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Question 1
Correct
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A healthy 26-year-old archaeologist has been experiencing an itchy, raised erythematous rash on his forearms for the past 2 weeks. Loratadine has provided some relief for the itch, and occasionally the rash disappears within a few hours. However, in the last day, the rash has spread to his back and loratadine is no longer effective. The patient has no known allergies or triggers and is feeling well otherwise. What should be the next course of action for management?
Your Answer: Trial of an oral corticosteroid
Explanation:It is likely that the patient is experiencing a severe urticarial rash, which is a common condition that doesn’t require a dermatology appointment or further investigations at this stage. The patient is stable and not showing signs of anaphylaxis. To investigate further, a symptom diary would be sufficient, especially with exposure to different work environments as an archaeologist. The first-line treatment would be a non-sedating antihistamine such as loratadine or cetirizine. However, if the urticaria is severe, as in this case, a short course of oral corticosteroids may be necessary.
Urticaria is a condition characterized by the swelling of the skin, either locally or generally. It is commonly caused by an allergic reaction, although non-allergic causes are also possible. The affected skin appears pale or pink and is raised, resembling hives, wheals, or nettle rash. It is also accompanied by itching or pruritus. The first-line treatment for urticaria is non-sedating antihistamines, while prednisolone is reserved for severe or resistant cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Ben is a 56-year-old who has been diagnosed with diabetes and is requesting a 'Medical exemption certificate'. What form should you fill out?
Your Answer: DS1500
Correct Answer: FP92A
Explanation:The correct answer is the FP92A form, which is a medical exemption certificate that can be claimed to entitle a patient to free prescriptions. This form can be claimed if a patient has certain conditions, such as a permanent fistula or diabetes mellitus.
The FP57 form is an NHS receipt for payment of a prescription, which can be used to claim money back later. The GMS1 form is completed by new patients when registering with a GP surgery. The DS1500 form is completed by a doctor for patients with a terminal illness, allowing them to apply for certain benefits.
Prescription Charges in England: Who is Eligible for Free Prescriptions?
In England, prescription charges apply to most medications, but certain groups of people are entitled to free prescriptions. These include children under 16, those aged 16-18 in full-time education, the elderly (aged 60 or over), and individuals who receive income support or jobseeker’s allowance. Additionally, patients with a prescription exemption certificate are exempt from prescription charges.
Certain medications are also exempt from prescription charges, such as contraceptives, STI treatments, hospital prescriptions, and medications administered by a GP.
Women who are pregnant or have had a child in the past year, as well as individuals with certain chronic medical conditions, are eligible for a prescription exemption certificate. These conditions include hypoparathyroidism, hypoadrenalism, diabetes insipidus, diabetes mellitus, myasthenia gravis, hypothyroidism, epilepsy, and certain types of cancer.
For patients who are not eligible for free prescriptions but receive frequent prescriptions, a pre-payment certificate (PPC) may be a cost-effective option. PPCs are cheaper if the patient pays for more than 14 prescriptions per year.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of fatigue and dyspnoea that have been getting worse over the past three months. He is typically healthy and has no family history of heart or lung disease or sudden death.
During the examination, he seems nervous and fidgety, has an elevated jugular venous pressure (JVP), an enlarged heart, a loud third heart sound, and peripheral swelling. An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals sinus tachycardia (ST) with a heart rate of 110 beats per minute (bpm) (normal range: 60-100 bpm).
Based on the probable diagnosis, what is the most probable cause of this patient's symptoms? Choose only ONE option.Your Answer: Sarcoidosis
Correct Answer: Cocaine
Explanation:Causes of Dilated Cardiomyopathy: A Brief Overview
Dilated cardiomyopathy is a condition that often presents as congestive heart failure, with symptoms such as dyspnoea, fatigue, and weakness. There are several potential causes of dilated cardiomyopathy, including cocaine use, amyloidosis, and sarcoidosis.
