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Question 1
Incorrect
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A worried father brings his 12-month-old son to the GP because he is worried about his development.
You conduct a developmental evaluation.
What results in the child would be worrisome?Your Answer: Plays alone, does not share toys
Correct Answer: Picks up objects with a pincer grip, with a preference for the right hand
Explanation:Hand preference before the age of 12 months may indicate a potential issue such as cerebral palsy. It is not typical for a child to strongly favor one hand over the other at this age. However, it is encouraging for a 10-month-old to have a vocabulary of at least three words. It is normal for children to play alone at this age and they are not expected to share toys until they are around 3 years old. It is also normal for children to enjoy casting bricks until they are 18 months old, but if this behavior continues beyond that age, it may be a cause for concern. Finally, independent walking should develop between 9 and 18 months, with 18 months being the age at which parents may want to seek medical advice if their child is not yet walking independently.
Common Developmental Problems and Possible Causes
Developmental problems can manifest in various ways, including referral points such as not smiling at 10 weeks, inability to sit unsupported at 12 months, and failure to walk at 18 months. Fine motor skill problems may also arise, such as abnormal hand preference before 12 months, which could indicate cerebral palsy. Gross motor problems are often caused by a variant of normal, cerebral palsy, or neuromuscular disorders like Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Speech and language problems should always be checked for hearing issues, as they can also be caused by environmental deprivation or general development delay.
It is important to recognize these developmental problems early on and seek appropriate interventions to address them. By doing so, children can receive the necessary support to reach their full potential and overcome any challenges they may face. With proper care and attention, many children with developmental problems can go on to lead happy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 2
Correct
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A 6-year-old boy arrives at the Emergency Department with a high fever, difficulty breathing, severe sore throat, and drooling of saliva. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Call the ear, nose and throat (ENT) surgeon/senior anaesthetist to secure her airway
Explanation:Managing Acute Epiglottitis: Prioritizing Airway Security
Acute epiglottitis is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention to secure the patient’s airway. While medical therapies and investigations are important, the priority should be given to securing the airway via endo-/nasotracheal intubation or tracheostomy guided by a senior anaesthetist and ENT surgeon. Oral instrumentation is contraindicated until the airway has been secured. Lateral neck X-ray may be useful in diagnosing less acute presentations, but in this case, the child requires intravenous broad-spectrum antibiotics and admission to an Intensive Therapy Unit/High-dependency Unit bed in the hospital. Intubating a child with acute epiglottitis can be challenging and should only be undertaken by an experienced anaesthetist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Should all infants undergo hearing screening by their health visitor as part of the 'Infant Hearing Screening Programme'? And if the results are abnormal, what is the next hearing test they will have?
Your Answer: Otoacoustic emission test as a newborn/infant
Correct Answer: Auditory Brainstem Response test as a newborn/infant
Explanation:When a newborn baby’s hearing test at birth shows an abnormal result, they are recommended to undergo an auditory brainstem response test as a newborn or infant. Prior to being discharged from the hospital, all newborns should have an acoustic emission test, which involves placing a soft earpiece in the baby’s ear and playing quiet clicking sounds to detect inner ear responses. If this test yields abnormal results, the auditory brainstem response test is conducted using three sensors placed on the baby’s head and neck, along with soft headphones to play sounds and analyze the brain and hearing nerve responses. At 6-9 months of age, a distraction test is performed, and most areas in the UK conduct pure tone audiometry at school entry.
Hearing Tests for Children
Hearing tests are important for children to ensure that they are developing normally. There are several tests that may be performed on children of different ages. For newborns, an otoacoustic emission test is typically done as part of the Newborn Hearing Screening Programme. This test involves playing a computer-generated click through a small earpiece and checking for the presence of a soft echo, which indicates a healthy cochlea. If the results of this test are abnormal, an Auditory Brainstem Response test may be done.
For infants between 6-9 months, a Distraction test may be performed by a health visitor with the help of two trained staff members. For children between 18 months to 2.5 years, a Recognition of familiar objects test may be used, which involves using familiar objects like a teddy or cup and asking the child simple questions like where is the teddy? For children over 2.5 years, Performance testing and Speech discrimination tests may be used, such as the Kendall Toy test or McCormick Toy Test. Pure tone audiometry is typically done at school entry in most areas of the UK for children over 3 years old.
In addition to these tests, there is also a questionnaire for parents in the Personal Child Health Records called Can your baby hear you? It is important for parents to be aware of these tests and to have their child’s hearing checked regularly to ensure proper development.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man of African descent with a family history of cancer presented with an elevated PSA level of 23 ng/ml and was diagnosed with adenocarcinoma with a Gleason score of 7. Magnetic resonance imaging revealed abnormal signals on both sides of the prostate, and a bone scan showed two bone metastatic lesions. The clinical stage was T2 N0 M1b, and he received surgical and hormonal treatment. Genetic testing was performed to determine the most likely mutation he has.
What mutation is he most likely to have?Your Answer: APC mutation
Correct Answer: BRCA mutation
Explanation:Men who carry BRCA mutations are at a higher risk of developing prostate cancer, particularly those with the BRCA2 gene which is associated with a more aggressive form of the disease. BRCA1 and BRCA2 are tumor suppressor genes that are inherited in an autosomal dominant manner with incomplete penetrance. On the other hand, APC mutation is not a major contributor to the development of clinical prostate cancer, as it is primarily responsible for colorectal tumors, often accompanied by ras and p53 mutations. BRAF mutation is an incorrect answer, as it is rare in both early and late-stage prostate cancer, but is found in approximately 50% of melanomas.
Understanding Tumour Suppressor Genes
Tumour suppressor genes are responsible for controlling the cell cycle and preventing the development of cancer. When these genes lose their function, the risk of cancer increases. However, it is important to note that both alleles of the gene must be mutated before cancer can occur.
