fever, night sweats, or itching.

      On the other hand, non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma tends to progress more rapidly and may present with a variety of symptoms, including lymphadenopathy, shortness of breath, SVC obstruction, and abdominal distension.

      To summarize, while both types of lymphoma can present with lymphadenopathy, the rate of progression and accompanying symptoms can differ significantly. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional if any concerning symptoms arise.

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      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 16 - A 3-month-old formula-fed baby, born at 37 weeks, has been experiencing symptoms of...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-month-old formula-fed baby, born at 37 weeks, has been experiencing symptoms of cow's milk protein allergy for the past 2 weeks. The baby is increasingly unsettled around 30-60 minutes after feeds, with frequent regurgitation, 'colic' episodes, and non-bloody diarrhoea. Mild eczema is present on examination, but the baby's weight remains stable between the 50-75th centile. The baby was started on an extensively hydrolysed formula, but there is still some persistence of symptoms reported by the parents. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this baby's condition?

      Your Answer: Extensively hydrolysed formula to continue

      Correct Answer: Amino-acid based formula trial

      Explanation:

      Soya milk is not a suitable alternative as a significant proportion of infants who have an allergy to cow’s milk protein are also unable to tolerate it.

      Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects approximately 3-6% of children and typically presents in formula-fed infants within the first 3 months of life. However, it can also occur in exclusively breastfed infants, although this is rare. Both immediate (IgE mediated) and delayed (non-IgE mediated) reactions can occur, with CMPA usually used to describe immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms of CMPI/CMPA include regurgitation and vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms such as irritability and crying, wheezing, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis.

      Diagnosis of CMPI/CMPA is often based on clinical presentation, such as improvement with cow’s milk protein elimination. However, investigations such as skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein may also be performed. If symptoms are severe, such as failure to thrive, referral to a pediatrician is necessary.

      Management of CMPI/CMPA depends on whether the child is formula-fed or breastfed. For formula-fed infants with mild-moderate symptoms, extensive hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk is the first-line replacement formula, while amino acid-based formula (AAF) is used for infants with severe CMPA or if there is no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants with CMPI/CMPA are also intolerant to soy milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should continue breastfeeding while eliminating cow’s milk protein from their diet. Calcium supplements may be prescribed to prevent deficiency while excluding dairy from the diet. When breastfeeding stops, eHF milk should be used until the child is at least 12 months old and for at least 6 months.

      The prognosis for CMPI/CMPA is generally good, with most children eventually becoming milk tolerant. In children with IgE-mediated intolerance, around 55% will be milk tolerant by the age of 5 years, while in children with non-IgE mediated intolerance, most will be milk tolerant by the age of 3 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur.

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      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 17 - The parents of a 6-year-old girl with asthma are worried about potential side-effects...

    Incorrect

    • The parents of a 6-year-old girl with asthma are worried about potential side-effects from asthma treatment. Upon examination, you notice that her asthma has been poorly managed for the past six months and she has been frequently visiting the nurse-led asthma clinic. She is currently taking 100 micrograms of beclomethasone twice daily, but her asthma remains uncontrolled. What is the best course of action for managing this child's asthma?

      Your Answer: He should receive a long acting beta-agonist

      Correct Answer: A leukotriene receptor antagonist should be added to the current beclomethasone regimen

      Explanation:

      Management of Asthma in Children Under Five Years Old: Adding a Leukotriene Receptor Antagonist to the Current Regimen

      The British Guidelines on the Management of Asthma and The Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommend prescribing an inhaled corticosteroid for prophylaxis of asthma in children under five years old when they require a beta-2 agonist more than twice a week, experience symptoms that disturb sleep at least once a week, or have suffered an exacerbation in the last two years requiring a systemic corticosteroid. However, long-term use of high doses of inhaled corticosteroids can cause adrenal suppression, and growth impairment may occur. Therefore, it is important to monitor height and weight.

      If a child’s asthma remains poorly controlled despite receiving the recommended very low dose of beclomethasone (100 µg twice a day), a leukotriene receptor antagonist (e.g. montelukast) should be added before considering an increase in corticosteroid dosage. Both NICE and SIGN guidelines agree on this approach.

