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  • Question 1 - What is the accurate statement about the connection between IUDs and PID? ...

    Correct

    • What is the accurate statement about the connection between IUDs and PID?

      Your Answer: Increased risk in first 20 days then returns to normal

      Explanation:

      New intrauterine contraceptive devices include the Jaydess® IUS and Kyleena® IUS. The Jaydess® IUS is licensed for 3 years and has a smaller frame, narrower inserter tube, and less levonorgestrel than the Mirena® coil. The Kyleena® IUS has 19.5mg LNG, is smaller than the Mirena®, and is licensed for 5 years. Both result in lower serum levels of LNG, but the rate of amenorrhoea is less with Kyleena® compared to Mirena®.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      141.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 15-year-old boy presents with a week-long history of fever, malaise, sore throat,...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy presents with a week-long history of fever, malaise, sore throat, and swollen glands. During the examination, you observe that he is pale, has a heart rate of 110 beats/minute, and a temperature of 38ºC. You notice redness and inflammation in his throat, with bilateral tonsillar enlargement, tender palpable cervical lymphadenopathy, and no exudate. You suspect glandular fever and order a Monospot test and full blood count. What results in the full blood count would indicate the presence of glandular fever?

      Your Answer: Polycythaemia

      Correct Answer: Lymphocytosis

      Explanation:

      Elevated levels of eosinophils or neutrophils can indicate different conditions. Eosinophilia, which is an increase in eosinophils, can be a sign of parasitic infection, an allergic reaction, or a reaction to certain medications. On the other hand, neutrophilia, which is an increase in neutrophils, can indicate acute inflammation or a bacterial infection.

      Understanding Infectious Mononucleosis

      Infectious mononucleosis, also known as glandular fever, is a viral infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) in 90% of cases. It is most commonly seen in adolescents and young adults. The classic symptoms of sore throat, pyrexia, and lymphadenopathy are present in around 98% of patients. Other symptoms include malaise, anorexia, headache, palatal petechiae, splenomegaly, hepatitis, lymphocytosis, haemolytic anaemia, and a rash. The symptoms typically resolve after 2-4 weeks.

      The diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis is confirmed through a heterophil antibody test (Monospot test) in the second week of the illness. Management is supportive and includes rest, drinking plenty of fluids, avoiding alcohol, and taking simple analgesia for any aches or pains. It is recommended to avoid playing contact sports for 4 weeks after having glandular fever to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.

      Interestingly, there is a correlation between EBV and socioeconomic groups. Lower socioeconomic groups have high rates of EBV seropositivity, having frequently acquired EBV in early childhood when the primary infection is often subclinical. However, higher socioeconomic groups show a higher incidence of infectious mononucleosis, as acquiring EBV in adolescence or early adulthood results in symptomatic disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      75.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - When investigating the impact of patients' attitudes, beliefs, and knowledge of health literature...

    Incorrect

    • When investigating the impact of patients' attitudes, beliefs, and knowledge of health literature on the management of chronic mechanical low back pain, researchers typically establish inclusion and exclusion criteria for their patient sample. Which of the following options is most likely to be an exclusion criterion?

      Your Answer: Ability to communicate in English

      Correct Answer: Leg pain and back pain

      Explanation:

      Criteria for Selecting Participants in a Study on Mechanical Low Back Pain

      The study aims to investigate attitudes and beliefs related to mechanical low back pain. To ensure the validity of the results, the researchers have established specific criteria for selecting participants. These criteria include a diagnosis of mechanical low back pain, the ability to communicate in English, age between 20 and 50 years, and being off work for three months or more due to low back pain.

      Mechanical low back pain is defined as pain that cannot be attributed to any particular pathology. However, patients with significant leg pain are more likely to have nerve root compression, which is commonly caused by intervertebral disc protrusion. Therefore, patients with leg pain are excluded from the study.

      The ability to communicate in English is important as the study involves interviewing participants. Excluding participants based on their language proficiency would be illogical.

      Restricting the age range to between 20 and 50 years avoids ages where other pathologies are more likely to occur. Patients who are younger than 20 or older than 50 are more likely to have alternative causes of back pain.

      Finally, the researchers require participants to have been off work for three months or more due to low back pain. This ensures that the participants are disabled by their back pain and satisfies the definition of chronic back pain.

      Overall, these criteria aim to select participants who are most likely to provide valuable insights into attitudes and beliefs related to mechanical low back pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      114.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You are examining a 48-year-old female patient with breast cancer that is positive...

    Incorrect

    • You are examining a 48-year-old female patient with breast cancer that is positive for oestrogen receptors. The patient has been prescribed a daily dose of 20 mg of tamoxifen. What is the most frequent adverse effect of tamoxifen?

      Your Answer: Tumour flare

      Correct Answer: Headache

      Explanation:

      Tamoxifen Side Effects According to BNF

      The British National Formulary (BNF) is often used to set questions for the AKT, and it lists the frequency of side effects for medications. Tamoxifen, for example, has common or very common side effects such as headaches, while all the other options are rare or very rare. Patients taking tamoxifen should be informed about the increased risk of thromboembolism and advised to watch for symptoms of DVT and PE. Additionally, patients should be warned about the increased risk of endometrial cancer and instructed to report any relevant symptoms. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these potential side effects and counsel patients accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      62
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Sarah is a 35-year-old woman who presented to her GP with abdominal pain....

    Correct

    • Sarah is a 35-year-old woman who presented to her GP with abdominal pain. The pain was burning in nature and was localised to her epigastric area. A stool test for Helicobacter pylori was done, which came back as positive. Accordingly, she was treated with eradication therapy for one week. Despite the treatment, her symptoms have continued. She would like to be tested to check the bacteria has been eradicated. She is not keen on being referred for an endoscopy.

      Which of the following investigations should she be referred for?

      Your Answer: Urea breath test

      Explanation:

      Tests for Helicobacter pylori

      There are several tests available to diagnose Helicobacter pylori infection. One of the most common tests is the urea breath test, where patients consume a drink containing carbon isotope 13 enriched urea. The urea is broken down by H. pylori urease, and after 30 minutes, the patient exhales into a glass tube. Mass spectrometry analysis calculates the amount of 13C CO2, which determines the presence of H. pylori. However, this test should not be performed within four weeks of treatment with an antibacterial or within two weeks of an antisecretory drug.

      Another test is the rapid urease test, also known as the CLO test. This test involves mixing a biopsy sample with urea and pH indicator, and a color change indicates H. pylori urease activity. Serum antibody tests remain positive even after eradication, and the sensitivity and specificity are 85% and 80%, respectively. Culture of gastric biopsy provides information on antibiotic sensitivity, with a sensitivity of 70% and specificity of 100%. Gastric biopsy with histological evaluation alone has a sensitivity and specificity of 95-99%. Lastly, the stool antigen test has a sensitivity of 90% and specificity of 95%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      143.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 29-year-old woman visits her doctor to discuss her 2-year-old daughter, who has...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman visits her doctor to discuss her 2-year-old daughter, who has shown signs of developmental delay. She had delayed speech development, was a late walker, and is behind her peers in many areas.
      The mother has been taking regular medication for bipolar disorder for the past seven years, which she has been told may have caused her daughter's issues. Currently, her mental health is stable, and she has no other diagnosed health conditions.
      Which medication is the most likely culprit?

      Your Answer: Valproic acid

      Explanation:

      Teratogenic Risks of Common Medications During Pregnancy

      Valproic acid, commonly used as a mood stabilizer in bipolar disorder, is highly teratogenic with a 30-40% chance of neurodevelopmental problems and 10% risk of congenital malformations in newborns if taken during pregnancy. Olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic, carries a risk of neonatal tremor and hypertonia if taken during the third trimester, but no known neurodevelopmental risks. Prochlorperazine, used for nausea and vomiting, may cause extrapyramidal side effects or withdrawal in newborns during the third trimester, but no neurodevelopmental issues are listed. Procyclidine, an anticholinergic medication, has no specific teratogenic warnings. Sertraline, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor for anxiety and depression, has a small risk of congenital heart defect but no neurodevelopmental issues. It is important for healthcare providers to consider these risks and provide appropriate counseling and monitoring for pregnant patients taking these medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
      94.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You conduct a home visit for an 82-year-old woman who has experienced a...

    Incorrect

    • You conduct a home visit for an 82-year-old woman who has experienced a few falls in recent months. During your risk assessment for future falls, you observe that she has limited mobility. Despite using her walking stick, she struggles to complete the TUG (Timed Up and Go test) and requires 8 steps to turn around 180 degrees. What other factor is the strongest predictor of future falls in the community?

      Your Answer: Uncontrolled hypertension

      Correct Answer: Urinary incontinence

      Explanation:

      Falls in the Elderly: Causes, Risk Factors, and Prevention

      As people age, they become more prone to falls, which can result in injuries and affect their confidence and independence. In fact, around one-third of elderly individuals living in the community experience falls every year. Gait abnormalities are one of the primary causes of falls, which can be due to medical problems affecting the neurological and musculoskeletal systems, as well as the processing of senses such as sight, sound, and sensation. Other risk factors for falling include lower limb muscle weakness, vision problems, balance/gait disturbances, polypharmacy, incontinence, fear of falling, depression, postural hypotension, arthritis in lower limbs, psychoactive drugs, and cognitive impairment.