Cocaine use can directly damage the heart, leading to heart failure, while amyloidosis can cause both dilated and restrictive cardiomyopathy. Sarcoidosis, a chronic inflammatory condition, is a rare cause of dilated cardiomyopathy.
Other substances, such as cannabis and benzodiazepines, are not typically associated with cardiomyopathy. However, chronic cannabis use can lead to other heart and lung conditions, while abrupt withdrawal from benzodiazepines can cause a rare form of cardiomyopathy called Takotsubo cardiomyopathy.
Overall, it is important to identify the underlying cause of dilated cardiomyopathy in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 4
Correct
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You come across a 27-year-old male patient who complains of a painful red right eye. He mentions that the eye has been watering and he feels that his vision has worsened in the right eye. The pain has been persistent for approximately 4 days now, and he recalls that it started with a rash around his eye. He has no regular medication and is generally healthy. He wears glasses and doesn't use contact lenses.
Upon examination, you observe that the acuity in the right eye has decreased and it appears diffusely red. The pupils are equal and reactive. You notice some crusted lesions along the lid margin. After staining the eye, you see a dendritic looking lesion which is enhanced by the staining.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Herpes simplex ophthalmicus
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for a patient with a red, painful eye with discharge, decreased acuity, and a dendritic ulcer on staining is herpes simplex ophthalmicus. It is crucial to refer all suspected cases of ophthalmic herpes to an ophthalmology clinic for immediate evaluation.
Although a corneal abrasion could also cause staining, the presence of lesions on the eyelid makes a dendritic ulcer more likely to be caused by herpes infection.
Blepharitis, which causes eyelid inflammation, typically presents with burning and itching, and both eyelids sticking together. There would be no abnormality on staining the eye.
Episcleritis, characterized by segmental redness, normal vision, normal pupil reactions, and no abnormality on corneal staining, is another possible differential diagnosis.
Anterior uveitis, which causes inflammation in the anterior segment of the eye, presents with a red, painful eye, reduced vision, flashes/floaters, and abnormal pupil shape or size. The presence of cells in the aqueous humour is a characteristic sign. The pain is not as severe as scleritis.
Understanding the Causes of Red Eye
Red eye is a common condition that can be caused by various factors. It is important to identify the underlying cause of red eye to determine the appropriate treatment. Some causes of red eye require urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Here are some key distinguishing features of different causes of red eye:
Acute angle closure glaucoma is characterized by severe pain, decreased visual acuity, and a semi-dilated pupil. The patient may also see haloes and have a hazy cornea.
Anterior uveitis has an acute onset and is accompanied by pain, blurred vision, and photophobia. The pupil is small and fixed, and there may be ciliary flush.
Scleritis is characterized by severe pain and tenderness, which may be worse on movement. It may be associated with an underlying autoimmune disease such as rheumatoid arthritis.
Conjunctivitis may be bacterial or viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is characterized by purulent discharge, while viral conjunctivitis has a clear discharge.
Subconjunctival haemorrhage may be caused by trauma or coughing bouts.
Endophthalmitis typically occurs after intraocular surgery and is characterized by a red eye, pain, and visual loss.
By understanding the different causes of red eye and their distinguishing features, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate treatment and referral when necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 5
Correct
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A 6-year-old girl has started soiling her pants. She was apparently toilet-trained prior to this happening.
Which of these features is MOST COMMONLY found in children with faecal incontinence?Your Answer: History of painful defaecation
Explanation:Understanding Functional Incontinence in Children
Functional incontinence in children is often associated with a history of constipation or painful defecation. This may have been caused by an anal fissure, which can lead to ongoing issues with bowel movements. Children with functional incontinence may exhibit retentive posturing and withholding behavior, but any behavioral difficulties associated with soiling are likely a result of the incontinence rather than its cause.
Symptoms of functional incontinence include frequent low-volume solid stools, which can be so large that they block the toilet. Children may also be aware of soiling but deny the urge to defecate associated with their episodes. In some cases, they may be unable to differentiate between passing gas and passing feces. On examination, stools may be palpable in the abdomen or rectum.