There are several examples of tumour suppressor genes, including p53, APC, BRCA1 & BRCA2, NF1, Rb, WT1, and MTS-1 (p16). These genes are associated with various types of cancer, such as colorectal cancer, breast and ovarian cancer, neurofibromatosis, retinoblastoma, Wilm’s tumour, and melanoma.
It is crucial to understand the role of tumour suppressor genes in preventing cancer and the consequences of their loss of function. In contrast to oncogenes, which result in an increased risk of cancer due to a gain of function, tumour suppressor genes must be both mutated before cancer can occur. By studying these genes and their functions, researchers can develop new strategies for cancer prevention and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 5
Correct
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A 4-year-old girl presents with multiple petechiae and excessive bruising on her arms. She had been healthy until two weeks ago when she had a viral upper respiratory tract infection and was only given paracetamol by her doctor. Her mother noticed her symptoms half an hour ago and she has no fever. Blood tests show thrombocytopenia with all other parameters within normal range.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Idiopathic thrombocytopaenic purpura (ITP)
Explanation:Understanding Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP) in Children
Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a condition where the immune system attacks the platelets, leading to a decrease in their count. This condition is more common in children and is usually acute, often following an infection or vaccination. The antibodies produced by the immune system target the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa or Ib-V-IX complex, causing a type II hypersensitivity reaction.
The symptoms of ITP in children include bruising, a petechial or purpuric rash, and less commonly, bleeding from the nose or gums. A full blood count is usually sufficient to diagnose ITP, and a bone marrow examination is only necessary if there are atypical features.
In most cases, ITP resolves on its own within six months, without any treatment. However, if the platelet count is very low or there is significant bleeding, treatment options such as oral or IV corticosteroids, IV immunoglobulins, or platelet transfusions may be necessary. It is also advisable to avoid activities that may result in trauma, such as team sports. Understanding ITP in children is crucial for prompt diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 6
Correct
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A 6-year-old child is brought to see you by his parents, who are concerned because he wets his bed every night. A urine culture is normal; urine is negative for glucose and protein.
What would be the most appropriate approach to managing this child's bedwetting?Your Answer: Reassurance to parents with general advice
Explanation:Understanding and Managing Nocturnal Enuresis in Children
Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is a common issue among children. While it can sometimes be caused by an underlying medical condition, such as a urinary tract infection or diabetes, in most cases it is simply a developmental issue that will resolve on its own over time.
Parents should have their child tested for any potential medical causes, but if none are found, they can take comfort in knowing that bedwetting is a normal part of childhood for many kids. Treatment is generally not recommended until a child is at least five years old, and even then, simple interventions like star charts and enuresis alarms can be effective in motivated children.
It’s also important to consider any potential psychological issues that may be contributing to the problem. Parents should ask their child about their school and home life, and try to speak to them without the presence of the parents if possible. Sometimes, stress or anxiety can be a factor in bedwetting.
If short-term relief is necessary, medications like desmopressin nasal spray can be prescribed for children over five years old. However, prophylactic antibiotics and oral imipramine are not recommended for this condition. Referral to a specialist for an ultrasound scan is also not necessary unless there is an indication of infection or structural abnormality.
Overall, parents should take comfort in knowing that bedwetting is a common issue that many children experience, and that there are effective interventions available to help manage it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 7
Correct
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A 4-week-old infant, born at term, presents to the Emergency Department with persistent jaundice since birth, pale stools and dark urine. The infant is currently being breastfed.
What is the most probable reason for this infant's jaundice?Your Answer: Biliary atresia
Explanation:Understanding the Causes of Jaundice in Infants
Jaundice in newborns that lasts for more than two weeks is considered pathological and requires medical attention. In this case, the infant is exhibiting signs of conjugated hyperbilirubinemia, which is characterized by jaundice with pale stools and dark urine. This is indicative of biliary atresia, a condition that affects the liver and bile ducts.
Cystic fibrosis is another condition that may present in infants with recurrent respiratory infections, but it is not associated with jaundice. Cholelithiasis, or gallstones, is a common cause of obstructive jaundice, but it is more prevalent in middle-aged individuals. Breastfeeding jaundice occurs due to suboptimal milk intake, but it does not cause conjugated hyperbilirubinemia.
Physiological jaundice is common in infants and typically lasts for 1-2 weeks. However, if jaundice persists for more than two weeks, it is considered pathological and requires medical attention. It is important to understand the various causes of jaundice in infants to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 8
Correct
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A 9-year-old boy has been experiencing progressive gait disturbance and falls. He was initially evaluated by a paediatric neurologist at the age of 5 years due to unsteady gait and toe walking. His gait unsteadiness began around the age of 4 years with frequent falls, and he had also developed hand tremors prior to this visit. Upon further examination, he was found to have pes cavus, mild scoliosis, and no cardiac murmur. What is the mode of inheritance for the underlying condition?
Your Answer: Autosomal recessive
Explanation:Friedreich’s ataxia is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner. This is the most common type of hereditary ataxia and typically presents with symptoms before the age of 25, including ataxia, cardiomyopathy, motor weakness, pes cavus foot deformity, and scoliosis. It should be noted that Friedreich’s ataxia is not inherited in an autosomal dominant or X-linked recessive manner, nor is it caused by mitochondrial dysfunction.
Autosomal Recessive Conditions
Autosomal recessive conditions are genetic disorders that occur when an individual inherits two copies of a mutated gene, one from each parent. These conditions are often referred to as ‘metabolic’ as they affect the body’s metabolic processes. However, there are notable exceptions, such as X-linked recessive conditions like Hunter’s and G6PD, and autosomal dominant conditions like hyperlipidemia type II and hypokalemic periodic paralysis.