      It is important to note that a long acting beta-agonist is not the preferred add-on treatment for children under five years old, as recommended for children aged five years and older. Referral to a respiratory paediatrician is also not necessary in this case, as NICE recommends referral for investigation and further management by an asthma expert only if control is not achieved with a low dose of inhaled corticosteroid and a leukotriene receptor antagonist as maintenance therapy.

      In summary, adding a leukotriene receptor antagonist to the current beclomethasone regimen is the appropriate next step in managing asthma in children under five years old.

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  • Question 18 - In clinic, two male patients with Marfan syndrome are being evaluated. Both individuals...

    Incorrect

    • In clinic, two male patients with Marfan syndrome are being evaluated. Both individuals have confirmed mutations in the FBN1 gene on chromosome 15. Despite being close in age, one patient displays severe skeletal abnormalities such as marked thoracic lordosis and pectus excavatum, while the other has a nearly normal skeletal examination. What genetic concept can best explain the variation in phenotype between these two patients?

      Your Answer: Anticipation

      Correct Answer: Expressivity

      Explanation:

      Expressivity is a term used in genetics to describe how much a genotype is expressed in an individual’s phenotype. This can vary greatly, even among individuals with the same gene. Neurofibromatosis type 1 is an example of a condition with high phenotypic variability due to expressivity. Penetrance is a similar concept, but it looks at the statistical variability of a genotype in a population. Incomplete penetrance occurs when the genotype is present but the phenotype is not observed, which can explain why some monogenic disorders do not follow predictable inheritance patterns. Hemingway’s cats in Florida showed high penetrance but variable expression of polydactyly, where the gene always caused extra toes but the number varied. Aneuploidy is when there is an abnormal number of chromosomes in a cell, such as in Down syndrome. Anticipation refers to the increasing severity of an inherited disorder in subsequent generations, as seen in Huntington’s disease.

      Understanding Penetrance and Expressivity in Genetic Disorders

      Penetrance and expressivity are two important concepts in genetics that help explain why individuals with the same gene mutation may exhibit different degrees of observable characteristics. Penetrance refers to the proportion of individuals in a population who carry a disease-causing allele and express the related disease phenotype. In contrast, expressivity describes the extent to which a genotype shows its phenotypic expression in an individual.

      There are several factors that can influence penetrance and expressivity, including modifier genes, environmental factors, and allelic variation. For example, some genetic disorders, such as retinoblastoma and Huntington’s disease, exhibit incomplete penetrance, meaning that not all individuals with the disease-causing allele will develop the condition. On the other hand, achondroplasia shows complete penetrance, meaning that all individuals with the disease-causing allele will develop the condition.

      Expressivity, on the other hand, describes the severity of the phenotype. Some genetic disorders, such as neurofibromatosis, exhibit a high level of expressivity, meaning that the phenotype is more severe in affected individuals. Understanding penetrance and expressivity is important in genetic counseling and can help predict the likelihood and severity of a genetic disorder in individuals and their families.

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  • Question 19 - Oliver is an 8-year-old boy brought in by his mother with a 2...

    Incorrect

    • Oliver is an 8-year-old boy brought in by his mother with a 2 day history of fever and sore throat. Today he has developed a rash on his torso. He is eating and drinking well, but has not been to school for the last 2 days and has been feeling tired.

      On examination, Oliver is alert, smiling and playful. He has a temperature of 37.8°C. His throat appears red with petechiae on the hard and soft palate and his tongue is covered with a white coat through which red papillae are visible. There is a blanching rash present on his trunk which is red and punctate with a rough, sandpaper-like texture.

      What is the appropriate time for Oliver to return to school based on the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: 48 hours after commencing antibiotics

      Correct Answer: 24 hours after commencing antibiotics

      Explanation:

      If a child has scarlet fever, they can go back to school after 24 hours of starting antibiotics. The symptoms described are typical of scarlet fever, including a strawberry tongue and a rough-textured rash with small red spots on the palate called Forchheimer spots. Charlotte doesn’t need to be hospitalized but should take a 10-day course of phenoxymethylpenicillin. According to NICE, the child should stay away from school, nursery, or work for at least 24 hours after starting antibiotics. It is also important to advise parents to take measures to prevent cross-infection, such as frequent handwashing, avoiding sharing utensils and towels, and disposing of tissues promptly.

