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Question 1
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A young laborer presents to the Emergency department with complaints of pain in their middle finger. Upon examination, the finger appears swollen and is held in a partially flexed position. Passive extension elicits pain and there is tenderness over the flexor sheath. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Suppurative flexor tenosynovitis
Explanation:The Four Cardinal Signs of Suppurative Flexor Tenosynovitis
Suppurative flexor tenosynovitis is a serious infection that affects the tendons and synovial sheaths of the fingers. Kanavel, a renowned physician, identified four cardinal signs of this condition. The first sign is a flexed posture, which is caused by pain and swelling in the affected area. The second sign is fusiform swelling, which refers to a sausage-like swelling of the finger. The third sign is pain on passive extension, which means that the finger hurts when it is straightened. The fourth sign is flexor sheath tenderness, which is tenderness along the tendon sheath.
Deep potential space infections, such as mid palmar and thenar space infections, are made worse by flexion. This is because flexion causes the infected area to become more compressed, which can lead to further swelling and pain. It is important to recognize these cardinal signs of suppurative flexor tenosynovitis and seek medical attention immediately if they are present. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent serious complications, such as loss of function or even amputation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 2
Correct
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A 27-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with complaints of worsening back pain and stiffness over the past 5 months. He denies experiencing leg pain, loss of bladder or bowel control, or weakness in his lower extremities. The patient reports that the stiffness in his back tends to improve throughout the day. Upon examination, the physician notes mild tenderness directly over the lumbar spine and decreased range of motion with hip flexion. The patient has normal muscle strength in his lower extremities and intact sensation. X-ray results reveal sacroiliitis, vertebral squaring, and a ‘bamboo spine’. Which of the following is most likely associated with this patient’s condition?
Your Answer: Positive human leukocyte antigen HLA-B27
Explanation:Understanding Autoimmune Disorders: Differentiating Between Ankylosing Spondylitis, SLE, and Rheumatoid Arthritis
Autoimmune disorders can be difficult to diagnose due to their overlapping symptoms. However, certain laboratory tests can help differentiate between them.
One such test is the human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-B27, which is associated with ankylosing spondylitis. This autoimmune disorder primarily affects men and is characterized by back stiffness that improves throughout the day, sacroiliitis, and a bamboo spine on radiography.
On the other hand, positive antinuclear antibodies and anti-double-stranded DNA antibodies are associated with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Patients with SLE may experience joint pain, skin rashes, and organ involvement.
Lastly, positive anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (CCP) antibodies are associated with rheumatoid arthritis. This autoimmune disorder is characterized by joint pain, swelling, and stiffness, and can lead to joint deformities if left untreated.
In summary, understanding the specific laboratory tests associated with different autoimmune disorders can aid in their diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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You are a surgical house officer (F1) attending to a patient on the surgical ward. The nurses mention to you that the patient is having intermittent episodes of pyrexia, without other complaints. The patient is now on their second day following a subtotal thyroidectomy. On assessing the patient, you note that the patient is well in himself and, apart from pyrexia, has no other complaints.
Examination is unremarkable and vital signs are normal, and specifically the neck has no swelling or discharge. A bedside ECG does not reveal any abnormalities. Blood tests are noted as follows:
Investigations Results Normal Values
Haemoglobin (Hb) 111 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 8.9 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelet (Plt) 415 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 138 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 6.3 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea (Ur) 4.5 mmol/l 2.6–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine (Cr) 35 mmol/l 50–120 mmol/l
C-reactive protein (CRP) 7 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
Liver function tests (LFTs) sample haemolysed
Which of the following interventions would you do first if the patient was 70 years old?Your Answer: Administer calcium gluconate
Correct Answer: Take a repeat blood sample to check the potassium level
Explanation:Managing Hyperkalaemia: Prioritizing Interventions
Hyperkalaemia is a potentially life-threatening condition that requires urgent management. In the scenario where a blood sample shows raised potassium levels, the first intervention should be to repeat the blood sample to confirm the hyperkalaemia. Clinical features associated with hyperkalaemia are non-specific, and an ECG should be performed to investigate any changes associated with hyperkalaemia. Treatment involves stabilizing the myocardium with calcium gluconate, pushing potassium intracellularly with insulin and glucose or nebulized salbutamol, and administering calcium resonium to promote excretion of potassium from the body. In this scenario, administering calcium gluconate should be considered only if there is evidence of hyperkalaemic changes on the ECG or in the presence of moderate to severe hyperkalaemia. Establishing an iv line is essential, and a septic screen should be performed if the patient has post-operative intermittent pyrexia. However, the priority is to confirm the hyperkalaemia and treat it and the underlying cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Biochemistry
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old boy is admitted to the ward with difficulty breathing. His mother reports a 3-day illness with cough and cold symptoms, low-grade fever and increasing difficulty breathing this morning. He has had no similar episodes. The family are all non-smokers and there is no history of atopy. His immunisations are up-to-date and he is otherwise growing and developing normally.