Some ‘structural’ conditions, like ataxia telangiectasia and Friedreich’s ataxia, are also autosomal recessive. The following conditions are examples of autosomal recessive disorders: albinism, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, cystic fibrosis, cystinuria, familial Mediterranean fever, Fanconi anemia, glycogen storage disease, haemochromatosis, homocystinuria, lipid storage disease (Tay-Sach’s, Gaucher, Niemann-Pick), mucopolysaccharidoses (Hurler’s), PKU, sickle cell anemia, thalassemias, and Wilson’s disease.
It is worth noting that Gilbert’s syndrome is still a matter of debate, and many textbooks list it as autosomal dominant. Nonetheless, understanding the inheritance patterns of these conditions is crucial for genetic counseling and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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At what age is precocious puberty in males defined as the development of secondary sexual characteristics occurring before?
Your Answer: 11 years of age
Correct Answer: 9 years of age
Explanation:Understanding Precocious Puberty
Precocious puberty is a condition where secondary sexual characteristics develop earlier than expected, before the age of 8 in females and 9 in males. It is more common in females and can be classified into two types: gonadotrophin dependent and gonadotrophin independent. The former is caused by premature activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis, resulting in raised levels of FSH and LH. The latter is caused by excess sex hormones, with low levels of FSH and LH. In males, precocious puberty is uncommon and usually has an organic cause, such as gonadotrophin release from an intracranial lesion, gonadal tumour, or adrenal cause. In females, it is usually idiopathic or familial and follows the normal sequence of puberty. Organic causes are rare and associated with rapid onset, neurological symptoms and signs, and dissonance, such as in McCune Albright syndrome. Understanding precocious puberty is important for early detection and management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 10
Correct
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A 15-year-old boy presents to the Emergency Department with hypotension following a rugby injury. During the game, he was tackled from the side and experienced intense pain in his left lower rib cage. On examination, the patient has a pulse of 140 bpm and a blood pressure of 80/40 mmHg. There is visible bruising over the left flank and tenderness upon palpation. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Splenic rupture
Explanation:High Impact Injuries to the Left Flank
High impact injuries to the left flank can result in damage to the spleen or kidney, as well as the ribs and soft tissue. If the patient experiences fractured ribs and hypotension, it is important to suspect a spleen rupture. Fluid resuscitation can be used to determine if the patient responds positively, and a CT scan can be arranged to confirm the diagnosis. Based on the injury grade and physical parameters, a decision can be made to either manage the injury conservatively or operate.
Observation should be conducted in a High Dependency Unit (HDU) setting initially to ensure that any deterioration in haemodynamic parameters can be addressed promptly. CT scans are also useful in trauma cases to rule out other injuries, such as hollow visceral injuries that would require a laparotomy. Renal trauma typically does not cause hypotension unless other organs are also injured, and aortic dissection would require more force.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy is brought to the GP by his father due to a loud, harsh cough that has persisted for the past 2 weeks. The child has also been more lethargic than usual. Although he appears to be in good health, you observe 2 coughing fits during the consultation, which cause the child distress and difficulty breathing, resulting in a loud, harsh inspiratory noise between coughing fits. The patient has no known allergies or medical history, but his vaccination record is unclear since he moved to the UK from another country 3 years ago. The patient's temperature is 37.5ºC.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Prescribe azithromycin and review in 1 week
Correct Answer: Prescribe azithromycin and report to Public Health England
Explanation:Whooping cough must be reported to Public Health England as it is a notifiable disease. According to NICE guidelines, oral azithromycin can be used to treat the disease within the first 21 days of symptoms. If the patient presents later than this, antibiotic therapy is not necessary. Salbutamol nebulisers are not a suitable treatment option as antibiotics are required.
Whooping Cough: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management
Whooping cough, also known as pertussis, is a contagious disease caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis. It is commonly found in children, with around 1,000 cases reported annually in the UK. The disease is characterized by a persistent cough that can last up to 100 days, hence the name cough of 100 days.
Infants are particularly vulnerable to whooping cough, which is why routine immunization is recommended at 2, 3, 4 months, and 3-5 years. However, neither infection nor immunization provides lifelong protection, and adolescents and adults may still develop the disease.
Whooping cough has three phases: the catarrhal phase, the paroxysmal phase, and the convalescent phase. The catarrhal phase lasts around 1-2 weeks and presents symptoms similar to a viral upper respiratory tract infection. The paroxysmal phase is characterized by a severe cough that worsens at night and after feeding, and may be accompanied by vomiting and central cyanosis. The convalescent phase is when the cough subsides over weeks to months.
To diagnose whooping cough, a person must have an acute cough that has lasted for 14 days or more without another apparent cause, and have one or more of the following features: paroxysmal cough, inspiratory whoop, post-tussive vomiting, or undiagnosed apnoeic attacks in young infants. A nasal swab culture for Bordetella pertussis is used to confirm the diagnosis, although PCR and serology are increasingly used.
Infants under 6 months with suspected pertussis should be admitted, and in the UK, pertussis is a notifiable disease. An oral macrolide, such as clarithromycin, azithromycin, or erythromycin, is indicated if the onset of the cough is within the previous 21 days to eradicate the organism and reduce the spread. Household contacts should be offered antibiotic prophylaxis, although antibiotic therapy has not been shown to alter the course of the illness. School exclusion is recommended for 48 hours after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are given.
Complications of whooping cough include subconjunctival haemorrhage, pneumonia, bronchiectasis, and
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 9-month-old son to the general practitioner. She is concerned, as he has had an unusually high-pitched cry and has been drawing his legs up and vomiting. His last nappy revealed some bloody, slimy stools. She has recently started to wean him.