Non-retentive fecal incontinence is a less common form of functional incontinence, typically seen in children over 4 years old with no evidence of constipation. In this form, stools are more likely to be passed in inappropriate places. There may be an associated oppositional defiant disorder or conduct disorder.
Overall, understanding the symptoms and causes of functional incontinence in children can help parents and healthcare providers address the issue and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl comes to see you with her father. She is known to have a mild learning disability but he is now more concerned about her behaviour.
She tends to speak very little and when she does it is in a monotonic way. She doesn't seem to understand jokes. She spends a lot of time alone and rarely seeks out the company of others. He says he finds it difficult to engage her in play; she just wants to play alone with her dolls.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
Correct Answer: Down syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Autism Spectrum Disorder
Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) is a condition that is often accompanied by a learning disability. Children with ASD typically experience difficulties with social communication, interaction, and imagination. These challenges can manifest in a variety of ways, such as difficulty making eye contact, trouble understanding social cues, and a lack of interest in imaginative play.
Despite the challenges that come with ASD, there have been significant advances in diagnosis and evaluation in recent years. With early intervention and support, children with ASD can learn to navigate the world around them and lead fulfilling lives. It is important for parents, caregivers, and educators to understand the unique needs of children with ASD and provide them with the resources and support they need to thrive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding the Delphi method is correct?
Your Answer: The panel should meet after each round to discuss the findings
Correct Answer: One of the key features is the anonymity of the participants
Explanation:The panel’s size can be expanded without any restrictions, except for resource constraints. It has been proposed that a minimum of seven individuals should be included.
The Delphi Process: A Method for Collecting Expert Knowledge
The Delphi process, also known as the Delphi method or technique, is a structured approach to gathering and distilling knowledge from a group of experts. This method is often used for issues where there is little formal evidence available. The process involves several rounds of questionnaires, with the first round asking broad questions to the experts. The results of the first round are then analyzed and common themes are identified. This information is used to create a more specific questionnaire for the second round, which is sent back to the panel of experts. This iterative process is repeated two or three times.
The Delphi method can be used in various fields, such as curriculum development, guideline development, and forecasting future health problems. For example, a group of expert stakeholders may be involved in determining what should be included in a curriculum. The expert panel for guideline development may include doctors, nurses, pharmacists, and patients. Anonymity is a key feature of the Delphi process, as it prevents individual participants from dominating the opinion-forming process. Overall, the Delphi process is a useful tool for collecting and synthesizing expert knowledge.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man is admitted to hospital with shortness of breath. He is diagnosed with atrial fibrillation and heart failure.
Whilst in hospital he is started on:
Aspirin 75 mg OD
Simvastatin 40 mg ON
Bisoprolol 5 mg OD
Digoxin 125 mcg OD
Ramipril 10 mg OD and
Furosemide 40 mg OD.
He comes to see you a few days after discharge complaining of feeling generally unwell. His wife tells you that he has been a bit confused and that he has vomited on several occasions. The patient also reports that his vision is blurred and has a yellow tinge to it.
On examination, he is in atrial fibrillation at a rate of 60 beats per minute, his chest is clear and he has minimal pedal oedema.
He was seen two days ago by the practice nurse for blood tests.
The results showed
Sodium 136 mmol/L (137 - 144)
Potassium 2.8 mmol/L (3.5 - 4.9)
Urea 6.4 mmol/L (2.5 - 7.5)
Creatinine 124 μmol/L (60 - 110)
What is the underlying cause of his unwellness?Your Answer: Liver failure
Correct Answer: Renal artery stenosis
Explanation:Symptoms of Digoxin Toxicity
This patient is exhibiting symptoms of digoxin toxicity, which can occur when taking the medication for heart failure or atrial fibrillation. Hypokalaemia increases the risk of developing digoxin toxicity, which can cause confusion, vomiting, blurred vision, and xanthopsia (yellow tinge to vision). While confusion may also indicate an embolic CVA, the other symptoms do not fit. Liver failure would cause jaundice, but the patient’s vision has a yellow tinge, not their sclerae. Renal artery stenosis is usually suspected if renal function deteriorates after starting an ACE inhibitor, but the patient’s urea is normal. Therefore, the patient should be admitted to the hospital immediately for assessment and treatment. Digoxin-specific antibody fragments (Digibind ®) are available for use in cases of life-threatening overdosage, and may be necessary beyond withdrawing the digoxin and correcting any electrolyte abnormalities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 9
Correct
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An 85-year-old man patient of yours is discharged from hospital after receiving treatment for a urinary tract infection.