In the Emergency Department, he was given burst therapy and is now on one-hourly salbutamol inhalers. On examination, he is alert and playing. Heart rate (HR) 150 bpm, respiratory rate (RR) 40 breaths per minute, oxygen saturation 94% on air. There is mild subcostal recession, and his chest shows good air entry bilaterally, with mild wheeze throughout.
What is the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer: Add montelukast for 5 days
Correct Answer: Stretch to 2-hourly salbutamol and add 10 mg soluble prednisone for 3 days
Explanation:Management of Viral-Induced Wheeze in Children: Treatment Options and Considerations
Viral-induced wheeze is a common presentation of wheeze in preschool children, typically associated with a viral infection. Inhaled b2 agonists are the first line of treatment, given hourly during acute episodes. However, for children with mild symptoms and maintaining saturations above 92%, reducing the frequency of salbutamol to 2-hourly and gradually weaning off may be appropriate. Steroid tablet therapy is recommended for use in hospital settings and early management of asthma symptoms in this age group. It is important to establish a personal and family history of atopy, as a wheeze is more likely to be induced by asthma if it occurs when the child is otherwise well. Oxygen via nasal cannulae is not necessary for mild symptoms. Prednisolone may be added for 3 days with a strong history of atopy, while montelukast is given for 5 days to settle inflammation in children without atopy. Atrovent® nebulisers are not typically used in the treatment of viral-induced wheeze but may be useful in children with atopy history where salbutamol fails to reduce symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man is currently admitted to the ward following a fundoplication procedure for a hiatus hernia. He has been experiencing worsening chest and epigastric pain 48 hours after the operation, and a chest x-ray has revealed bilateral small pleural effusions. As a healthcare provider, you are concerned about the possibility of oesophageal perforation. Considering the patient's recent fundoplication, where would you anticipate the most probable site of oesophageal perforation to be?
Your Answer: T2
Correct Answer: T10
Explanation:The Anatomy and Function of the Oesophagus and Gastro-Oesophageal Junction
The oesophagus is a muscular tube that runs from the pharynx to the stomach, measuring approximately 25 cm in length and 2 cm in diameter. Its muscle layer is arranged in both longitudinal and circular orientations and can be divided into thirds, with the top third being striated, the middle third being mixed striated and smooth, and the bottom third being completely smooth. The oesophagus enters the abdomen via the oesophageal hiatus in the diaphragm and continues for a further 2-3 cm before reaching the gastro-oesophageal junction.
The gastro-oesophageal junction is a specialised area of circular muscle that permits the passage of food by relaxing during swallowing. It is also where the non-keratinised stratified squamous epithelium mucosa changes to simple columnar epithelium. A hiatus hernia occurs when the gastro-oesophageal junction and/or part of the stomach protrudes through a defect in the diaphragm into the thorax, causing acid reflux and inflammation.
Treatment for a hiatus hernia typically involves medication such as antacids, Gaviscon, H2 antagonists, and proton pump inhibitors. However, if the hernia is large or symptoms persist, surgery may be necessary. Nissen’s fundoplication is a surgical procedure that involves pulling the hernia back into the abdomen, repairing the hole in the diaphragm, and wrapping the stomach around the abdominal portion of the oesophagus to increase pressure and prevent reflux.
In conclusion, the oesophagus and gastro-oesophageal junction play important roles in the digestive system. their anatomy and function can help diagnose and treat conditions such as hiatus hernia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 6
Correct
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A 62-year-old man is recuperating in the hospital after experiencing a stroke. During the examination, it is revealed that he has a right homonymous superior quadrantanopia. What is the location of the lesion responsible for this visual field impairment?