      To prevent falls, it is crucial to limit these risk factors where possible and conduct a falls risk assessment for all patients, especially those in hospitals or homes. The assessment should include a thorough history of the patient’s falls, systems review, past medical history, and social history. Medication reviews are also essential to reduce the chances of falling again, particularly for patients on more than four drugs. Medications that cause postural hypotension and those associated with falls due to other mechanisms should be stopped or swapped.

      When examining a patient who has fallen, a full A to E approach and assessment of all systems are necessary to rule out the cause. Investigations to consider include bedside tests, bloods, and imaging. NICE CKS recommendations suggest identifying all individuals who have fallen in the last 12 months and assessing their risk factors. For those at risk, completing the ‘Turn 180° test’ or the ‘Timed up and Go test’ and offering a multidisciplinary assessment by a qualified clinician are recommended. Individuals who fall but do not meet these criteria should be reviewed annually and given written information on falls.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      166.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 65-year-old man with a history of hypertension and dyslipidaemia visits the clinic....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a history of hypertension and dyslipidaemia visits the clinic. His wife is worried about his increasing forgetfulness. He frequently loses things around the house and struggles to find his way back home when he goes to the shops alone. What characteristic would strongly suggest vascular dementia?

      Your Answer: Relative preservation of short term memory but with aggressive tendencies

      Correct Answer: Stepwise deterioration in symptoms with a clearly measurable difference between steps and no reversal

      Explanation:

      Understanding Vascular Dementia

      Vascular dementia is a type of cognitive decline that includes multi-infarct dementia and other forms of intellectual deterioration in individuals at high risk of atherosclerosis. Unlike Alzheimer’s, it is characterized by a stepwise progression, although it may also present as a steadily progressive dementia. A history of risk factors such as transient ischemic attacks (TIAs), stroke, hypertension, smoking, and hypercholesterolemia can raise suspicion of vascular dementia.

      Aggression without significant short-term memory loss is more commonly associated with frontal lobe dementia, while Parkinsonian features are typical of Lewy body dementia. Understanding the different types of dementia and their associated symptoms can help individuals and their loved ones better manage the condition and seek appropriate medical care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      154.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old man presents to the asthma clinic with a cough and wheeze.

    Which...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presents to the asthma clinic with a cough and wheeze.

      Which of the following features would suggest that further investigation or specialist referral is necessary?

      Your Answer: Unilateral wheeze

      Explanation:

      Unilateral Wheeze and Poor Asthma Control

      All the symptoms of asthma are present, but a peak flow of less than 300 indicates poor control. However, a unilateral wheeze may indicate a foreign body or tumor, especially in children. Therefore, further investigation is necessary to determine the cause of the wheeze.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      61.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - You see a 62-year-old man with severe lower back pain on a home...

    Correct

    • You see a 62-year-old man with severe lower back pain on a home visit. He has had lumbar back pain on and off for 3 years but it got much worse yesterday when he bent over. His back is in severe spasm and he has taken to his bed, he was unable to get to the practice today in the car due to the pain. He has no bladder or bowel symptoms and no symptoms in his legs. He is taking regular co-codamol and ibuprofen.

      What statement below regarding this patient is true?

      Your Answer: A short course of benzodiazepine can be used to relieve the muscle spasms

      Explanation:

      For patients experiencing muscle spasms and back pain, a benzodiazepine like diazepam may be prescribed for a brief period. Additionally, self-help measures such as using warm compresses (with proper skin protection) can be helpful. NSAIDs are the first line of pain relief. It is not recommended to remain in bed for an extended period, as gradually resuming normal activities and movements should not cause harm, even if some pain is present. It is not necessary for the patient to be completely pain-free before returning to work or regular activities, and adjustments can be made to facilitate an early return to work, which may be arranged through an Occupational Health department if available.

      Management of Lower Back Pain: NICE Guidelines

      Lower back pain is a common condition that affects many people. In 2016, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on the management of lower back pain. These guidelines apply to patients with nonspecific lower back pain, which means it is not caused by malignancy, infection, trauma, or other specific conditions.

      According to the updated guidelines, NSAIDs are now recommended as the first-line treatment for back pain. Paracetamol monotherapy is relatively ineffective for back pain, so NSAIDs are a better option. Proton pump inhibitors should be co-prescribed for patients over the age of 45 years who are given NSAIDs.

      Lumbar spine x-ray should not be offered as an investigation for nonspecific back pain. MRI should only be offered to patients with nonspecific back pain if the result is likely to change management, or if malignancy, infection, fracture, cauda equina, or ankylosing spondylitis is suspected. MRI is the most useful imaging modality as it can see neurological and soft tissue structures.

      Patients with low back pain should be encouraged to self-manage and stay physically active through exercise. A group exercise program within the NHS is recommended for people with back pain. Manual therapy, such as spinal manipulation, mobilization, or soft tissue techniques like massage, can be considered as part of a treatment package that includes exercise and psychological therapy. Radiofrequency denervation and epidural injections of local anesthetic and steroid can also be used for acute and severe sciatica.

      In summary, the updated NICE guidelines recommend NSAIDs as the first-line treatment for nonspecific back pain. Patients should be encouraged to self-manage and stay physically active through exercise. MRI is the most useful imaging modality for investigating nonspecific back pain. Other treatments, such as manual therapy, radiofrequency denervation, and epidural injections, can be considered as part of a treatment package that includes exercise and psychological therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      109.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 55-year-old man visits his GP for a check-up and reveals that he...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man visits his GP for a check-up and reveals that he consumes over 60 units of alcohol per week. The GP conducts an assessment to ascertain if the patient has alcohol dependence syndrome.
      If the diagnosis is accurate, what is the most probable indication?
      Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer: Withdrawal symptoms

      Explanation:

      Understanding Alcohol Dependence Syndrome: Symptoms and Behaviors

      Alcohol dependence syndrome is a serious condition that can have a significant impact on an individual’s life. Withdrawal symptoms are a common occurrence when someone tries to stop drinking, including feeling sick, trembling, sweating, and craving for alcohol. In some cases, convulsions and delirium tremens may occur. It is not uncommon for an individual to find it difficult to stop drinking due to these symptoms.

      Alcohol dependence syndrome can also have a negative impact on an individual’s family and career. The individual may find it difficult to function in both roles due to exhaustion and decreased sleep quality. Additionally, tolerance to alcohol tends to increase rather than decrease, requiring larger quantities to achieve the same effect.

      Reinstatement after a period of abstinence, commonly referred to as falling off the wagon, is a significant and common problem in addictive behavior. However, preferential drinking of spirits over beer is not necessarily an indication of alcohol dependence syndrome. It is important to understand the symptoms and behaviors associated with alcohol dependence syndrome to seek appropriate treatment and support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      138.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old man comes in for his regular asthma check-up. He is currently...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man comes in for his regular asthma check-up. He is currently taking salbutamol and formoterol-beclomethasone (Fostair) for his asthma, but he informs you that he is not experiencing any relief from either medication. He was diagnosed with asthma through spirometry testing recently. He claims to be using the inhalers as prescribed but has some doubts about how to use them correctly. Both of his inhalers are pressurised metered-dose inhalers.

      What is the most suitable advice to give to this patient?

      Your Answer: After inhaling a dose of the medication, he should ideally hold his breath for 10 seconds

      Explanation:

      To ensure effective use of an inhaler, it is important to follow proper technique. Asthma UK provides helpful guidance on inhaler usage for different types of inhalers.

      For a pressurised metered dose inhaler, it is advised to hold your breath for 10 seconds after inhaling the medication. This allows sufficient time for the medication to reach the airways, rather than being exhaled prematurely.

      To use the inhaler, breathe in slowly and steadily while pressing down on the canister in one smooth motion. If a second dose is needed, wait for about 30 seconds before repeating to avoid any interference with the delivery of the medication.

      Proper Inhaler Technique for Metered-Dose Inhalers

      Metered-dose inhalers are commonly used to treat respiratory conditions such as asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). However, it is important to use them correctly to ensure that the medication is delivered effectively to the lungs. Here is a step-by-step guide to proper inhaler technique:

      1. Remove the cap and shake the inhaler.

      2. Breathe out gently.

      3. Place the mouthpiece in your mouth and begin to breathe in slowly and deeply.

      4. As you start to inhale, press down on the canister to release the medication. Continue to inhale steadily and deeply.

      5. Hold your breath for 10 seconds, or as long as is comfortable.

      6. If a second dose is needed, wait approximately 30 seconds before repeating steps 1-5.

      It is important to note that inhalers should only be used for the number of doses specified on the label. Once the inhaler is empty, a new one should be started. By following these steps, patients can ensure that they are using their inhaler correctly and receiving the full benefits of their medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      124.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 56-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 4-month history of...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 4-month history of shortness of breath on exertion. Recently, he has also started waking at night with shortness of breath, which is relieved by sitting up in bed. On examination, crepitations are heard on auscultation of both lung bases and mild ankle oedema. There is no significant past medical history.
      What is the most appropriate next step according to current National Institute for Health and Care Excellence guidance?