      Scarlet fever is a condition caused by erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci, usually Streptococcus pyogenes. It is more common in children aged 2-6 years, with the highest incidence at 4 years. The disease is spread through respiratory droplets or direct contact with nose and throat discharges. The incubation period is 2-4 days, and symptoms include fever, malaise, headache, sore throat, ‘strawberry’ tongue, and a rash that appears first on the torso and spares the palms and soles. Scarlet fever is usually a mild illness, but it may be complicated by otitis media, rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis, or rare invasive complications.

      To diagnose scarlet fever, a throat swab is usually taken, but antibiotic treatment should be started immediately, rather than waiting for the results. Management involves oral penicillin V for ten days, while patients with a penicillin allergy should be given azithromycin. Children can return to school 24 hours after starting antibiotics, and scarlet fever is a notifiable disease. Desquamation occurs later in the course of the illness, particularly around the fingers and toes. The rash is often described as having a rough ‘sandpaper’ texture, and children often have a flushed appearance with circumoral pallor. Invasive complications such as bacteraemia, meningitis, and necrotizing fasciitis are rare but may present acutely with life-threatening illness.

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  • Question 20 - Which of the following features is least commonly associated with rickets? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following features is least commonly associated with rickets?

      Your Answer: Harrison's sulcus

      Correct Answer: Reduced serum alkaline phosphatase

      Explanation:

      Understanding Rickets

      Rickets is a condition that occurs when bones in developing and growing bodies are inadequately mineralized, resulting in soft and easily deformed bones. This condition is usually caused by a deficiency in vitamin D. In adults, a similar condition is called osteomalacia.

      There are several factors that can predispose individuals to rickets, including a dietary deficiency of calcium, prolonged breastfeeding, unsupplemented cow’s milk formula, and a lack of sunlight.

      Symptoms of rickets include aching bones and joints, lower limb abnormalities such as bow legs or knock knees, swelling at the costochondral junction (known as a rickety rosary), kyphoscoliosis, craniotabes (soft skull bones in early life), and Harrison’s sulcus.

      To diagnose rickets, doctors may check for low vitamin D levels, reduced serum calcium, and raised alkaline phosphatase. Treatment typically involves oral vitamin D supplementation.

      Overall, understanding rickets and its causes can help individuals take steps to prevent this condition and ensure proper bone development and growth.

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  • Question 21 - Sophie attends a routine check-up with her 12-year-old daughter Lily, who has a...

    Correct

    • Sophie attends a routine check-up with her 12-year-old daughter Lily, who has a history of well-controlled allergies but is otherwise healthy. Lily has received all her routine childhood vaccinations. She has recently received a reminder to have her flu vaccine.

      What other vaccination should Lily receive at her age?

      Your Answer: Human papillomavirus (HPV)

      Explanation:

      Boys in school year 8, aged 12-13, are now eligible to receive the HPV vaccine alongside girls. This vaccine has been added to the routine immunisation schedule for this age group. Therefore, Dominic should receive the HPV vaccine this year. The meningitis ACWY and tetanus, diphtheria and polio vaccines are given at 14 years (school year 9) and are not applicable at this time. Dominic is up to date with his routine immunisations, including the MMR vaccine which is given at 1 year and again at 3 years and 4 months. The pneumococcal vaccine is only offered to 65-year-olds and is not relevant to Dominic’s current situation.

      The human papillomavirus (HPV) is a known carcinogen that infects the skin and mucous membranes. There are numerous strains of HPV, with strains 6 and 11 causing genital warts and strains 16 and 18 linked to various cancers, particularly cervical cancer. HPV infection is responsible for over 99.7% of cervical cancers, and testing for HPV is now a crucial part of cervical cancer screening. Other cancers linked to HPV include anal, vulval, vaginal, mouth, and throat cancers. While there are other risk factors for developing cervical cancer, such as smoking and contraceptive pill use, HPV vaccination is an effective preventative measure.