Which is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Colic
Correct Answer: Intussusception
Explanation:Pediatric Gastrointestinal Conditions: Symptoms and Differentiation
Intussusception: A pediatric emergency condition where a bowel segment invaginates into a neighboring part of the bowel, causing obstruction. Symptoms include vomiting, abdominal pain, passing blood and mucous per rectum, lethargy, and a palpable abdominal mass. Diagnosis is via ultrasonography, and treatment can be non-operative or operative depending on the severity.
Food Intolerance: Occurs following ingestion of an allergen and presents with diarrhea, vomiting, wheezing, pruritus, and rash. Typically seen in children at the age of weaning.
Colic: Excessive, high-pitched crying in infants, typically in the evenings. Can relate to a variety of causes, including gastro-oesophageal reflux, overfeeding, incomplete burping following feeds, and food allergy.
Pyloric Stenosis: Caused by hypertrophy of the pyloric muscle leading to gastric outlet obstruction. Presents in the first weeks of life with projectile non-bilious vomiting, a palpable mass in the abdomen, and visible peristalsis.
Cystic Fibrosis: An inherited condition associated with mutations in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator, affecting the transmembrane transport of chloride ions and leading to thick secretions in the lungs and bowel. Symptoms include meconium ileus, constipation, abdominal distension, bilious vomiting, diarrhea, steatorrhea, failure to thrive, and rectal prolapse. Identified by heel-prick screening at birth or around the age of 6-8 months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 7-month-old girl has been referred to you by the out of hours GP. Her parents report a 24-hour history of increased work of breathing, coryzal symptoms, lethargy, and reduced oral intake. Upon examination, you observe fine inspiratory crackles and subcostal recessions. She has a fever of 38.1ºC and her oxygen saturations are 92% in air.
What would be the most suitable next step to take?Your Answer: Admission for full septic screen
Correct Answer: Admit for observation and oxygen therapy
Explanation:If your child is experiencing any of the following symptoms, seek medical attention immediately:
– High fever (over 102°F or 39°C)
– Severe dehydration (signs include dry mouth, sunken eyes, and decreased urine output)
– Persistent severe respiratory distress, such as grunting, significant chest recession, or a respiratory rate exceeding 70 breaths per minute.It is important to ensure your child is drinking enough fluids to avoid dehydration.
Bronchiolitis is a condition where the bronchioles become inflamed, and it is most commonly caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). This virus is responsible for 75-80% of cases, with other causes including mycoplasma and adenoviruses. Bronchiolitis is most prevalent in infants under one year old, with 90% of cases occurring in those aged 1-9 months. The condition is more serious in premature babies, those with congenital heart disease or cystic fibrosis. Symptoms include coryzal symptoms, dry cough, increasing breathlessness, and wheezing. Hospital admission is often necessary due to feeding difficulties associated with increasing dyspnoea.
Immediate referral is recommended if the child has apnoea, looks seriously unwell, has severe respiratory distress, central cyanosis, or persistent oxygen saturation of less than 92% when breathing air. Clinicians should consider referral if the child has a respiratory rate of over 60 breaths/minute, difficulty with breastfeeding or inadequate oral fluid intake, or clinical dehydration. Immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions may show RSV, and management is largely supportive. Humidified oxygen is given via a head box if oxygen saturations are persistently low, and nasogastric feeding may be necessary if children cannot take enough fluid/feed by mouth. Suction may also be used for excessive upper airway secretions. NICE released guidelines on bronchiolitis in 2015 for more information.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 14
Correct
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A 3-year-old child presents with a large bruise on the thigh after a fall. His mother notes that he has always been prone to bruising. Tests reveal: haemoglobin (Hb) 112g/l, platelets 186 × 109/l, prothrombin time (PT) 10 s, activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) 70 s and normal bleeding time.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Haemophilia A
Explanation:Common Bleeding Disorders in Children
Haemophilia A, von Willebrand disease, vitamin K deficiency, childhood cirrhosis, and idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) are common bleeding disorders in children.
Haemophilia A is an X-linked recessive inherited bleeding disorder caused by a deficiency in coagulation factor VIII. Patients present with prolonged bleeding after minor trauma, haematoma formation, spontaneous bleeding into joints, soft tissue haemorrhage, and other symptoms. Management involves regular infusions of factor VIII.
Von Willebrand disease is an inherited bleeding disorder caused by deficiency in vWF. It presents with easy bruising, prolonged bleeding following minor trauma, heavy bleeding following an operation, and other symptoms. Treatment is with the administration of desmopressin, recombinant vWF or a combination of vWF and factor VIII.
Vitamin K deficiency can occur at any point during a person’s life, but it is most commonly encountered in infancy. Patients most commonly present with prolonged bleeding following minor trauma. This is corrected by the administration of vitamin K.
Childhood cirrhosis has multiple causes, depending on the age of the patient. In this case, there will be deranged liver function tests, as well as a prolonged PT that is not corrected despite administration of adequate vitamin K. This is an indicator of poor liver synthetic function.
Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a primary condition caused by a low number of platelets. It presents with bleeding, bruises, and petechiae.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl presents to your clinic with her parents for a follow-up appointment. She has been experiencing nocturnal enuresis for the past eight months. During her last visit four months ago, she was wetting the bed six to seven nights a week. You advised her parents to limit her fluid intake before bedtime, establish a toileting routine before bed, and implement a reward system for positive behavior. Despite following these recommendations, she continues to wet the bed six to seven nights a week. What would be the most appropriate next step in managing her nocturnal enuresis?
Your Answer: Desmopressin
Correct Answer: Enuresis alarm
Explanation:When general advice has not been effective, an enuresis alarm is typically the initial treatment option for nocturnal enuresis. However, there are exceptions to this, such as when the child and family find the alarm unacceptable or if the child is over 8 years old and needs rapid short-term reduction in enuresis. Additionally, it is important to note that enuresis alarms have a lower relapse rate compared to other treatments.
Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is when a child involuntarily urinates during the night. Most children achieve continence by the age of 3 or 4, so enuresis is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine in a child aged 5 or older without any underlying medical conditions. Enuresis can be primary, meaning the child has never achieved continence, or secondary, meaning the child has been dry for at least 6 months before.
When managing bedwetting, it’s important to look for any underlying causes or triggers, such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset UTIs. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Reward systems, like star charts, can also be helpful, but should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights.
The first-line treatment for bedwetting is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up to use the toilet. If short-term control is needed, such as for sleepovers, or if the alarm is ineffective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin may be prescribed. Overall, managing bedwetting involves identifying any underlying causes and implementing strategies to promote continence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old child was admitted with a high fever, cervical lymph node enlargement, conjunctival congestion, redness of lips and palms, and desquamation of fingertips. Upon examination, erythema of the oral cavity was observed. Blood tests showed a hemoglobin level of 110 g/l and a platelet count of 450,000. The symptoms resolved after two weeks, but during the third week, the child unexpectedly passed away. An autopsy revealed vasculitis of the coronary arteries and aneurysm formation. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Rheumatic fever
Correct Answer: Kawasaki’s disease
Explanation:Understanding Kawasaki’s Disease and Differential Diagnosis
Kawasaki disease, also known as mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome, is a multisystem disease that primarily affects children under the age of 5. It is characterized by fever, cervical adenitis, and changes in the skin and mucous membranes. While generally benign and self-limited, it can lead to coronary artery aneurysms in 25% of cases and has a case-fatality rate of 0.5-2.8%. Treatment with high-dose intravenous globulin and aspirin has been shown to be effective in reducing the prevalence of coronary artery abnormalities.
When considering a differential diagnosis, it is important to distinguish Kawasaki disease from other conditions with similar symptoms. Scarlet fever, rheumatic fever, diphtheria, and Marfan syndrome can all present with fever and cardiovascular involvement, but each has distinct clinical features and underlying pathophysiologic mechanisms. Careful evaluation and diagnosis are essential for appropriate treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 10 week old male infant is presented to the GP by his mother with concerns about an undescended testis on the right side since birth. The mother was advised to seek medical attention if the issue persisted after 6 to 8 weeks of age. Upon examination, the GP confirms the presence of a unilateral undescended testis on the right side, with a normal appearing penis. What would be the next step in management?
Your Answer: Review at 6 months of age
Correct Answer: Review at 3 months of age
Explanation:If the testicle remains undescended after 3 months, it is recommended to refer the child to a paediatric surgeon for review before they reach 6 months of age, as per the NICE guidelines for undescended testes.
Undescended Testis: Causes, Complications, and Management
Undescended testis is a condition that affects around 2-3% of male infants born at term, but it is more common in preterm babies. Bilateral undescended testes occur in about 25% of cases. This condition can lead to complications such as infertility, torsion, testicular cancer, and psychological issues.
To manage unilateral undescended testis, NICE CKS recommends considering referral from around 3 months of age, with the baby ideally seeing a urological surgeon before 6 months of age. Orchidopexy, a surgical procedure, is typically performed at around 1 year of age, although surgical practices may vary.
For bilateral undescended testes, it is crucial to have the child reviewed by a senior paediatrician within 24 hours as they may require urgent endocrine or genetic investigation. Proper management of undescended testis is essential to prevent complications and ensure the child’s overall health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 9-month-old baby is brought to the emergency room with a 4 day history of fever and a new onset rash on the arms, legs, and abdomen that started today. Despite the fever, the baby has been behaving normally and does not seem bothered by the rash. Upon closer examination, the rash appears red with small bumps that are merging together. None of the lesions have scabbed over. The rash is mostly on the limbs and there are no signs of scratching. The baby's temperature is now normal at 36.9ºC. Based on the likely diagnosis, what is the probable causative organism?
Your Answer: Varicella zoster virus
Correct Answer: Human herpes virus 6
Explanation:Human herpes virus 6 is the cause of Roseola infantum, a viral illness that is characterized by a fever lasting for 3 days followed by the appearance of a maculopapular rash on the 4th day. The fever can develop quickly and may lead to febrile convulsions. The rash typically starts on the trunk and limbs, unlike chickenpox which usually presents with a central rash. HHV6 is known to attack the nervous system, which can result in rare complications such as encephalitis and febrile fits after the fever has subsided. Glandular fever is caused by Epstein Barr virus, while genital herpes is caused by Human herpes virus 2. Bacterial meningitis, which is characterized by symptoms of meningism such as photophobia, stiff neck, and headache, along with a non-blanching rash seen in meningococcal septicaemia, is commonly caused by Neisseria meningitidis.
Understanding Roseola Infantum
Roseola infantum, also known as exanthem subitum or sixth disease, is a common illness that affects infants and is caused by the human herpes virus 6 (HHV6). This disease has an incubation period of 5-15 days and is typically seen in children aged 6 months to 2 years. The most common symptoms of roseola infantum include a high fever that lasts for a few days, followed by a maculopapular rash. Other symptoms may include Nagayama spots, which are papular enanthems on the uvula and soft palate, as well as cough and diarrhea.
In some cases, febrile convulsions may occur in around 10-15% of children with roseola infantum. While this can be concerning for parents, it is important to note that this is a common occurrence and typically resolves on its own. Additionally, HHV6 infection can lead to other possible consequences such as aseptic meningitis and hepatitis.
It is important to note that school exclusion is not necessary for children with roseola infantum. While this illness can be uncomfortable for infants, it is typically not serious and resolves on its own within a few days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 19
Correct
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A 5-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her father who is concerned about her recent limp. She had a cold recently, but is otherwise healthy and has not experienced any injuries. The child has met all developmental milestones and there were no complications during pregnancy or birth. What is the probable reason for her current condition?