      Your Answer: Test for B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Investigations and Treatment for Suspected Heart Failure

      Suspected cases of heart failure require appropriate investigations and treatment. The recommended first-line investigation is B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) testing, which is released into the blood when the myocardium is stressed. If the BNP level is abnormal, the patient should be referred for specialist assessment and echocardiography. Treatment with angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors is indicated for patients suffering from heart failure with reduced ejection fraction, but this diagnosis should be confirmed before starting treatment. Referral for echocardiography should be guided by the BNP level, and spirometry is not the most appropriate investigation for patients with classical symptoms of congestive cardiac failure. If treatment is necessary, a loop diuretic such as furosemide is usually started.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      77.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 67-year-old woman presents with pain in her lower back and pelvis that...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman presents with pain in her lower back and pelvis that is worse at night and affecting her mobility. Her blood tests reveal a haemoglobin level of 129 g/L (115-165), white cell count of 9.7 ×109/L (4-11), platelets of 220 ×109/L (150-400), MCV of 91.2 fL (76-96), bilirubin of 14 μmol/L (3-17), alanine aminotransferase of 38 U/L (3-48), alkaline phosphatase of 1134 (20-140), gamma glutamyl transferase of 42 (3-60), corrected calcium of 2.38 mmol/L (2.2-2.6), and erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 18 mm/1st hr (<20). What is the likely underlying diagnosis based on these initial blood test results?

      Your Answer: Paget's disease

      Correct Answer: Gallstones

      Explanation:

      Understanding Paget’s Disease

      Paget’s disease is a condition that affects bone metabolism, leading to abnormal bone remodelling. This results in bone enlargement, deformity, pain, and weakness. The incidence of this disease increases with age and is often detected incidentally in asymptomatic patients through blood tests that show a significantly raised alkaline phosphatase level, with normal calcium and phosphate levels. However, those who are symptomatic often report pain as an initial symptom.

      As the disease progresses, it can cause bony deformities, pathological fractures, sensorineural deafness, and high output cardiac failure. Treatment for Paget’s disease involves the use of bisphosphonates.

      Other conditions that may cause an isolated raised serum alkaline phosphatase level include myeloma, osteoporosis, and primary hyperparathyroidism. However, these conditions have different clinical presentations and laboratory findings. Therefore, it is important to consider the patient’s symptoms and other laboratory results when making a diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      159
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 35-year-old female patient comes to you with circular patches of non-scarring hair...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female patient comes to you with circular patches of non-scarring hair loss on her scalp that have developed in the last 3 months. You diagnose her with alopecia areata. Although you suggest a watch-and-wait approach, she is distressed by the condition and wishes to try treatment. What management options could you initiate in Primary Care?

      Your Answer: Topical dithranol

      Correct Answer: Topical steroid

      Explanation:

      Patients with hair loss may experience natural recovery within a year, but those who do not see regrowth or have more than 50% hair loss may require further treatment.

      Understanding Alopecia Areata

      Alopecia areata is a condition that is believed to be caused by an autoimmune response, resulting in localized hair loss that is well-defined and demarcated. This condition is characterized by the presence of small, broken hairs that resemble exclamation marks at the edge of the hair loss. While hair regrowth occurs in about 50% of patients within a year, it eventually occurs in 80-90% of patients. In many cases, a careful explanation of the condition is sufficient for patients. However, there are several treatment options available, including topical or intralesional corticosteroids, topical minoxidil, phototherapy, dithranol, contact immunotherapy, and wigs. It is important to understand the causes and treatment options for alopecia areata to effectively manage this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      96.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following would be the best reason for randomly assigning elderly...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following would be the best reason for randomly assigning elderly subjects to the various arms of the clinical trial assessing whether a new treatment is more effective than a placebo in reducing cholesterol levels?

      Your Answer: Subjects are representative of the general population

      Correct Answer: Subjects in each arm have comparable baseline characteristics

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Randomisation in Clinical Trials

      Randomisation is a crucial aspect of clinical trials, particularly in randomised controlled trials (RCTs). In an RCT, subjects are randomly assigned to different treatments being investigated. This helps to minimise allocation bias between groups, ensuring that subjects in each arm have comparable baseline characteristics.

      Double blinding is another important aspect of clinical trials, which means that observers are unaware of which intervention each subject is receiving. Blinding can be achieved without randomisation, but randomisation doesn’t influence blinding.

      To ensure that subjects are representative of the general population, random sampling from a population could be used. However, randomisation occurs after subjects are selected.

      Finally, randomisation doesn’t affect whether or not subjects adhere to an intervention. It is important to evenly allocate subjects with characteristics that may limit adherence between groups. Overall, randomisation is a critical component of clinical trials, helping to ensure unbiased and reliable results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      62.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 22-year-old woman has reported experiencing occasional post-coital and intermenstrual bleeding for approximately...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman has reported experiencing occasional post-coital and intermenstrual bleeding for approximately 2 months. She has no complaints of dyspareunia or pelvic discomfort. During a speculum examination, no abnormalities were detected. She consents to being tested for Chlamydia and Gonorrhoea.

      Which test would be the most suitable to conduct?

      Your Answer: An endocervical swab

      Correct Answer: A vulvovaginal swab

      Explanation:

      For women, the appropriate location to take swabs for chlamydia and gonorrhoea is the vulvo-vaginal area, specifically the introitus.

      Chlamydia is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the UK caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is often asymptomatic but can cause cervicitis and dysuria in women and urethral discharge and dysuria in men. Complications include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility. Testing is done through nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) on urine or swab samples. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years. Doxycycline is the first-line treatment, but azithromycin may be used if contraindicated. Partners should be notified and treated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      65.8
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  • Question 18 - A 72-year-old man presents with a four month history of left sided hearing...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man presents with a four month history of left sided hearing loss. He denies any pain, discharge tinnitus, vertigo or other symptoms of note. He is an ex-smoker with a 45 year pack history.

      On examination otoscopy of the right ear appears normal whilst the left ear shows a dullness to the tympanic membrane with air bubbles within the middle ear, the external auditory canal is clear. Rinne's test shows bone conduction better than air conduction in the left ear and air conduction better than bone conduction in the right ear. Weber's test lateralises to the left.

      What is the most appropriate cause of action?

      Your Answer: Two week wait referral to local ENT service

      Explanation:

      Understanding Head and Neck Cancer: Symptoms and Referral Criteria

      Head and neck cancer is a broad term that encompasses various types of cancer, including oral cavity cancers, pharynx cancers, and larynx cancers. Some of the common symptoms of head and neck cancer include a persistent sore throat, hoarseness, neck lump, and mouth ulcer.

      To ensure timely diagnosis and treatment, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has established referral criteria for suspected cancer pathways. For instance, individuals aged 45 and above with persistent unexplained hoarseness or an unexplained lump in the neck should be referred for an appointment within two weeks to rule out laryngeal cancer.

      Similarly, people with unexplained ulceration in the oral cavity lasting for more than three weeks or a persistent and unexplained lump in the neck should be referred for an appointment within two weeks to assess for possible oral cancer. Dentists should also consider an urgent referral for people with a lump on the lip or in the oral cavity or a red or red and white patch in the oral cavity consistent with erythroplakia or erythroleukoplakia.

      Lastly, individuals with an unexplained thyroid lump should be referred for an appointment within two weeks to rule out thyroid cancer. By following these referral criteria, healthcare professionals can ensure that individuals with head and neck cancer receive prompt and appropriate care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      314.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - You saw a 9-year-old girl accompanied by her dad at the GP surgery...

    Incorrect

    • You saw a 9-year-old girl accompanied by her dad at the GP surgery with a one-day history of itchy rash on her ears. She is normally healthy and doesn't take any regular medication. On examination, you notice small blisters on the outer rims of her ear which causes mild discomfort on palpation. The rest of the skin appears normal. What is the most suitable initial treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Topical antibiotic

      Correct Answer: Emollient

      Explanation:

      Emollients, potent topical steroids, and avoiding strong direct sunlight are effective treatments for juvenile spring eruption. Antihistamines can also be used to alleviate itching. Infection is not a known factor in this condition, which is associated with UV light exposure. In more severe cases or when there is widespread polymorphic light eruption, oral steroids and phototherapy may be necessary.

      Understanding Juvenile Spring Eruption

      Juvenile spring eruption is a skin condition that occurs as a result of sun exposure. It is a type of polymorphic light eruption (PLE) that causes itchy red bumps on the light-exposed parts of the ears, which can turn into blisters and crusts. This condition is more common in boys aged between 5-14 years, and it is less common in females due to increased amounts of hair covering the ears.

      The main cause of juvenile spring eruption is sun-induced allergy rash, which is more likely to occur in the springtime. Some patients may also have PLE elsewhere on the body, and there is an increased incidence in cold weather. The diagnosis of this condition is usually made based on clinical presentation, and no clinical tests are required in most cases. However, in aggressive cases, lupus should be ruled out by ANA and ENA blood tests.

      The management of juvenile spring eruption involves providing patient education on sun exposure and the use of sunscreen and hats. Topical treatments such as emollients or calamine lotion can be used to provide relief, and antihistamines can help with itch relief at night-time. In more serious cases, oral steroids such as prednisolone can be used, as well as immune-system suppressants.