Three days after discharge the lab calls you to say that they received a urine sample before his discharge and there was E. coli present in the urine. However, there are no signs of infection. You call the man back to your surgery to check that he is okay. He has no pain while urinating and says he feels much better.
Which of the following is the best course of action?Your Answer: Treatment with vancomycin
Explanation:Management of Asymptomatic Clostridium difficile Infection
A watch and wait policy is recommended for patients with asymptomatic Clostridium difficile infection. Mild cases may not require specific antibiotic treatment, but if necessary, oral metronidazole is the preferred option (dose: 400-500 mg tds for 10-14 days). This has been shown to be as effective as oral vancomycin in mild to moderate cases.
For those who wish to read in greater detail, the link below contains the latest guidance and analysis. However, it is important to note that the information provided is more detailed than what is required for the average GP and only a broad understanding of the management and national recommendations is expected for the exam.
In this case, the patient is asymptomatic and there are no toxins present, therefore no treatment is necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old patient who has just enrolled in college comes in for a meningitis ACWY vaccine. While waiting, he notices a poster about Chlamydia screening and inquires about getting tested despite not experiencing any symptoms.
What type of sample needs to be collected for the test?Your Answer: None - not indicated in absence of symptoms
Correct Answer: Urine
Explanation:The most appropriate screening test for asymptomatic males to detect chlamydia is a urine test. This is preferred over blood serology, urethral swab, or semen sample as it is less invasive and has similar sensitivity to urethral swab. It is important to note that Chlamydia infection can often be asymptomatic, so screening is still recommended even in the absence of symptoms.
Chlamydia is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the UK caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is often asymptomatic but can cause cervicitis and dysuria in women and urethral discharge and dysuria in men. Complications include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility. Testing is done through nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) on urine or swab samples. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years. Doxycycline is the first-line treatment, but azithromycin may be used if contraindicated. Partners should be notified and treated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of pain in both lower legs while running. The pain gradually intensifies after a brief period of running, causing him to stop. However, the pain quickly subsides when he is at rest. Upon examination, there are no abnormal findings, and his peripheral pulses are all palpable. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Peripheral vascular disease
Correct Answer: Osgood-Schlatter's disease
Explanation:Chronic Exertional Compartment Syndrome
Chronic exertional compartment syndrome (CECS) is a condition that causes exertional leg pain due to the fascial compartment being unable to accommodate the increased volume of the muscle during exercise. It is often mistaken for peripheral arterial disease.
If you experience exertional leg pain with tenderness over the middle of the muscle compartment but no bony tenderness, it may be a sign of CECS. This condition should be suspected when there is no evidence of tibial tuberosity pain, which is common in Osgood-Schlatter’s disease.
Referral for pre- and post-exertional pressure testing may be necessary, and if conservative measures are unsuccessful, a fasciotomy may be required.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 12
Incorrect
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What are the two drug classes that should not be used as a primary treatment for Parkinson's disease?
Your Answer: Monoamine oxidase inhibitors
Correct Answer: Anticholinergics
Explanation:First Line Treatments for Parkinson’s Disease
Parkinson’s disease (PD) is a neurological disorder that affects movement and can cause tremors, stiffness, and difficulty with coordination. When it comes to treating PD, there are several options available, but not all of them are suitable as first-line treatments.