      The UK introduced an HPV vaccine in 2008, initially using Cervarix, which protected against HPV 16 and 18 but not 6 and 11. This decision was criticized due to the significant disease burden caused by genital warts. In 2012, Gardasil replaced Cervarix as the vaccine used, protecting against HPV 6, 11, 16, and 18. Initially given only to girls, boys were also offered the vaccine from September 2019. The vaccine is offered to all 12- and 13-year-olds in school Year 8, with the option for girls to receive a second dose between 6-24 months after the first. Men who have sex with men under the age of 45 are also recommended to receive the vaccine to protect against anal, throat, and penile cancers.

      Injection site reactions are common with HPV vaccines. It should be noted that parents may not be able to prevent their daughter from receiving the vaccine, as information given to parents and available on the NHS website makes it clear that the vaccine may be administered against parental wishes.

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  • Question 22 - You see a 5-year-old girl who is being abused by her father. The...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 5-year-old girl who is being abused by her father. The foundation programme doctor who is working with you is shocked by how common abuse of children seems to be.

      Which is the most common form of child abuse?

      Your Answer: Emotional abuse

      Correct Answer: Neglect

      Explanation:

      The Most Common Form of Child Abuse

      Neglect is the most prevalent form of child abuse, as opposed to direct emotional, physical, or sexual abuse. Neglect occurs when a caregiver fails to provide the necessary care and attention that a child needs to thrive. This can include not providing adequate food, shelter, clothing, medical care, or supervision. Neglect can also manifest in emotional neglect, where a child is not given the love, support, and attention they need to develop emotionally. It is important to recognize neglect as a form of abuse and take action to protect children from its harmful effects.

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  • Question 23 - A 4-month-old child is scheduled to receive the pertussis vaccine, but the mother...

    Correct

    • A 4-month-old child is scheduled to receive the pertussis vaccine, but the mother is concerned about potential health issues that may prevent the administration of the vaccine.

      What would be a contraindication for giving the vaccine in this case?

      Your Answer: Confirmed anaphylaxis to neomycin drops

      Explanation:

      Pertussis-Containing Vaccines: Who Should Not Receive Them?

      There are very few people who cannot receive pertussis-containing vaccines. However, if there is any doubt, it is important to seek advice from a consultant paediatrician, local Screening and Immunisation team, or consultant in Health Protection rather than withholding the vaccine.

      There are only two situations where the vaccine should not be given. Firstly, if an individual has had a confirmed anaphylactic reaction to a previous dose of a pertussis-containing vaccine. Secondly, if an individual has had a confirmed anaphylactic reaction to neomycin, streptomycin, or polymyxin B, which may be present in trace amounts. In these cases, it is important to avoid the vaccine and seek alternative options.

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  • Question 24 - Which medical conditions are included in the February 2022 UK immunisation schedule for...

    Incorrect

    • Which medical conditions are included in the February 2022 UK immunisation schedule for receiving the Meningococcal ACWY vaccine?

      Your Answer: Immunosuppression due to disease or treatment

      Correct Answer: Haemophilia

      Explanation:

      Asplenia and Splenic Dysfunction: Important Considerations for Vaccinations

      A surprising answer for many, the medical conditions that require additional vaccines may not be what you expect. While immunosuppression and diabetes are common guesses, patients with asplenia or splenic dysfunction (such as those with coeliac disease or sickle cell) should receive Men ACWY, Pneumococcal, and influenza vaccines in addition to the routine schedule.

      It’s important to note that asplenia and splenic dysfunction are not rare conditions. In fact, one in a hundred patients may have coeliac disease, whether diagnosed or not. Additionally, those with complement disorders (including those receiving complement inhibitor therapy) should also receive the Meningococcal ACWY vaccine.

      Overall, it’s crucial for healthcare professionals to consider these conditions when determining a patient’s vaccination schedule. By doing so, we can help protect those who may be at higher risk for vaccine-preventable diseases.

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  • Question 25 - A 15-year-old girl came to the clinic with her older sister, complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl came to the clinic with her older sister, complaining of foul-smelling vaginal discharge. Upon taking a detailed medical history, it was revealed that the discharge started three weeks ago, after she returned from a trip to Sudan where she had a celebration to mark her transition into womanhood. Initially hesitant to undergo a vaginal examination, she eventually agreed after her sister's persuasion. During the examination, you observe indications that suggest female genital mutilation (FGM). You discover that she has a younger sister at home. What would be the most appropriate next step to take?