      In conclusion, understanding juvenile spring eruption is important for proper diagnosis and management. By taking preventative measures and seeking appropriate treatment, patients can manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      84.5
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  • Question 20 - A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic with complaints of ataxia and bilateral...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic with complaints of ataxia and bilateral gynaecomastia.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Long term treatment with high dose inhaled steroids

      Correct Answer: Klinefelter's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Gynaecomastia and Ataxia: Indicators of Lung Cancer

      Gynaecomastia and ataxia are both symptoms that can indicate the presence of lung cancer. While Klinefelter’s syndrome can cause gynaecomastia and cerebellar stroke can cause ataxia, the combination of the two makes it more likely to be lung cancer. Gynaecomastia is a non-metastatic paraneoplastic syndrome that is often associated with non-small cell lung cancer. It can be painful and may also be accompanied by testicular atrophy. Ataxia, on the other hand, can occur as a result of paraneoplastic cerebellar degeneration associated with the malignancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      107
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 50-year-old woman who is a non-smoker complains of rib pain. A bone...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman who is a non-smoker complains of rib pain. A bone scan reveals multiple lesions highly indicative of metastases. Physical examination is unremarkable except for unilateral axillary lymphadenopathy. An excision biopsy of an affected lymph node confirms the presence of adenocarcinoma. What investigation should be given priority to identify the primary site of the lesion?

      Your Answer: Mammography

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Cancer of Unknown Primary Site

      Cancers of unknown primary site make up a small percentage of all cancers and can present in various locations such as bones, lymph nodes, lungs, and liver. If the presentation is in the axillary lymph node, an occult breast primary may be the cause, and mammography should be the first investigation. If the mammogram is negative, other tests can identify alternative occult sites. Identifying the primary site is crucial for guiding treatment and determining prognosis, even in metastatic disease. However, some investigations may not be appropriate for certain presentations. Cancer antigen-125 (CA-125) is not a diagnostic tool for ovarian cancer, and colonoscopy and gastroscopy are unlikely to be useful for identifying the primary site in cases of metastases to the liver, lung, and peritoneum. Instead, Virchow’s nodes in the left supraclavicular area may be sentinel lymph nodes for abdominal cancer, particularly gastric cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      46.9
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  • Question 22 - A 4-year-old child presents with a sore throat and cough. He vomited twice...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old child presents with a sore throat and cough. He vomited twice in the past 24 hours. He is drinking and passed urine four hours ago. He has no rash. He has had tonsillitis twice in the past and his mother now requests antibiotics. There is nil of note in past medical history, and he is not on any medications.

      On examination, the child is alert. His temperature is 38.9°C, HR 130, RR 30, and CRT<2 sec. There are no recessions or rash, chest clear, eardrums pink, tonsils large and red with fine white exudate, normal cervical lymph nodes.

      Based on the NICE 'traffic light' system, what is the most appropriate management for this 4-year-old child?

      Your Answer: Give oral penicillin V and send home with worsening advice

      Correct Answer: Advise on fluids and antipyretics and send home with worsening advice

      Explanation:

      Management of a Child with Sore Throat

      This child doesn’t exhibit any life-threatening symptoms or signs of bacterial tonsillitis. The presence of fever and tonsillar exudate suggests a viral sore throat, which doesn’t require antibiotics. It is important to explain to the parents that antibiotics are unlikely to help and may contribute to bacterial resistance. Instead, regular analgesia and fluids should be given, and safety-netting advice provided. Antibiotics may be prescribed immediately for certain groups, such as those with three or more Centor criteria, systemic illness, or pre-existing comorbidities. It is also important to inform parents about the average length of the illness. As a GP who helped develop the NICE guidelines, I recommend following these management strategies for children with sore throat.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      128.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A mother brings in her 5-year-old son, who has developed an itchy, red...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings in her 5-year-old son, who has developed an itchy, red rash over the last few weeks which has been gradually worsening. It is mostly affecting the flexures and the face. The child’s mother suffers from atopic eczema and suspects that this is the problem with her son’s skin.
      What is the most appropriate management option in the treatment of atopic eczema in children?

      Your Answer: Antihistamines should be prescribed routinely

      Correct Answer: Emollients should be continued after the eczema clears

      Explanation:

      Best Practices for Managing Eczema: Key Recommendations

      Eczema is a chronic skin condition that can cause significant discomfort and distress. While there is no cure for eczema, there are several strategies that can help manage symptoms and reduce the frequency of flare-ups. Here are some key recommendations for managing eczema:

      1. Emollients should be continued after the eczema clears: Using emollients frequently can help reduce the frequency of flare-ups and the need for steroid treatment.

      2. Only mildly potent corticosteroids should be used: While both mildly and moderately potent topical steroids can be used in children if needed for short courses, very potent preparations should only be used under specialist guidance.

      3. Antihistamines should not be prescribed routinely: While antihistamines may provide some relief from itching, they are not recommended for routine use in the management of eczema.

      4. Oral antibiotics should only be used when necessary: Antibiotics are only indicated where there is clinical suspicion of superimposed bacterial infection.

      5. Topical tacrolimus should be used as a second-line treatment: Topical tacrolimus should only be used in cases that are not controlled with maximum corticosteroid therapy, or where there is high risk of side-effects from steroid use.

      By following these recommendations, patients with eczema can better manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      53.7
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  • Question 24 - A 65-year-old woman presents with urinary frequency and dysuria for the last 3...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents with urinary frequency and dysuria for the last 3 days. She denies vomiting or fevers and has no back pain. She has a history of osteoarthritis but no other significant medical conditions.

      During the examination, she experiences mild suprapubic tenderness, but there is no renal angle tenderness. Her heart rate is 68 beats per minute, blood pressure is 134/80 mmHg, and tympanic temperature is 36.8 oC. Urinalysis reveals 2+ leucocytes, positive nitrites, and no haematuria.

      Based on the current NICE guidelines, what is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Send a urine culture and commence a 7 day course of nitrofurantoin immediately

      Correct Answer: Send a urine culture and commence a 3 day course of nitrofurantoin immediately

      Explanation:

      For women over 65 years old with suspected urinary tract infections, it is recommended to send an MSU for urine culture according to current NICE CKS guidance. Asymptomatic bacteriuria is common in older patients, so a urine dip is no longer recommended. However, a urine culture can help determine appropriate antibiotic therapy in this age group. Antibiotics should be prescribed for 3 days in women and 7 days in men with suspected urinary tract infections. Since the woman is experiencing symptoms, it is appropriate to administer antibiotics immediately rather than waiting for culture results.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteriuria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      78.6
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  • Question 25 - In the newborn period, what condition necessitates surgical intervention? ...

    Correct

    • In the newborn period, what condition necessitates surgical intervention?

      Your Answer: Hirschsprung's disease

      Explanation:

      Conditions That Necessitate Surgical Intervention

      1. Hirschsprung’s Disease:
        • Description: Hirschsprung’s disease is a congenital condition characterized by the absence of ganglion cells in a segment of the colon, leading to bowel obstruction due to a lack of peristalsis in the affected area.
        • Surgical Intervention: Surgery is required to remove the aganglionic segment of the colon. This is typically done through a procedure called a pull-through surgery, where the diseased segment is removed, and the healthy bowel is connected to the anus.

      Conditions That May or May Not Require Surgical Intervention

      1. Tongue Tie (Ankyloglossia):
        • Description: Tongue tie occurs when the lingual frenulum (the band of tissue under the tongue) is too short or tight, restricting tongue movement.
        • Surgical Intervention: A frenotomy or frenuloplasty may be performed if the tongue tie significantly affects breastfeeding, speech, or oral hygiene. However, not all cases require surgery, and some may resolve as the child grows.

      Conditions That Typically Do Not Require Surgical Intervention in Newborns

      1. Umbilical Hernia:
        • Description: An umbilical hernia is a protrusion of the intestine or other tissue through a weakness in the abdominal muscles near the belly button.
        • Management: Most umbilical hernias in newborns close spontaneously by the age of 1-3 years. Surgery is usually only considered if the hernia persists beyond this age or if complications arise (e.g., incarceration or strangulation).
      2. Non-retractile Prepuce (Phimosis):
        • Description: Non-retractile prepuce is common in newborns and infants, where the foreskin cannot be retracted over the glans penis.
        • Management: This is typically physiological and resolves naturally as the child grows. Surgery, such as circumcision, is generally only considered if there are recurrent urinary tract infections or other complications.
      3. Capillary Haemangioma (Infantile Hemangioma):
        • Description: Capillary hemangiomas are benign vascular tumors that appear as red or purple skin lesions in newborns.
        • Management: Most infantile hemangiomas do not require surgical intervention and tend to regress spontaneously over time. Surgery or other treatments may be considered if the hemangioma causes complications, such as obstruction of vision or airway, ulceration, or bleeding.

      Summary

      • Surgical intervention is necessary for Hirschsprung’s disease in the newborn period.
      • Tongue tie may require surgery if it affects feeding or speech, but many cases do not.
      • Umbilical hernia, non-retractile prepuce, and capillary hemangioma generally do not require immediate surgical intervention in newborns unless complications occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      27.6
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  • Question 26 - What is the correct statement regarding warfarin treatment? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct statement regarding warfarin treatment?

      Your Answer: It should be avoided in lactating women

      Correct Answer: Patients with minor bleeding and an INR greater than 8 should receive vitamin K1

      Explanation:

      Understanding Warfarin Therapy: Inhibiting Vitamin K Dependent Factors and Managing Bleeding

      Warfarin is a medication that competitively inhibits the carboxylation of vitamin K dependent factors, including factor II, VII, IX, X, and protein C. Its half-life is approximately 44 hours, and while it is present in breast milk, the amount is too small to have any clinical significance. Unlike heparin therapy, warfarin is less likely to cause autoimmune thrombocytopenia and osteoporosis as side-effects.