Your Answer: Transient synovitis
Explanation:Transient synovitis, also known as irritable hip, is a common cause of hip pain in children aged 3-8 years. It typically occurs following a recent viral infection and presents with symptoms such as groin or hip pain, limping or refusal to weight bear, and occasionally a low-grade fever. However, a high fever may indicate other serious conditions such as septic arthritis, which requires urgent specialist assessment. To exclude such diagnoses, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend monitoring children in primary care with a presumptive diagnosis of transient synovitis, provided they are aged 3-9 years, well, afebrile, mobile but limping, and have had symptoms for less than 72 hours. Treatment for transient synovitis involves rest and analgesia, as the condition is self-limiting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 20
Correct
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A 3-month-old boy is presented to surgery with vomiting and poor feeding. The mother reports a strong odor in his urine, indicating a possible urinary tract infection. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Refer immediately to hospital
Explanation:Urinary tract infections (UTI) are more common in boys until 3 months of age, after which the incidence is substantially higher in girls. Presentation in childhood depends on age, with infants showing poor feeding, vomiting, and irritability, younger children showing abdominal pain, fever, and dysuria, and older children showing dysuria, frequency, and haematuria. NICE guidelines recommend checking urine samples in children with symptoms or signs suggestive of a UTI, unexplained fever of 38°C or higher, or an alternative site of infection but who remain unwell. Urine collection should be done through clean catch or urine collection pads, and invasive methods should only be used if non-invasive methods are not possible. Management includes referral to a paediatrician for infants less than 3 months old, admission to hospital for children aged more than 3 months old with an upper UTI, and oral antibiotics for 3-10 days for children aged more than 3 months old with a lower UTI. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not given after the first UTI but should be considered with recurrent UTIs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 21
Incorrect
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As a paediatrician, you are reviewing a 1-month-old who was delivered at 39+2 weeks vaginally and without any complications. The parents of the child have a concern that their child might have achondroplasia as the child's father has been diagnosed with this condition. Apart from measuring the child's length, what other physical characteristic should you look for to determine if the child has achondroplasia?
Your Answer: Microcephaly
Correct Answer: Trident hand deformity
Explanation:Identifying physical features of congenital conditions is crucial for exam purposes and diagnosis. One such feature of achondroplasia is trident hands, characterized by short, stubby fingers with a gap between the middle and ring fingers. Other physical features include short limbs (rhizomelia), lumbar lordosis, and midface hypoplasia. Fragile X syndrome is associated with low set ears, while Down’s syndrome is characterized by saddle-gap deformity and a single palmar crease. It is important to note that achondroplasia is characterized by macrocephaly with frontal bossing, not microcephaly.
Understanding Achondroplasia
Achondroplasia is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is caused by a mutation in the fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR-3) gene, which leads to abnormal cartilage development. This results in short stature, with affected individuals having short limbs (rhizomelia) and shortened fingers (brachydactyly). They also have a large head with frontal bossing and a narrow foramen magnum, midface hypoplasia with a flattened nasal bridge, ‘trident’ hands, and lumbar lordosis.
In most cases, achondroplasia occurs as a sporadic mutation, with advancing parental age at the time of conception being a risk factor. There is no specific therapy for achondroplasia, but some individuals may benefit from limb lengthening procedures. These procedures involve the application of Ilizarov frames and targeted bone fractures, with a clearly defined need and endpoint being essential for success.
Overall, understanding achondroplasia is important for individuals and families affected by this condition. While there is no cure, there are treatment options available that can improve quality of life for those living with achondroplasia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old girl with meningococcal septicaemia has a cardiac arrest on the ward. You are the first responder. After confirming the arrest and following the paediatric BLS protocol, what is the appropriate rate for chest compressions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 100-120 compressions per minute
Explanation:The Paediatric Basic Life Support guideline of the UK Resuscitation Council mandates that chest compressions for children of all ages should be administered at a rate of 100-120 per minute, with a depth that depresses the sternum by at least one-third of the chest’s depth. Individuals without paediatric resuscitation training are advised to use the adult chest compression to rescue breaths ratio of 30:2, while those caring for children and trained to do so should use a ratio of 15:2. It is important to note that the initial danger-response-airway-breathing-circulation sequence must still be followed.
Paediatric Basic Life Support Guidelines
Paediatric basic life support guidelines were updated in 2015 by the Resuscitation Council. Lay rescuers should use a compression:ventilation ratio of 30:2 for children under 1 year and between 1 year and puberty, a child is defined. If there are two or more rescuers, a ratio of 15:2 should be used.
The algorithm for paediatric basic life support starts with checking if the child is unresponsive and shouting for help. The airway should be opened, and breathing should be checked by looking, listening, and feeling for breaths. If the child is not breathing, five rescue breaths should be given, and signs of circulation should be checked.
For infants, the brachial or femoral pulse should be used, while children should use the femoral pulse. Chest compressions should be performed at a ratio of 15:2, with a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute for both infants and children. The depth of compressions should be at least one-third of the anterior-posterior dimension of the chest, which is approximately 4 cm for an infant and 5 cm for a child.
In children, the lower half of the sternum should be compressed, while in infants, a two-thumb encircling technique should be used for chest compressions. These guidelines are crucial for anyone who may need to perform basic life support on a child, and it is essential to follow them carefully to ensure the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old boy visits his pediatrician complaining of a dry cough that has been bothering him for the past three days. The child has been experiencing intense coughing spells that make him turn blue and vomit. He had previously suffered from a cold with fever, sore throat, and a runny nose. The doctor diagnoses him with pertussis and prescribes a course of clarithromycin.