      Your Answer: Do nothing - she has not told you she has undergone FGM or requested help

      Correct Answer: Call the police to make a report, refer all children urgently to social services and treat the infection

      Explanation:

      If you come across a case of Female Genital Mutilation (FGM) in a female under the age of 18, it is important to report it to the police immediately. FGM is considered a form of child abuse and violence, and is illegal in England and Wales. This can be reported either by the child themselves or through physical examination.

      It is crucial to take action as doing nothing is not an option when it comes to child abuse and the safety of other children. A safeguarding alert alone is not sufficient, as there is a mandatory reporting duty for healthcare professionals who encounter a confirmed case of FGM.

      There is no need to contact the parents for further information as physical evidence has already been observed. It is also not appropriate to advise the child to call the police, as they are vulnerable and it is the duty of healthcare professionals to provide assistance.

      Understanding Female Genital Mutilation

      Female genital mutilation (FGM) is a practice that involves the partial or total removal of the external female genitalia or other forms of injury to the female genital organs for non-medical reasons. This practice is classified into four types by the World Health Organization (WHO). Type 1 involves the partial or total removal of the clitoris and/or the prepuce, while Type 2 involves the partial or total removal of the clitoris and the labia minora, with or without excision of the labia majora. Type 3 involves the narrowing of the vaginal orifice with the creation of a covering seal by cutting and appositioning the labia minora and/or the labia majora, with or without excision of the clitoris. Type 4 includes all other harmful procedures to the female genitalia for non-medical purposes, such as pricking, piercing, incising, scraping, and cauterization. It is important to understand the different types of FGM to raise awareness and prevent this harmful practice.

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  • Question 26 - At the 4-month baby check, a mother who has been exclusively breastfeeding tells...

    Correct

    • At the 4-month baby check, a mother who has been exclusively breastfeeding tells you that she thinks she will find bottle feeding more convenient. She is thinking of stopping breastfeeding. However, there are several medical advantages for breastfed children over those who are not breastfed, and you wish to inform her of these benefits.
      Which condition on this list does the evidence suggest that breastfeeding has the STRONGEST protective effect against?

      Your Answer: Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)

      Explanation:

      Breastfeeding and its Effects on Infant Health: A Comprehensive Overview

      Breastfeeding has numerous benefits for infant health, including protection against sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS), many infections, childhood obesity, and future type 1 and 2 diabetes. While exclusive breastfeeding has the strongest protective effect against SIDS, any amount of breastfeeding can confer some protection. However, there is no evidence that exclusive breastfeeding protects against atopic eczema.

      Breastfeeding may also affect neonatal jaundice. Breastfeeding jaundice, which occurs before the mother’s milk supply is fully developed, can make physiological jaundice appear worse. Breastmilk jaundice, on the other hand, is different and typically peaks between days 5 and 15 before becoming normal after week 3. It may persist up to age 3 months, and its cause is unclear.

      Breastfeeding may also have implications for maternal bacterial infections, including tuberculosis. If the mother develops tuberculosis, temporarily stopping breastfeeding may be appropriate, but anti-tuberculosis drugs are safe for use with breastfeeding. Breastmilk is also low in vitamin D, so breastfed infants may need to receive vitamin D drops from 1 month of age if their mother has not taken supplements during pregnancy. This is particularly important for mothers at high risk of vitamin D deficiency.

      Overall, breastfeeding has numerous benefits for infant health, but it is important to be aware of its potential implications for certain conditions.

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  • Question 27 - A 3-year-old male presents with fever, nausea, and painful urination at the clinic....

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old male presents with fever, nausea, and painful urination at the clinic. What is the best method to collect a urine sample?

      Your Answer: Clean-catch urine

      Explanation:

      The advice given in the NICE guidelines regarding urine collection has been criticised for being impractical.

      Urinary Tract Infection in Children: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are more common in boys until 3 months of age, after which the incidence is substantially higher in girls. At least 8% of girls and 2% of boys will have a UTI in childhood. The presentation of UTIs in childhood depends on age. Infants may experience poor feeding, vomiting, and irritability, while younger children may have abdominal pain, fever, and dysuria. Older children may experience dysuria, frequency, and haematuria. Features that may suggest an upper UTI include a temperature of over 38ºC and loin pain or tenderness.