Your Answer: Left temporal (lower) optic radiation
Explanation:Understanding Optic Radiation Lesions and Visual Field Defects
The optic radiation is a crucial pathway for visual information processing in the brain. Lesions in different parts of this pathway can result in specific visual field defects.
Left Temporal (Lower) Optic Radiation: A lesion in this area would cause a quadrantanopia, affecting the upper quadrants of the contralateral visual field.
Left Parietal (Upper) Optic Radiation: A lesion in this area would result in a right homonymous inferior quadrantanopia.
Left Occipital Visual Cortex: A lesion in this area would cause a right contralateral homonymous hemianopia, with central sparing.
Right Parietal (Upper) Optic Radiation: A lesion in this area would cause a left homonymous inferior quadrantanopia.
Right Temporal (Lower) Optic Radiation: A lesion in this area would cause a left homonymous superior quadrantanopia.
Understanding these specific visual field defects can aid in localizing lesions in the optic radiation and visual cortex, leading to better diagnosis and treatment of neurological conditions affecting vision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 47-year-old man is admitted with acute epigastric pain and a serum amylase of 1500 u/l. His IMRIE score confirms acute pancreatitis. On examination, a large ecchymosis is observed around the umbilicus.
What clinical sign does this examination finding demonstrate?Your Answer: Cullen’s sign
Explanation:Common Medical Signs and Their Meanings
Medical signs are physical indications of a disease or condition that can aid in diagnosis. Here are some common medical signs and their meanings:
1. Cullen’s sign: This is bruising around the umbilicus that can indicate acute pancreatitis or an ectopic pregnancy.
2. McBurney’s sign: Pain over McBurney’s point, which is located in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen, can indicate acute appendicitis.
3. Grey–Turner’s sign: Discoloration of the flanks can indicate retroperitoneal hemorrhage.
4. Troisier’s sign: The presence of Virchow’s node in the left supraclavicular fossa can indicate gastric cancer.
5. Tinel’s sign: Tingling in the median nerve distribution when tapping over the median nerve can indicate carpal tunnel syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman at 37-week’s gestation presents to the labour ward with a history of 4 hours of labour and uterine contractions occurring every 2 minutes. Her 34-week scan revealed grade III placenta praevia. On examination, her cervix is found to be dilated to 8 cm and effaced by 90%. Foetal cartography measurements are normal, and there is no vaginal bleeding. What should be the next course of action for this patient?
Your Answer: Continue with normal vaginal delivery
Correct Answer: Emergency caesarean section
Explanation:If a woman with placenta praevia goes into labour, an emergency caesarean section should be performed regardless of whether there is bleeding or not. Placenta praevia is when the placenta is located partially or fully in the lower uterine segment, and it is more common in multiple and multiparous pregnancies. Sometimes it is detected incidentally during routine antenatal scanning, while in other cases, it may present with symptoms such as vaginal bleeding and haemodynamic shock. If placenta praevia is detected on routine imaging, an elective caesarean section should be considered at 37-38 weeks, especially for grade III and IV placenta praevia, due to the higher risk of postpartum haemorrhage. However, in this scenario, the patient has gone into labour spontaneously, and immediate action is necessary. Therefore, an emergency caesarean section is the correct course of action. Anti-D is recommended for pregnant women with negative rhesus status to prevent antibody production to foetal blood cells. Although the mother’s rhesus status is not given, anti-D is a sensible option when in doubt. Inducing labour with oxytocin is not recommended for patients with placenta praevia as it can stimulate vaginal delivery and increase the risk of postpartum haemorrhage. Discharging the patient to continue the pregnancy as normal is not advisable due to the serious risks involved. Tocolytics, such as nifedipine, are not routinely indicated for patients with placenta praevia in labour, and an emergency caesarean section should take priority.