Anticholinergics, for example, should be avoided as a first-line treatment due to their association with an increased frequency of neuropsychiatric and cognitive adverse effects. This is especially important to consider for PD patients with cognitive impairment or clinically significant psychiatric illness.
On the other hand, there are other options that can be used as first-line treatments, such as levodopa, dopamine agonists, and monoamine oxidase B inhibitors. However, ergot-derived dopamine agonists like cabergoline and pergolide should not be used as first-line treatments due to the risk of cardiac fibrosis with long-term use and the need for additional monitoring.
In summary, it’s important to carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of different treatment options for PD, and to choose the most appropriate first-line treatment based on the individual patient’s needs and medical history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old child is brought to the emergency room by her mother after she noticed a red rash on her daughter's legs that doesn't disappear when pressed. The child has been unwell with a fever and cough since yesterday, but her symptoms have worsened throughout the day. The mother is worried because her daughter is also complaining of a headache and has cold hands and feet. During the examination, the child is found to have a petechial rash on her lower legs and a temperature of 38.4ºC. The mother reports that her daughter is allergic to penicillin and had a rash and vomiting after taking amoxicillin for an ear infection 2 years ago. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Phone 999 + administer oral clarithromycin 250mg stat
Correct Answer: Phone 999 + administer intramuscular benzylpenicillin
Explanation:Understanding Meningococcal Septicaemia
Meningococcal septicaemia is a serious condition that can cause high morbidity and mortality if not treated early. It is the leading infectious cause of death in early childhood, making it crucial to have a high index of suspicion. According to the 2010 NICE guidelines, meningococcal disease can present as meningitis, septicaemia, or a combination of both.
NICE divides the symptoms of meningococcal septicaemia into three categories: common nonspecific symptoms/signs, less common nonspecific symptoms/signs, and more specific symptoms/signs. Common nonspecific symptoms/signs include fever, vomiting, and lethargy, while less common nonspecific symptoms/signs include chills and shivering. More specific symptoms/signs include a non-blanching rash, altered mental state, capillary refill time more than 2 seconds, unusual skin colour, shock, hypotension, leg pain, and cold hands/feet.
If meningococcal septicaemia is suspected, it is important to give intramuscular or intravenous benzylpenicillin unless there is a history of anaphylaxis. However, if giving benzylpenicillin will delay hospital transfer, it should not be given. NICE recommends phoning 999 in case of suspected meningococcal septicaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old Indian woman contacts her doctor for guidance. She is currently 12 weeks pregnant and was in close proximity to her nephew who has been diagnosed with Chickenpox. The patient spent a few hours with her nephew and had physical contact such as hugging. The patient reports feeling fine and has no noticeable symptoms. She is unsure if she has had Chickenpox before.
What is the best course of action in this scenario?Your Answer: Prescribe oral aciclovir
Correct Answer: Check antibody levels
Explanation:When a pregnant woman is exposed to Chickenpox, it can lead to serious complications for both her and the developing fetus. To prevent this, the first step is to check the woman’s immune status by testing for varicella antibodies. If she is found to be non-immune, she should receive varicella-zoster immune globulin (VZIG) as soon as possible for post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP).
It is important to note that the management and organization of the blood test can be arranged by the GP, although the midwife should also be informed. If the woman is less than 20 weeks pregnant and non-immune, VZIG should be given immediately, but it may still be effective up to 10 days after exposure.
For pregnant women who develop Chickenpox after 20 weeks of gestation, oral aciclovir or an equivalent antiviral should be started within 24 hours of rash onset. However, if the woman is less than 20 weeks pregnant, it is recommended to seek specialist advice.
It is crucial to take action and not simply provide reassurance in cases where the woman is found to be non-immune to varicella, as both she and the fetus are at risk.