      However, it is important to monitor patients on warfarin therapy for major bleeding and an international normalized ratio (INR) greater than 8, with or without bleeding. In such cases, warfarin should be stopped and phytomenadione, a form of vitamin K, should be administered either intravenously or orally. The dose may be repeated after 24 hours if the INR remains high, and warfarin can be restarted once the INR falls below 5. If the INR is between 6-8 with no bleeding, warfarin can be temporarily stopped without the need for phytomenadione.

      In cases of major bleeding, dried prothrombin complex may also be necessary to replace factors II, VII, IX, and X. Understanding the mechanisms of warfarin therapy and proper management of bleeding can help ensure the safety and efficacy of this medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      51.9
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  • Question 27 - A 58-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of unsteadiness when walking....

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of unsteadiness when walking. On examination, she has pyramidal weakness of her left lower limb and reduced pinprick sensation of her right leg and the right side of her trunk up to the level of the umbilicus.
      Joint position sense is impaired at her left big toe but is normal elsewhere. She has a definite left extensor plantar response, and the right plantar response is equivocal. Upper limb neurological examination is normal.
      What is the most likely site of the lesion?

      Your Answer: Left lumbosacral plexus

      Correct Answer: Left mid-thoracic cord

      Explanation:

      Understanding Brown-Séquard Syndrome: Identifying the Location of the Spinal Cord Lesion

      Brown-Séquard Syndrome is a rare condition that results from a lesion in one-half of the spinal cord. This can be caused by various factors such as trauma, neoplasia, cysts, multiple sclerosis, haemorrhage, and infections. The syndrome is characterized by ipsilateral hemiplegia and dorsal column sensory loss, with contralateral pain and temperature sensation deficits due to the crossing of the fibres of the spinothalamic tract.

      To identify the location of the spinal cord lesion, a thorough neurological examination is necessary. If the sensory level is around T10, the lesion is likely to be above this, ruling out the left lumbosacral plexus. A cervical spine lesion is unlikely if the upper limb neurological examination is normal. A midline mid-thoracic cord lesion is less likely as a hemicord lesion is more consistent with the combination of one-sided hemiplegia and loss of proprioception, with contralateral pain and temperature sensation deficits.

      Therefore, a right mid-thoracic cord lesion is the most probable cause of Brown-Séquard Syndrome in this scenario. The left-sided hemiplegia and loss of proprioception, with right-sided loss of pinprick sensation, indicate a left-sided hemicord lesion. Understanding the location of the spinal cord lesion is crucial in diagnosing and managing Brown-Séquard Syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      64.7
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 25-year-old female patient visits your GP clinic with a history of psoriasis...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female patient visits your GP clinic with a history of psoriasis and an abnormality in her nails. Although it is not causing her any discomfort, she wants to know if any treatment is necessary. Upon examination, you diagnose her with mild nail psoriasis. What is your plan for managing this condition?

      Your Answer: Prescribe topical tar to use

      Correct Answer: No treatment required

      Explanation:

      If nail psoriasis is mild and not causing any distress or cosmetic concerns for the patient, NICE recommends that treatment is not necessary. Topical treatments such as tar, emollients, or low dose steroids are not effective for nail disease. Urgent referral to dermatology is not needed for mild cases that do not cause distress. The best course of action is to monitor the condition and offer the patient the option to return if it worsens. Therefore, no treatment is required in this case.

      Psoriasis can cause changes in the nails of both fingers and toes. These changes do not necessarily indicate the severity of psoriasis, but they are often associated with psoriatic arthropathy. In fact, around 80-90% of patients with psoriatic arthropathy experience nail changes. Some of the nail changes that may occur in psoriasis include pitting, onycholysis (separation of the nail from the nail bed), subungual hyperkeratosis, and even loss of the nail. It is important to note that these changes can be distressing for patients and may require medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      55.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - You are instructing a woman on the proper use of an EpiPen. What...

    Correct

    • You are instructing a woman on the proper use of an EpiPen. What is the most suitable guidance regarding the injection site?

      Your Answer: Anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh

      Explanation:

      The anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh is the recommended site for injecting IM adrenaline.

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically develop suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, and stridor are common airway problems, while respiratory wheeze and dyspnea are common breathing problems. Hypotension and tachycardia are common circulation problems. Skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus and widespread erythematous or urticarial rash, are also present in around 80-90% of patients.

      The most important drug in the management of anaphylaxis is intramuscular adrenaline, which should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, with the highest dose being 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years old. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary. If the patient’s respiratory and/or cardiovascular problems persist despite two doses of IM adrenaline, IV fluids should be given for shock, and expert help should be sought for consideration of an IV adrenaline infusion.

      Following stabilisation, non-sedating oral antihistamines may be given to patients with persisting skin symptoms. Patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis should be referred to a specialist allergy clinic, and an adrenaline injector should be given as an interim measure before the specialist allergy assessment. Patients should be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors, and training should be provided on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and have been given an adrenaline auto-injector and trained how to use it. Patients who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have had a previous biphasic reaction should be observed for a minimum of 6 hours after symptom resolution, while those who have had a severe reaction requiring more than two doses of IM adrenaline or have severe asthma should be observed for a minimum of 12 hours after symptom resolution. Patients who present late at night or in areas where access to emergency care may be difficult should also be observed for a minimum of 12

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      23.9
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  • Question 30 - A 15-year-old sustains an injury playing football and presents with pain in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old sustains an injury playing football and presents with pain in the thigh and a shorter leg.

      Possible diagnoses include which of the following?

      Your Answer: Perthes' disease

      Correct Answer: Slipped femoral epiphysis

      Explanation:

      Slipped Upper Femoral Epiphysis

      Slipped upper femoral epiphysis is a condition that primarily affects boys aged 10 to 15. It occurs when the upper femoral epiphysis slips in a posterior inferior direction with respect to the femur. The exact cause of this condition is unclear, but it has been suggested that hormonal or calcification abnormalities may play a role. Obese children with delayed secondary sexual development or tall thin boys are particularly susceptible.

      Symptoms of slipped upper femoral epiphysis include rest pain, limp, pain on movement, reduced range of abduction and internal rotation, and an externally rotated and shortened affected leg. It is important to note that musculoskeletal disease doesn’t typically present with a shortened leg.

      Other conditions that may be mistaken for slipped upper femoral epiphysis include Perthes’ disease, Osgood-Schlatter syndrome, and chondromalacia patellae. Perthes’ disease is avascular necrosis of the femoral head in childhood, while Osgood-Schlatter syndrome is an overuse syndrome associated with physical exertion before skeletal maturity. Chondromalacia patellae is softening of the articular cartilage of the patella usually caused by indirect trauma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      33.6
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  • Question 31 - A 26-year-old female presents with complaints of an offensive, frothy, yellow discharge from...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female presents with complaints of an offensive, frothy, yellow discharge from the vagina accompanied by vulva itch and dysuria. During pelvic examination, punctuate mucosal haemorrhages are observed on the cervix. What is the probable causative organism?

      Your Answer: Trichomonas vaginalis

      Correct Answer: Gardnerella vaginalis

      Explanation:

      Trichomonas Vaginalis Infection

      Trichomonas vaginalis is a protozoan that can cause malodorous frothy discharge in some individuals, but many are asymptomatic. The organism can be seen under microscopic examination of vaginal secretions in saline, where trophozoites with three flagella can be observed moving. In some cases, a ‘strawberry cervix’ with punctuate mucosal haemorrhages may be present. Treatment for trichomonas infection is typically metronidazole 400 mg BD for seven days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      40
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 54-year-old man comes to the general practice clinic to discuss his aftercare:...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man comes to the general practice clinic to discuss his aftercare: he was discharged from hospital six weeks ago after a successful liver transplant. He is being treated by the local liver unit and has a medical history of hypertension, hyperlipidaemia, and liver cirrhosis caused by alcohol consumption. He is also a smoker. He has some concerns about his ongoing care and would like some guidance on lifestyle issues and managing his blood pressure. What is the best advice to give this patient?

      Your Answer: Statins are not safe for use following a liver transplant

      Correct Answer: The use of nicotine patches is safe post liver transplant

      Explanation:

      Post-Liver Transplant Patient Care: Important Considerations

      Liver transplant patients require specialized care to ensure optimal outcomes. Here are some important considerations:

      Encourage smoking cessation: Smoking can promote fibrosis and increase the risk of hepatoma development. Nicotine replacement therapy is a safe option.

      Limit alcohol intake: For non-alcohol indications, maintaining alcohol intake below 14 units/week is appropriate to prevent significant relapse and graft damage.

      Encourage exercise: Exercise can provide cardiovascular benefits and reduce the risk of osteoporosis. Strenuous exercise should be avoided for the first 12 months after transplant.

      Consider statins: Pravastatin and atorvastatin are safe and effective for managing hypertriglyceridaemia following a liver transplant.

      Use calcium channel blockers for hypertension: These drugs have minimal side effects and do not interact with calcineurin inhibitors like tacrolimus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      85
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - Sarah is a 74-year-old woman who had an unprovoked deep vein thrombosis two...

    Correct

    • Sarah is a 74-year-old woman who had an unprovoked deep vein thrombosis two months ago for which she takes apixaban. She presents to her GP following a 20-minute episode of unilateral arm weakness that occurred 2 hours ago and has now completely resolved. Her neurological examination is normal.