Management and Prognosis of Placenta Praevia
Placenta praevia is a condition where the placenta is located wholly or partially in the lower uterine segment. If a low-lying placenta is detected at the 20-week scan, a rescan is recommended at 32 weeks. There is no need to limit activity or intercourse unless there is bleeding. If the placenta is still present at 32 weeks and is grade I/II, then a scan every two weeks is recommended. A final ultrasound at 36-37 weeks is necessary to determine the method of delivery. For grades III/IV, an elective caesarean section is recommended between 37-38 weeks. However, if the placenta is grade I, a trial of vaginal delivery may be offered. If a woman with known placenta praevia goes into labour before the elective caesarean section, an emergency caesarean section should be performed due to the risk of post-partum haemorrhage.
In cases where placenta praevia is accompanied by bleeding, the woman should be admitted and an ABC approach should be taken to stabilise her. If stabilisation is not possible, an emergency caesarean section should be performed. If the woman is in labour or has reached term, an emergency caesarean section is also necessary.
The prognosis for placenta praevia has improved significantly, and death is now extremely rare. The major cause of death in women with placenta praevia is post-partum haemorrhage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 9
Correct
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A 75-year-old woman with mild chronic heart failure and a baseline eGFR of 58 ml/min (> 90 ml/min) and normal electrolytes, reports to her doctor about breathlessness and increasing pedal oedema. She is prescribed a diuretic and her serum biochemistry is rechecked after two weeks, revealing hypokalaemia, hyponatraemia, and hypocalcaemia. What is the most probable diuretic that she was prescribed?
Your Answer: Furosemide
Explanation:Overview of Common Diuretics and Their Mechanisms of Action and Side-Effects
Diuretics are commonly used medications that increase urine output and help to reduce fluid overload in various medical conditions. There are different types of diuretics, each with a unique mechanism of action and associated side-effects. Here is an overview of some of the most commonly used diuretics:
Furosemide: This is a loop diuretic that works by blocking the reabsorption of sodium, potassium, and chloride in the thick ascending loop of Henle. It can cause side-effects such as hyponatraemia, hypokalaemia, and gout.
Amiloride: This is a potassium-sparing diuretic that works by preventing sodium binding in the distal convoluted tubule, leading to natriuresis and diuresis while conserving potassium. It can cause hyperkalaemia and other side-effects such as hypotension and dehydration.
Bendroflumethiazide: This is a thiazide diuretic that works by inhibiting sodium and chloride reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule. It can cause side-effects such as hyponatraemia, hypokalaemia, and hypercalcaemia.
Indapamide: This is a thiazide-like diuretic that works similarly to bendroflumethiazide and can cause similar side-effects.
Spironolactone: This is a potassium-sparing diuretic that works by blocking aldosterone receptors in the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct, leading to natriuresis, diuresis, and reabsorption of potassium. It can cause hyponatraemia and hyperkalaemia.
It is important to note that diuretics can have significant effects on electrolyte balance and other aspects of fluid and electrolyte homeostasis. Therefore, their use should be carefully monitored and adjusted as needed to avoid adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with sudden onset of palpitations and shortness of breath. She is speaking in broken sentences and appears distressed, with visible sweating. Her vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 70/30, heart rate 180 bpm, respiratory rate 28, and sats 98% on air. Upon auscultation, there are crepitations at both lung bases. The patient reports experiencing crushing chest pain during the assessment. A 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals a regular broad complex tachycardia. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer: Loading dose of intravenous (iv) amiodarone 300 mg
Correct Answer: Sedation and synchronised direct current (DC) shock
Explanation:Management of Ventricular Tachycardia with a Pulse: Choosing the Right Intervention
When faced with a patient in ventricular tachycardia (VT) with a pulse, the presence of adverse signs is a crucial factor in determining the appropriate intervention. Adverse signs such as syncope, chest pain, heart failure, and altered consciousness indicate imminent risk of deterioration and potential cardiac arrest. In such cases, prompt direct current (DC) cardioversion is necessary, and sedation may be required if the patient is conscious.
While drug therapy may be an option in the absence of adverse signs, it is unlikely to work quickly enough in the presence of such signs. For instance, an amiodarone loading dose may not be effective in a patient with heart failure and shock. Similarly, beta blockers like iv metoprolol are not indicated in the acute management of VT with a pulse.
In contrast, immediate precordial thump has limited utility and is only indicated in a witnessed monitored cardiac arrest. A fluid challenge may be given, but it is unlikely to address the underlying problem. Therefore, in the presence of adverse signs, DC shock is the best option for managing VT with a pulse.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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