Chickenpox Exposure in Pregnancy: Risks and Management
Chickenpox is caused by the varicella-zoster virus and can pose risks to both the mother and fetus during pregnancy. The mother is at a five times greater risk of pneumonitis, while the fetus is at risk of developing fetal varicella syndrome (FVS) if the mother is exposed to Chickenpox before 20 weeks gestation. FVS can result in skin scarring, eye defects, limb hypoplasia, microcephaly, and learning disabilities. There is also a risk of shingles in infancy and severe neonatal varicella if the mother develops a rash between 5 days before and 2 days after birth.
To manage Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy, post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) may be necessary. If the pregnant woman is not immune to varicella, VZIG or antivirals may be given within 10 days of exposure. Waiting until days 7-14 is recommended to reduce the risk of developing clinical varicella. However, the decision on choice of PEP for women exposed from 20 weeks of pregnancy should take into account patient and health professional preference as well as the ability to offer and provide PEP in a timely manner.
If a pregnant woman develops Chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought. Oral aciclovir may be given if the pregnant woman is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash. However, caution should be exercised if the woman is < 20 weeks. Overall, managing Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy requires careful consideration of the risks and benefits to both the mother and fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 15
Correct
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A 28-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner in a state of distress. He reports that he has been abusing opiates and has suddenly stopped, experiencing withdrawal symptoms. Which of the following features is NOT typical of opiate withdrawal?
Your Answer: Constricted pupils
Explanation:Understanding Opioid Withdrawal Syndrome: Symptoms and Signs
Opioid withdrawal syndrome can be likened to a severe flu-like illness. The symptoms include rhinorrhea, sneezing, yawning, lacrimation, abdominal and leg cramping, gooseflesh, sweating, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and rapid heart rate. Patients may also feel anxious, tremulous, and restless. Dilated pupils are a common sign of opioid withdrawal and cannot be easily faked. Therefore, careful inspection of the pupils is necessary when a patient claims to be experiencing withdrawal symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 16
Incorrect
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For which children is it necessary to defer their polio vaccination and refer them to a child specialist for additional guidance?
Your Answer: A child with spina bifida
Correct Answer: A child with uncontrolled epilepsy
Explanation:Polio Vaccination and Neurological Conditions
The Department of Health’s ‘Green Book’ provides guidelines for polio vaccination and neurological conditions. According to the book, stable pre-existing neurological conditions such as spina bifida and congenital brain abnormalities do not prevent polio vaccination. However, if a child has an unstable or deteriorating neurological condition, vaccination should be deferred, and the child should be referred to a specialist for further assessment and advice. This includes children with uncontrolled epilepsy.
It is important to note that a family history of seizures or epilepsy doesn’t prevent immunization. However, if there is a personal or family history of febrile seizures, there is an increased risk of these occurring after any fever, including post-immunization. In such cases, immunization should proceed as recommended, with advice on the prevention and management of fever beforehand.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 17
Incorrect
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You are assessing a 65-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with polymyalgia rheumatica and is undergoing treatment. She has been taking a gradually decreasing dose of prednisolone for the past 2 months. Currently, she is on a daily dose of 30 mg prednisolone, with a plan to decrease by 5mg each week. Although her symptoms are under control, she is concerned about the possibility of developing osteoporosis and asks if she should be on any medication for this. She has no history of fractures and no other risk factors for osteoporosis.
What advice would you give her?Your Answer: Advise to commence vitamin D supplementation only
Correct Answer: Calculate the 10 year fragility fracture risk score to guide further investigation and treatment
Explanation:Patients who take the equivalent of 7.5mg prednisolone daily for 3 months or more are at risk of developing osteoporosis and require bone protection. In this case, the patient has already been on a higher dose of prednisolone for the past 2 months and will continue treatment for at least another 6 weeks, making her susceptible to osteoporosis. Therefore, it is crucial to evaluate her 10-year fragility fracture risk score. Abruptly reducing or stopping the prednisolone could be hazardous. While ensuring adequate calcium and vitamin D intake is essential, the patient needs a comprehensive risk assessment and consideration of bisphosphonate therapy while still on steroids.