      What should her initial management be?

      Your Answer: Immediate referral to the emergency department for imaging

      Explanation:

      If a patient is suspected of having a TIA and is taking warfarin, a DOAC, or has a bleeding disorder, they must be admitted immediately for imaging to rule out a haemorrhage.

      For patients without these conditions, administering 300 mg of aspirin immediately and then evaluating them by a specialist within 24 hours is recommended. The primary secondary prevention method is taking clopidogrel 75 mg once daily.

      Referring patients to neurology as a routine measure would cause an unnecessary delay in treatment.

      A transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a brief period of neurological deficit caused by a vascular issue, lasting less than an hour. The original definition of a TIA was based on time, but it is now recognized that even short periods of ischaemia can result in pathological changes to the brain. Therefore, a new ’tissue-based’ definition is now used. The clinical features of a TIA are similar to those of a stroke, but the symptoms resolve within an hour. Possible features include unilateral weakness or sensory loss, aphasia or dysarthria, ataxia, vertigo, or loss of balance, visual problems, sudden transient loss of vision in one eye (amaurosis fugax), diplopia, and homonymous hemianopia.

      NICE recommends immediate antithrombotic therapy, giving aspirin 300 mg immediately unless the patient has a bleeding disorder or is taking an anticoagulant. If aspirin is contraindicated, management should be discussed urgently with the specialist team. Specialist review is necessary if the patient has had more than one TIA or has a suspected cardioembolic source or severe carotid stenosis. Urgent assessment within 24 hours by a specialist stroke physician is required if the patient has had a suspected TIA in the last 7 days. Referral for specialist assessment should be made as soon as possible within 7 days if the patient has had a suspected TIA more than a week previously. The person should be advised not to drive until they have been seen by a specialist.

      Neuroimaging should be done on the same day as specialist assessment if possible. MRI is preferred to determine the territory of ischaemia or to detect haemorrhage or alternative pathologies. Carotid imaging is necessary as atherosclerosis in the carotid artery may be a source of emboli in some patients. All patients should have an urgent carotid doppler unless they are not a candidate for carotid endarterectomy.

      Antithrombotic therapy is recommended, with clopidogrel being the first-line treatment. Aspirin + dipyridamole should be given to patients who cannot tolerate clopidogrel. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if the patient has suffered a stroke or TIA in the carotid territory and is not severely disabled. It should only be recommended if carotid stenosis is greater

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      51.5
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 50-year-old woman with lung cancer is experiencing bone pains. Her biochemistry screen...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with lung cancer is experiencing bone pains. Her biochemistry screen shows borderline hypercalcaemia. She has a medical history of hypertension and is currently taking multiple medications for it.

      What is the most probable factor contributing to the exacerbation of her hypercalcaemia?

      Your Answer: Irbesartan

      Correct Answer: Atenolol

      Explanation:

      Drugs that can cause hypercalcaemia

      Bendroflumethiazide is a type of thiazide diuretic that is commonly known to cause hypercalcaemia. This condition is characterized by high levels of calcium in the blood, which can lead to various health problems. Aside from bendroflumethiazide, other drugs that may cause hypercalcaemia include lithium, teriparatide, and with theophylline toxicity. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of these medications and to consult with a healthcare professional if any symptoms of hypercalcaemia arise. Proper monitoring and management of this condition can help prevent complications and ensure optimal health outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      83.4
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 42-year-old man who is a smoker presents with a 6-week history of...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man who is a smoker presents with a 6-week history of hoarseness of voice. He is otherwise well with no weight loss or sore throat, and has a normal-looking oropharynx and oral cavity.
      What is the MOST APPROPRIATE management option?

      Your Answer: Urgent referral to the local hospital ENT department under the 2-week-wait criteria

      Explanation:

      Importance of Prompt Referral for Laryngeal Carcinoma

      Laryngeal carcinoma is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. If left untreated, it can lead to severe complications and even death. One of the most common symptoms of laryngeal carcinoma is persistent hoarseness, which is why it is important to seek medical attention if you experience this symptom.

      In addition to hoarseness, an unexplained lump in the neck is another sign that you may be at risk of laryngeal carcinoma. If you experience either of these symptoms, it is important to seek a 2-week-wait cancer referral as soon as possible.

      The priority in diagnosing laryngeal carcinoma is to exclude it by direct visualisation of the larynx, which can only be done in an ENT department. Therefore, it is crucial to seek medical attention and get referred to an ENT department for further evaluation and treatment. Early detection and treatment can greatly improve the chances of a successful outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      37
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 29-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with complaints of anorexia, malaise...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with complaints of anorexia, malaise and jaundice. Liver function tests reveal a hepatocellular pattern of liver damage, leading to suspicion of viral hepatitis.
      Which of the following choices would NOT aid in confirming the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: IgM anti-hepatitis A virus (HAV)

      Correct Answer: Anti-hepatitis B surface antigen (HBs)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hepatitis Tests

      Hepatitis is a viral infection that affects the liver. There are different types of hepatitis, including A, B, and C. To diagnose hepatitis, doctors use various tests. One of these tests is the Anti-HBs test, which indicates immunity to hepatitis B.

      Another test is the Hepatitis B surface antigen test, which can indicate an acute infection or a chronic carrier state. If a patient has acute hepatitis B virus infection, the presence of this antigen strongly suggests it. However, it doesn’t rule out chronic HBV with acute superinfection by another hepatitis virus.

      The most specific test for diagnosing acute HCV infection before antibodies have developed is the qualitative polymerase chain reaction (PCR) assay for viral particles. If all these tests are negative, doctors should consider other causes of hepatitis, such as another virus or alcohol.

      In conclusion, understanding hepatitis tests is crucial for diagnosing and treating this viral infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      54.9
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  • Question 37 - An 80-year-old man comes in for a medication review. He has a history...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man comes in for a medication review. He has a history of ischaemic heart disease, cerebrovascular disease, and heart failure. Which of the following medications should be prescribed using brand names only?

      Your Answer: Enalapril

      Correct Answer: Modified-release verapamil

      Explanation:

      To ensure effective symptom control, it is important to prescribe modified release calcium channel blockers by their specific brand names, as their release characteristics can vary. Therefore, it is necessary to maintain consistency in the brand prescribed.

      Prescribing Guidance for Healthcare Professionals

      Prescribing medication is a crucial aspect of healthcare practice, and it is essential to follow good practice guidelines to ensure patient safety and effective treatment. The British National Formulary (BNF) provides guidance on prescribing medication, including the recommendation to prescribe drugs by their generic name, except for specific preparations where the clinical effect may differ. It is also important to avoid unnecessary decimal points when writing numbers, such as prescribing 250 ml instead of 0.25 l. Additionally, it is a legal requirement to specify the age of children under 12 on their prescription.

      However, there are certain drugs that should be prescribed by their brand name, including modified release calcium channel blockers, antiepileptics, ciclosporin and tacrolimus, mesalazine, lithium, aminophylline and theophylline, methylphenidate, CFC-free formulations of beclomethasone, and dry powder inhaler devices. By following these prescribing guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure safe and effective medication management for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 38 - Samantha is a 40-year-old woman who is curious about her eligibility for universal...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 40-year-old woman who is curious about her eligibility for universal credit. She used to work as a teacher but has been unemployed for the past year.

      What is the maximum amount of savings she can have and still qualify for universal credit?

      Your Answer: £10,000

      Correct Answer: £16,000

      Explanation:

      To be eligible for universal credit, your savings must not exceed £16,000.

      Understanding Universal Credit: Benefits, Eligibility, and Controversies

      Universal Credit is a new benefit system in the UK that aims to simplify the welfare system by combining six benefits into one payment. It is designed to help people meet the cost of living and encourage them to work. To be eligible for Universal Credit, a person and their partner must live in the UK, be 18 years old or over, earn a low income or be out of work, have less than £16,000 in savings, and be below the age of receiving the state pension.

      The amount of money a person receives from Universal Credit depends on their circumstances. It includes a standard allowance and extra payments for up to two children, disability, or housing costs. However, there is a benefit cap that limits the total amount one can receive. The payment reduces as people earn money, but they have a work allowance of how much they can earn before their payment is decreased.

      Universal Credit is supposed to help people learn to budget their money and prepare them for having a job. It also allows people to work and still receive support through a ‘work allowance.’ Applying for Universal Credit is done online, which cuts down the cost of managing benefits to the government.

      Despite its supposed benefits, Universal Credit is controversial. Some people take issue with the fact that people have to wait five weeks to receive their first payment and then struggle due to only receiving payments every month. Childcare must be paid by parents upfront and is then refunded by Universal Credit. Many disabled people and households receive less than they did with the old benefits system. Universal Credit will only pay for the first two children for children born after April 2017, whereas the old benefits paid benefits for each child per year. Private tenants find it harder to rent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
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  • Question 39 - A 52-year-old man being treated for prostate cancer comes to the general practice...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man being treated for prostate cancer comes to the general practice surgery to discuss his treatment. He feels that he is not coping emotionally and has not returned to his work as a construction worker; he is feeling very low in mood. He is anxious and is not sleeping well. He doesn't want to discuss his feelings with his family; he asks for some information about services available for psychological support.
      What is the most appropriate initial advice you can provide this patient about access to psychological support?