What guidance should be provided regarding the child's return to school?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Exclusion from school for 48 hours
Explanation:If a child has whooping cough, they must stay away from school for 48 hours after starting antibiotics. This is because whooping cough is contagious, and it is important to prevent the spread of the disease. Additionally, during this time, the child should avoid contact with infants who have not been vaccinated.
The Health Protection Agency has provided guidance on when children should be excluded from school due to infectious conditions. Some conditions, such as conjunctivitis, fifth disease, roseola, infectious mononucleosis, head lice, threadworms, and hand, foot and mouth, do not require exclusion. Scarlet fever requires exclusion for 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, while whooping cough requires exclusion for 2 days after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are taken. Measles requires exclusion for 4 days from onset of rash, rubella for 5 days from onset of rash, and chickenpox until all lesions are crusted over. Mumps requires exclusion for 5 days from onset of swollen glands, while diarrhoea and vomiting require exclusion until symptoms have settled for 48 hours. Impetigo requires exclusion until lesions are crusted and healed, or for 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment, and scabies requires exclusion until treated. influenzae requires exclusion until the child has recovered. The official advice regarding school exclusion for chickenpox has varied, but the most recent guidance suggests that all lesions should be crusted over before children return to school.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl is brought into paediatric casualty with decreased level of consciousness. She has no past medical history. Her 7-year-old sister was recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Family history is also otherwise unremarkable. Urgent arterial blood gas analysis reveals a surprising finding of blood glucose level of 2.1 mmol/l. This is confirmed on urgent formal blood glucose testing. She is transferred to the hospital’s high dependency unit (HDU) for monitoring and treatment. Blood tests taken shortly after admission reveal elevated insulin and low C-peptide levels.
What is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Factitious hypoglycaemia
Explanation:Understanding Factitious Hypoglycaemia and Differential Diagnosis
Factitious hypoglycaemia is a condition where an individual deliberately induces hypoglycaemia by using insulin or oral hypoglycaemic agents. In contrast to endogenous insulin, synthetic insulin does not contain C-peptide as part of its formulation. Therefore, elevated insulin with an inappropriately low C-peptide level indicates exogenous insulin administration. This condition is often associated with psychological factors, and the individual may be seeking attention or sympathy.
Differential diagnosis includes type 1 diabetes mellitus, which presents with hyperglycaemia rather than hypoglycaemia. Familial insulinoma syndrome is a rare condition that leads to elevated C-peptide levels. Maturity onset diabetes of the young is another subset of diabetes that presents with hyperglycaemia. Insulinoma, on the other hand, presents with hypoglycaemia, elevated insulin, and elevated C-peptide levels.
It is crucial to differentiate factitious hypoglycaemia from other conditions to provide appropriate treatment and support for the individual. A thorough medical evaluation and psychological assessment may be necessary to determine the underlying cause of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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You are observing a doctor on the neonatal ward who is asked to assess a 3-hour-old baby delivered at 40+5 weeks by ventouse. The mother is concerned about the appearance of her baby's head. Upon examination, you notice a soft, puffy swelling at the back of the head with some light bruising from the ventouse cup. The swelling seems to extend across the suture lines. However, the baby appears to be in good health otherwise, and the neonatal hearing screen conducted earlier that morning was normal. What could be the probable cause of this presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Caput succedaneum
Explanation:Caput succedaneum is a puffy swelling that occurs over the presenting part during prolonged ventouse delivery and resolves spontaneously. It differs from bulging fontanelle, which is caused by increased intracranial pressure, and cephalohaematoma, which is a swelling caused by fluid collecting between the periosteum and skull. Hydrocephalus is a condition where there is an accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid around the brain, and subaponeurotic haemorrhage is a rare condition caused by rupturing of emissary veins.
Understanding Caput Succedaneum
Caput succedaneum is a condition that refers to the swelling of the scalp at the top of the head, usually at the vertex. This swelling is caused by the mechanical trauma that occurs during delivery, particularly in prolonged deliveries or those that involve the use of vacuum delivery. The condition is characterized by soft, puffy swelling due to localized edema that crosses suture lines.
Compared to cephalohaematoma, which is a collection of blood under the scalp, caput succedaneum is caused by edema. While cephalohaematoma is limited to a specific area and does not cross suture lines, caput succedaneum can affect a larger area and cross suture lines. Fortunately, no treatment is needed for caput succedaneum, as the swelling usually resolves on its own within a few days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man with cystic fibrosis is scheduled for a follow-up appointment with his respiratory specialist. He has been experiencing more frequent respiratory infections and is seeking advice on how to minimize his risk of contracting further infections.
What is the most suitable answer?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Minimise contact with other cystic fibrosis patients
Explanation:To reduce the risk of getting infections, the 23-year-old woman with cystic fibrosis should minimize contact with other patients with the same condition. It is not recommended to introduce a low-calorie diet, but rather to have a high-calorie diet. Exercise and chest physiotherapy are also recommended. While a salbutamol inhaler can provide relief for breathlessness, it will not reduce the risk of infections. Enzyme supplements are useful in treating cystic fibrosis, but they do not reduce the risk of infection.
Managing Cystic Fibrosis: A Multidisciplinary Approach
Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a chronic condition that requires a multidisciplinary approach to management. Regular chest physiotherapy and postural drainage, as well as deep breathing exercises, are essential to maintain lung function and prevent complications. Parents are usually taught how to perform these techniques. A high-calorie diet, including high-fat intake, is recommended to meet the increased energy needs of patients with CF. Vitamin supplementation and pancreatic enzyme supplements taken with meals are also important.
Patients with CF should try to minimize contact with each other to prevent cross-infection with Burkholderia cepacia complex and Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Chronic infection with Burkholderia cepacia is an important CF-specific contraindication to lung transplantation. In cases where lung transplantation is necessary, careful consideration is required to ensure the best possible outcome.