      According to NICE guidelines, a urine sample should be checked in a child if there are any symptoms or signs suggestive of a UTI, with unexplained fever of 38°C or higher (test urine after 24 hours at the latest), or with an alternative site of infection but who remain unwell (consider urine test after 24 hours at the latest). A clean catch is the preferable method for urine collection. If not possible, urine collection pads should be used. Invasive methods such as suprapubic aspiration should only be used if non-invasive methods are not possible.

      Infants less than 3 months old should be referred immediately to a paediatrician. Children aged more than 3 months old with an upper UTI should be considered for admission to the hospital. If not admitted, oral antibiotics such as cephalosporin or co-amoxiclav should be given for 7-10 days. Children aged more than 3 months old with a lower UTI should be treated with oral antibiotics for 3 days according to local guidelines, usually trimethoprim, nitrofurantoin, cephalosporin, or amoxicillin. Parents should be asked to bring the children back if they remain unwell after 24-48 hours. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not given after the first UTI but should be considered with recurrent UTIs.

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  • Question 28 - A 9-year-old boy comes to see you with his father; they have returned...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old boy comes to see you with his father; they have returned from a holiday to Egypt and the father is very concerned as his son is lethargic, tired and has most recently become jaundiced, with dark urine. He is nauseated all the time and hardly able to eat.

      On examination he is pyrexial 38.2°C, with jaundice and evidence of scratch marks on his skin.

      Investigations show:

      Haemoglobin 118 g/L (135 - 180)

      WCC 8.2 ×109/L (4 - 10)

      Platelets 190 ×109/L (150 - 400)

      Sodium 140 mmol/L (134 - 143)

      Potassium 4.7 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)

      Creatinine 105 µmol/L (60 - 120)

      Bili 142 (<26)

      ALT 680 (<36)

      Which one of the following is true of his condition?

      Your Answer: Fulminant liver failure may occur in up to 20% of patients

      Correct Answer: You can reassure her mother that she will almost certainly make a full recovery

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis A in North Africa

      This child is suffering from hepatitis A, a common condition in North Africa where most people are exposed to it and develop immunity as children. However, children from the United Kingdom are not immune and may become infected while on holiday through the faeco-oral route.

      Fortunately, supportive care is all that is needed, including bed rest, proper nutrition, fluid intake, and pain relief. Only a small percentage of patients progress to fulminant hepatic failure.

      To prevent infection, it is recommended to get vaccinated for hepatitis A before traveling to areas where exposure is likely.

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  • Question 29 - Jane, age 14, comes to morning surgery requesting the contraceptive pill. She looks...

    Correct

    • Jane, age 14, comes to morning surgery requesting the contraceptive pill. She looks a lot older than her age. You have to decide whether to prescribe or not.

      The Sexual Offences Act 2003 considers children under what age as too young to give consent to sexual activity?

      Your Answer: Under 13 years

      Explanation:

      Child Protection and Sexual Offences

      The Sexual Offences Act 2003 states that children under the age of 13 are not capable of giving consent to sexual activity. Any sexual offence involving a child under 13 should be treated with utmost seriousness. Health professionals should consider referring such cases to social services under the Child Protection Procedures. It is advisable to seek advice from designated child protection professionals in the first instance.

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  • Question 30 - A 12-month-old girl is brought to the General Practitioner (GP) for a check-up....

    Incorrect

    • A 12-month-old girl is brought to the General Practitioner (GP) for a check-up. The parent is questioned about the child's developmental milestones.
      Which of the following is this child most likely to be able to achieve by its current age?

      Your Answer: Walk up steps

      Correct Answer: Finger feed

      Explanation:

      Developmental Milestones for Infants: Typical Achievements by 14-21 Months

      Infants develop at different rates, but most achieve certain skills by certain ages. By 14 months, most infants can finger feed themselves. By 19 months, they can use a spoon and fork, as well as run. By 20 months, they can take off clothes with help, and by 21 months, they can walk up steps. These milestones are important markers of typical development for infants.

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