      Your Answer: All patients undergoing active cancer treatment should be referred to the community mental health team for a psychological assessment

      Correct Answer: Providers of cancer services should ensure that all patients undergo systematic psychological assessment at key points of their treatment

      Explanation:

      Importance of Psychological Assessment and Support for Cancer Patients

      Cancer patients often experience psychological distress related to their diagnosis and treatment. To address this, providers of cancer services should ensure that all patients undergo systematic psychological assessment at key points of their treatment, as recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence guidelines. Referrals to community or specialist services should be made as needed.

      It is important to note that psychological support should be available throughout a patient’s cancer journey and need not be limited to the end of active treatment. While patients with a previous history of mental health problems may require a referral to a psychiatrist, other services may be more appropriate for some patients.

      In addition, Admiral Nurses, who specialize in Alzheimer’s support, are not directly involved in cancer care and may not be the best source of emotional support for cancer patients. Overall, the importance of psychological assessment and support for cancer patients cannot be overstated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      29.2
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  • Question 40 - As a GP in central London, you see a 10-year-old Polish boy with...

    Correct

    • As a GP in central London, you see a 10-year-old Polish boy with his mother. The mother reports that her son has been feeling unwell for the past four days with a runny nose and sticky eyes. Yesterday, he developed a fever of 39.1 ºC and a rash on his face. The rash has now spread all over his body, and he has lost his appetite but is drinking well. When asked about his immunization history, the mother is unsure of what he has had.

      During the examination, the patient appears coryzal and has small white spots on the inside of his cheeks. He also has a rash with flat red blotches on his face and brown blotches on his torso. All his observations are within normal limits. Based on these findings, you suspect that the patient has measles.

      The mother asks how long her son needs to stay off school.

      Your Answer: 4 days from the onset of the rash

      Explanation:

      If a child develops measles, they should not attend school for four days after the rash appears. Measles is a highly contagious viral disease that can be severe, especially for those with weakened immune systems, young infants, and pregnant women. The best way to prevent measles is through vaccination, but there have been recent outbreaks in unvaccinated individuals in London. While the UK has achieved elimination of measles, there are still small clusters of cases. Symptoms of measles include a runny nose, cough, fever, and rash. Cases are infectious for four days before and after the rash appears, so it’s important to keep them out of school during this time. Public health officials should be notified if there is a suspected case of measles to control outbreaks through testing, contact tracing, and immunization.

      The Health Protection Agency has provided guidance on when children should be excluded from school due to infectious conditions. Some conditions, such as conjunctivitis, fifth disease, roseola, infectious mononucleosis, head lice, threadworms, and hand, foot and mouth, do not require exclusion. Scarlet fever requires exclusion for 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, while whooping cough requires exclusion for 2 days after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are taken. Measles requires exclusion for 4 days from onset of rash, rubella for 5 days from onset of rash, and Chickenpox until all lesions are crusted over. Mumps requires exclusion for 5 days from onset of swollen glands, while diarrhoea and vomiting require exclusion until symptoms have settled for 48 hours. Impetigo requires exclusion until lesions are crusted and healed, or for 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment, and scabies requires exclusion until treated. influenza requires exclusion until the child has recovered for 48 hours.

      Regarding Chickenpox, Public Health England recommends that children should be excluded until all lesions are crusted over, while Clinical Knowledge Summaries suggest that infectivity continues until all lesions are dry and have crusted over, usually about 5 days after the onset of the rash. It is important to follow official guidance and consult with healthcare professionals if unsure about exclusion periods for infectious conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 41 - A 55-year-old man with chronic renal failure presents with anaemia.
    Select the single most...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man with chronic renal failure presents with anaemia.
      Select the single most likely cause.

      Your Answer: Erythropoietin deficiency

      Explanation:

      Understanding Anaemia in Chronic Kidney Disease

      Anaemia is a common complication in patients with chronic kidney disease, with a prevalence of about 12%. As the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) falls, the prevalence of anaemia increases. Patients should be investigated if their haemoglobin falls to 110g/L or less or if symptoms of anaemia develop.

      The typical normochromic normocytic anaemia of chronic kidney disease mainly develops from decreased renal synthesis of erythropoietin. Anaemia becomes more severe as the glomerular filtration rate decreases. Iron deficiency is also common and may be due to poor dietary intake or occult bleeding. Other factors contributing to anaemia include the presence of uraemic inhibitors, a reduced half-life of circulating blood cells, or deficiency of folate or vitamin B12.

      Although supplements of vitamin C have been used as adjuvant therapy in the anaemia of chronic kidney disease, NICE recommends that they should not be prescribed for this purpose as evidence suggests no benefit. It is important to monitor and manage anaemia in patients with chronic kidney disease to improve their quality of life and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 42 - A 52-year-old woman visits her GP with concerns about her risk of developing...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old woman visits her GP with concerns about her risk of developing osteoporosis. She underwent a hysterectomy and oophorectomy due to uterine fibroids a year ago, which was followed by mild hot flashes that have since resolved. The patient is worried about the possibility of fracture after her mother broke her hip at the age of 72. She inquires about medications for osteoporosis. Her T score is <−2.5, and her body mass index is 17.3 kg/m2. She was on Depo-Provera from the age of 39 to 45, during which time she was amenorrhoeic. The physical examination, including breast examination, is normal. What would you suggest to her?

      Your Answer: Bisphosphonate

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Osteoporosis in a High-Risk Patient

      This patient has several risk factors for osteoporosis, including a low BMI, a positive family history, and oophorectomy at an appropriate menopausal age. Although she no longer experiences menopausal symptoms, she may still be at risk for severe osteoporosis if she has a T score of <−2.5 SD and one or more fragility fractures. Therefore, the most appropriate therapy for this patient would be a bisphosphonate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 43 - A 30-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of gradual hearing loss and worsening...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of gradual hearing loss and worsening tinnitus over the past year. She has no significant medical history but reports that her father also experienced hearing loss at a young age. On neurological examination, she has mild bilateral conductive hearing loss, but her tympanic membrane appears normal. What is the probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Acoustic neuroma

      Correct Answer: Otosclerosis

      Explanation:

      Otosclerosis, which is an inherited condition, can cause hearing loss in young adults. The symptoms of slowly progressing bilateral conductive hearing loss and a positive family history are typical of otosclerosis.

      Presbyacusis, on the other hand, is a type of hearing loss that occurs with aging and is unlikely to affect a young woman. Sensorineural hearing loss is caused by acoustic neuroma, while Meniere’s disease is characterized by episodes of vertigo.

      Understanding Otosclerosis: A Progressive Conductive Deafness

      Otosclerosis is a medical condition that occurs when normal bone is replaced by vascular spongy bone. This condition leads to a progressive conductive deafness due to the fixation of the stapes at the oval window. It is an autosomal dominant condition that typically affects young adults, with onset usually occurring between the ages of 20-40 years.

      The main features of otosclerosis include conductive deafness, tinnitus, a normal tympanic membrane, and a positive family history. In some cases, patients may also experience a flamingo tinge, which is caused by hyperemia and affects around 10% of patients.

      Management of otosclerosis typically involves the use of a hearing aid or stapedectomy. A hearing aid can help to improve hearing, while a stapedectomy involves the surgical removal of the stapes bone and replacement with a prosthesis.

      Overall, understanding otosclerosis is important for individuals who may be at risk of developing this condition. Early diagnosis and management can help to improve hearing and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      4.8
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  • Question 44 - A 60-year-old man presents with increasing fatigue. He reports feeling tired for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents with increasing fatigue. He reports feeling tired for the past few months without any specific symptoms. The following blood tests are ordered:

      Hemoglobin: 12.5 g/dL
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV): 84 fL
      Platelets: 230 * 10^9/L
      White blood cells (WBC): 6.2 * 10^9/L
      Iron studies: Normal
      Vitamin B12/folate: Normal
      C-reactive protein (CRP): 5 mg/L
      Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH): 2.5 mIU/L

      According to NICE guidelines, what is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Arrange a chest x-ray

      Correct Answer: Offer a Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT)

      Explanation:

      If patients exhibit new symptoms of colorectal cancer but do not meet the 2-week criteria, NICE recommends conducting the FIT test, regardless of whether or not they have iron deficiency.

      Colorectal cancer referral guidelines were updated by NICE in 2015. Patients who are 40 years or older with unexplained weight loss and abdominal pain, those who are 50 years or older with unexplained rectal bleeding, and those who are 60 years or older with iron deficiency anaemia or a change in bowel habit should be referred urgently to colorectal services for investigation. Additionally, patients with positive results for occult blood in their faeces should also be referred urgently.

      An urgent referral should be considered if there is a rectal or abdominal mass, an unexplained anal mass or anal ulceration, or if patients under 50 years old have rectal bleeding and any of the following unexplained symptoms or findings: abdominal pain, change in bowel habit, weight loss, or iron deficiency anaemia.

      The NHS offers a national screening programme for colorectal cancer every two years to all men and women aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland. Patients aged over 74 years may request screening. Eligible patients are sent Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) tests through the post. FIT is a type of faecal occult blood test that uses antibodies to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy.