Lumacaftor/Ivacaftor (Orkambi) is a medication used to treat cystic fibrosis patients who are homozygous for the delta F508 mutation. Lumacaftor increases the number of CFTR proteins that are transported to the cell surface, while ivacaftor is a potentiator of CFTR that is already at the cell surface. This increases the probability that the defective channel will be open and allow chloride ions to pass through the channel pore.
It is important to note that the standard recommendation for CF patients has changed from high-calorie, low-fat diets to high-calorie diets to reduce the amount of steatorrhea. With a multidisciplinary approach to management, patients with CF can lead fulfilling lives and manage their condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old boy comes to his pediatrician with a complaint of daily nosebleeds for the past week. During the examination, the doctor notices petechiae and bruises on the child's legs. Apart from these symptoms, the child appears to be healthy and does not report any other issues. Blood tests reveal low platelet count, but no other abnormalities are detected. The child's symptoms disappear entirely after four months. What is the likely precursor to these symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Glandular fever
Explanation:ITP, a condition characterized by low platelet count and symptoms such as epistaxis and unexplained bruising/petechiae, may be preceded by a viral infection that is self-limiting and can resolve within a year. The correct answer to the question is glandular fever, as constipation, epileptic fits, asthma attacks, and stress have not been linked to triggering ITP.
Understanding Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP) in Children
Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a condition where the immune system attacks the platelets, leading to a decrease in their count. This condition is more common in children and is usually acute, often following an infection or vaccination. The antibodies produced by the immune system target the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa or Ib-V-IX complex, causing a type II hypersensitivity reaction.
The symptoms of ITP in children include bruising, a petechial or purpuric rash, and less commonly, bleeding from the nose or gums. A full blood count is usually sufficient to diagnose ITP, and a bone marrow examination is only necessary if there are atypical features.
In most cases, ITP resolves on its own within six months, without any treatment. However, if the platelet count is very low or there is significant bleeding, treatment options such as oral or IV corticosteroids, IV immunoglobulins, or platelet transfusions may be necessary. It is also advisable to avoid activities that may result in trauma, such as team sports. Understanding ITP in children is crucial for prompt diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 9-month-old baby has become unresponsive in the waiting area of the pediatrician's office for an unknown cause. Basic life support for infants is started, and chest compressions are administered. What is the appropriate technique for performing chest compressions in this scenario?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Two-thumb encircling technique
Explanation:For infants aged younger than one, the recommended technique for chest compression during paediatric BLS is the two-thumb encircling technique. Using one hand to compress the lower half of the sternum or two hands to compress the upper half of the sternum are incorrect methods. Additionally, using two hands to compress the lower half of the sternum or the one-thumb encircling technique are not recognised techniques for providing chest compressions in any circumstance.
Paediatric Basic Life Support Guidelines
Paediatric basic life support guidelines were updated in 2015 by the Resuscitation Council. Lay rescuers should use a compression:ventilation ratio of 30:2 for children under 1 year and between 1 year and puberty, a child is defined. If there are two or more rescuers, a ratio of 15:2 should be used.
The algorithm for paediatric basic life support starts with checking if the child is unresponsive and shouting for help. The airway should be opened, and breathing should be checked by looking, listening, and feeling for breaths. If the child is not breathing, five rescue breaths should be given, and signs of circulation should be checked.
For infants, the brachial or femoral pulse should be used, while children should use the femoral pulse. Chest compressions should be performed at a ratio of 15:2, with a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute for both infants and children. The depth of compressions should be at least one-third of the anterior-posterior dimension of the chest, which is approximately 4 cm for an infant and 5 cm for a child.
In children, the lower half of the sternum should be compressed, while in infants, a two-thumb encircling technique should be used for chest compressions. These guidelines are crucial for anyone who may need to perform basic life support on a child, and it is essential to follow them carefully to ensure the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 4-day-old male infant is presenting with progressive abdominal distension. He has not had a bowel movement since birth. Digital rectal examination results in the expulsion of explosive feces. No additional information is obtained from abdominal examination or blood tests.
What is the conclusive measure for diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Suction-assisted full-thickness rectal biopsies
Explanation:Diagnostic Procedures for Hirschsprung’s Disease
Hirschsprung’s disease is a rare condition that causes functional intestinal obstruction due to the absence of ganglion cells in the distal colon. Diagnosis of this condition requires specific diagnostic procedures. One such procedure is suction-assisted full-thickness rectal biopsies, which demonstrate the lack of ganglion cells in Auerbach’s plexus. Other diagnostic procedures, such as contrast-enhanced CT scans, ultrasound of the hernial orifices, upper GI fluoroscopy studies, and sigmoidoscopy with rectal mucosal biopsies, are not as effective in diagnosing Hirschsprung’s disease. It is important to accurately diagnose this condition to ensure appropriate treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Parents bring their infant to see you because their child is not growing normally. There is no family history of note. On examination, he is noted to have a large head relative to the limbs. The limbs are relatively shortened, compared to the trunk.
What is the molecular basis for this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Activation of the fibroblast growth factor 3 (FGF3) receptor
Explanation:There are several genetic mutations that can cause developmental abnormalities and disorders. One such mutation is the activation of the fibroblast growth factor 3 (FGF3) receptor, which leads to achondroplasia and stunted bone growth. Another mutation affects the fibrillin-1 gene, causing Marfan’s syndrome and resulting in tall stature, joint hypermobility, and cardiac abnormalities. Mutations in collagen genes can lead to disorders like osteogenesis imperfecta, Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, and Alport disease. Trisomy 18, or Edwards’ syndrome, is caused by an extra copy of chromosome 18 and results in severe developmental abnormalities and organ system dysfunction. Trisomy 21, or Down syndrome, is caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21 and leads to characteristic physical features such as dysplastic ears and a high arched palate, as well as intellectual disability.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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