      The FIT test is also recommended for patients with new symptoms who do not meet the 2-week criteria listed above. For example, patients who are 50 years or older with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss, those under 60 years old with changes in their bowel habit or iron deficiency anaemia, and those who are 60 years or older who have anaemia even in the absence of iron deficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      115.3
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  • Question 45 - A 35-year-old multiparous woman presents to you with concerns about a lump she...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old multiparous woman presents to you with concerns about a lump she discovered in her breast three days ago. She is very conscious of her health and reports performing regular breast self-examinations. Her last menstrual period was four weeks ago, and she is expecting her next period in six days.

      Upon examination, she reveals a smooth, soft, and mobile 1 cm lump that feels distinct from the other side. There are no associated lymph nodes, and she has no significant medical or family history.

      What is your recommended course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer to breast clinic routinely

      Correct Answer: Advise her to come back in the first part of her next cycle to re-examine

      Explanation:

      Breast Lumps and Referral to a Breast Clinic

      Breast lumps are a common concern among women, and it is important to know when to seek medical attention. If a woman over the age of 30 has a discrete lump that persists after their next period or presents after menopause, referral to a breast clinic should be considered. However, if the lump is of very recent onset and the patient is premenstrual, referral may not be necessary at this stage.

      Benign breast lumps tend to be firm or rubbery, often painful, regular or smooth, mobile, and have no nipple or skin signs. On the other hand, malignant lumps are hard, 90% painless, irregular, fixed, and may have skin dimpling, nipple retraction, or bloody discharge.

      It is important to note that evening primrose oil is not a treatment for breast lumps, and there is little evidence to suggest it helps with mastalgia. Despite being marketed as a treatment for this condition, it is not a substitute for medical advice and evaluation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      67.5
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  • Question 46 - In the UK in 2010, there were five risk factors for disease that...

    Correct

    • In the UK in 2010, there were five risk factors for disease that caused the most disability-adjusted life years (DALYs). Which of these options had the greatest impact? Please

      Your Answer: Tobacco smoking (including second-hand smoke)

      Explanation:

      Top Risk Factors for UK Health: Findings from the Global Burden of Disease Study 2010

      The Global Burden of Disease Study 2010 identified the top risk factors for UK health, based on disability-adjusted life years (DALYs). Tobacco smoking, including second-hand smoke, was found to be the greatest risk factor, accounting for 11.8% of DALYs. Diet and physical inactivity together accounted for 14.3% of DALYs, with a low intake of fruits and vegetables, high cholesterol and glucose levels, and drug use also contributing to the burden. High body-mass index was responsible for 8.6% of DALYs, while alcohol use accounted for only 4.9%. High blood pressure and physical inactivity/low activity were also significant risk factors, responsible for 9% and 5% of DALYs, respectively. These findings highlight the importance of addressing these risk factors to improve overall health in the UK.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 47 - You start a patient on atorvastatin after their cholesterol was found to be...

    Correct

    • You start a patient on atorvastatin after their cholesterol was found to be raised in the context of a QRISK of 15%. You repeat the blood tests 6 months after starting treatment.

      Which of the following blood results does NICE recommend using to determine the next course of action?

      Your Answer: Non-HDL cholesterol

      Explanation:

      Monitoring Statin Treatment for Primary Prevention

      Following the initiation of statin treatment for primary prevention, it is recommended to have a repeat blood test after 3 months. The non-HDL cholesterol level should be interpreted to guide the next steps in management. The goal of treatment is to reduce non-HDL levels by 40% of the patient’s baseline. If adherence, timing of the dose, and lifestyle measures are in place, an increase in dose may be necessary.

      It is not routine to investigate creatine kinase in this context, but it would be helpful to investigate unexplained muscle symptoms. Liver function tests are not an option, but NICE advises testing these 3 months and 12 months following statin initiation. If stable, no further monitoring for LFTs is required after this.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 48 - A 25-year-old female boxer visits her GP clinic complaining of itchy feet and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female boxer visits her GP clinic complaining of itchy feet and toes, along with scaling of the skin between her toes. Despite completing a 4-week course of topical imidazole, her symptoms have not improved since her initial presentation 4 weeks ago, which confirmed athlete's foot through a positive culture of skin scrapings. What is the recommended treatment at this point?

      Your Answer: Reassure, give advice regarding foot hygiene and prescribe a further 4 weeks of topical imidazole

      Correct Answer: Prescribe a course of oral terbinafine

      Explanation:

      If the initial topical treatment for athlete’s foot is unsuccessful, it is recommended to use oral antifungal treatment. Continuing with topical treatment is not the best approach, and referring the patient to a dermatologist is another option. Topical corticosteroids should only be used in cases of severe inflammation and irritation to alleviate symptoms. Flucloxacillin, being an antibiotic, is not appropriate for this condition.

      Understanding Athlete’s Foot

      Athlete’s foot, medically known as tinea pedis, is a common fungal infection that affects the skin on the feet. It is caused by fungi in the Trichophyton genus and is characterized by scaling, flaking, and itching between the toes. The condition is highly contagious and can spread through contact with infected surfaces or people.

      To treat athlete’s foot, clinical knowledge summaries recommend using a topical imidazole, undecenoate, or terbinafine as a first-line treatment. These medications work by killing the fungi responsible for the infection and relieving symptoms. It is important to maintain good foot hygiene and avoid sharing personal items such as socks and shoes to prevent the spread of the infection. With proper treatment and prevention measures, athlete’s foot can be effectively managed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 49 - A 14-year-old boy with nasal obstruction presents to you in surgery. Examining him,...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy with nasal obstruction presents to you in surgery. Examining him, you find what you think are nasal polyps.
      Which of the following statements regarding nasal polyps is correct?

      Your Answer: Polyps are relatively common in children

      Correct Answer: Polyps may be associated with cystic fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nasal Polyps: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Nasal polyps are growths that develop in the nasal cavity or paranasal sinuses. They are often a sign of underlying inflammation and can cause progressive nasal obstruction. While they can occur at any age, they are relatively uncommon in children. However, in children with cystic fibrosis, rates of nasal polyps can be as high as 50%.

      Symptoms of nasal polyps include nasal obstruction, loss of smell, and postnasal drip. They are not typically associated with pain or bleeding, which may suggest neoplastic growths or foreign bodies. While surgical polypectomy can provide temporary relief, recurrence is common. The underlying inflammation should be targeted with topical corticosteroids, which can improve symptoms and reduce the risk of recurrence.

      If a child presents with nasal polyps, it is important to test for cystic fibrosis. While there is no single curative treatment for nasal polyps, early detection and management can improve quality of life and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      34.7
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  • Question 50 - You have a consultation scheduled with Mr. Smith, a 74-year-old man who is...

    Incorrect

    • You have a consultation scheduled with Mr. Smith, a 74-year-old man who is interested in participating in the NHS bowel cancer screening program. He has never submitted the home test kits before and wants to know if he is eligible for screening.

      Your Answer: Home test kits will be sent out every 2 years, submit test within the screening program

      Correct Answer: He can self-refer for home test kit

      Explanation:

      Patients who are over the age of 74 are no longer eligible for bowel cancer screening within the NHS screening program. However, they can still receive a home test kit every 2 years by self-referral (helpline number on NHS website). It is important to note that if a patient develops symptoms of bowel cancer, they should be formally investigated according to NICE suspected cancer guidelines. Additionally, in areas where bowel scope screening has been rolled out, patients can self-refer up to the age of 60 for one-off bowel scope screening.

      Colorectal Cancer Screening with FIT Test

      Overview:
      Colorectal cancer is often developed from adenomatous polyps. Screening for this cancer has been proven to reduce mortality by 16%. The NHS provides home-based screening for older adults through the Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT). Although a one-off flexible sigmoidoscopy was trialled in England, it was abandoned in 2021 due to the inability to recruit enough clinical endoscopists, which was further exacerbated by the COVID-19 pandemic. However, the trial showed promising early results, and it remains to be seen whether flexible sigmoidoscopy will be used in future bowel screening programmes.

      Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) Screening:
      The NHS offers a national screening programme every two years to all men and women aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland. Patients aged over 74 years may request screening. Eligible patients are sent FIT tests through the post. FIT is a type of faecal occult blood (FOB) test that uses antibodies that specifically recognise human haemoglobin (Hb). It is used to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. FIT has advantages over conventional FOB tests as it only detects human haemoglobin, not animal haemoglobin ingested through diet. Only one faecal sample is needed compared to the 2-3 for conventional FOB tests. Although a numerical value is generated, this is not reported to the patient or GP. Instead, they will be informed if the test is normal or abnormal. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy.

      Colonoscopy:
      Approximately 5 out of 10 patients will have a normal exam, 4 out of 10 patients will be found to have polyps that may be removed due to their premalignant potential, and 1 out of 10 patients will be found to have cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      80.3
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Maternity And Reproductive Health (1/2) 50%
Haematology (0/3) 0%
Population Health (1/3) 33%
Gastroenterology (1/2) 50%
Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal Health (2/3) 67%
Cardiovascular Health (2/4) 50%
Respiratory Health (2/2) 100%
Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse (1/1) 100%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (0/2) 0%
Dermatology (0/5) 0%
Gynaecology And Breast (0/2) 0%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (2/4) 50%
Children And Young People (2/4) 50%
Kidney And Urology (1/2) 50%
Neurology (1/2) 50%
Allergy And Immunology (1/2) 50%
Sexual Health (0/1) 0%
End Of Life (0/2) 0%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (0/1) 0%
People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer (0/1) 0%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (1/1) 100%
Passmed