Managing Osteoporosis Risk in Patients on Corticosteroids
Osteoporosis is a significant risk for patients taking corticosteroids, which are commonly used in clinical practice. To manage this risk appropriately, the 2002 Royal College of Physicians (RCP) guidelines provide a concise guide to prevention and treatment. According to these guidelines, the risk of osteoporosis increases significantly once a patient takes the equivalent of prednisolone 7.5mg a day for three or more months. Therefore, it is crucial to manage patients in an anticipatory manner, starting bone protection immediately if it is likely that the patient will need to take steroids for at least three months.
The RCP guidelines divide patients into two groups based on age and fragility fracture history. Patients over the age of 65 years or those who have previously had a fragility fracture should be offered bone protection. For patients under the age of 65 years, a bone density scan should be offered, and further management depends on the T score. If the T score is greater than 0, patients can be reassured. If the T score is between 0 and -1.5, a repeat bone density scan should be done in 1-3 years. If the T score is less than -1.5, bone protection should be offered.
The first-line treatment for corticosteroid-induced osteoporosis is alendronate. Patients should also be replete in calcium and vitamin D. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can effectively manage the risk of osteoporosis in patients taking corticosteroids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 18
Correct
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A 30-year-old man observed a painless papule on the glans of his penis that turned into an ulcer within a few days. Upon examination, a solitary, circular, hardened ulcer is visible.
What is the MOST PROBABLE diagnosis? Choose only ONE option.Your Answer: Syphilis
Explanation:Primary Syphilis: The First Sign and Symptoms
Primary syphilis is characterized by the appearance of a small, painless papule that quickly turns into an ulcer known as a chancre. This ulcer is typically solitary, round or oval, painless, and surrounded by a bright-red margin. Unlike other open syphilitic lesions, it is not usually infected with secondary bacteria. Treponema pallidum, the bacteria responsible for syphilis, can be detected in the serum from the sore, which can be easily obtained by slightly abrading the base. If left untreated, primary syphilis can progress to more severe stages of the disease. Therefore, it is important to seek medical attention if you suspect you may have syphilis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Jane, age 14, comes to morning surgery requesting the contraceptive pill. She looks a lot older than her age. You have to decide whether to prescribe or not.
The Sexual Offences Act 2003 considers children under what age as too young to give consent to sexual activity?Your Answer: Under 14 years
Correct Answer: Under 13 years
Explanation:Child Protection and Sexual Offences
The Sexual Offences Act 2003 states that children under the age of 13 are not capable of giving consent to sexual activity. Any sexual offence involving a child under 13 should be treated with utmost seriousness. Health professionals should consider referring such cases to social services under the Child Protection Procedures. It is advisable to seek advice from designated child protection professionals in the first instance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) for a consultation. He has a history of substance abuse and is starting opioid substitution therapy. He is worried about relapsing and asks several specific questions.
What is the most probable factor that could raise the risk of overdose during methadone titration at the beginning of this patient's treatment?Your Answer: High opioid tolerance
Correct Answer: Concurrent use of other drugs
Explanation:When prescribing methadone for opioid abuse, caution must be taken to avoid overdose, especially in the first 2-3 days and within the first two weeks of treatment. Concurrent use of other drugs, such as alcohol, benzodiazepines, and antidepressants, can increase the risk of overdose. Patients with low opioid tolerance, shorter history of drug use, or lower levels of drug use are also at higher risk. To mitigate this risk, starting doses of 10-20 mg of methadone should be used, with increases of 5-10 mg a day and a maximum of 30 mg a week for the first 2 weeks. Methadone is excreted slowly during the first few days of treatment, which increases the risk of overdose. Frequent review and monitoring is important during this period. Methadone patients should also be informed of the increasing effect of a dose as steady state is achieved. Co-existing mental health problems may also respond to appropriate methadone dosing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of headaches, nausea and vomiting, and blurred vision that have been going on for two days.
She has been wearing glasses since she was a child due to her long-sightedness. She has a history of severe migraines and was recently prescribed a prophylactic medication by her GP.
During the examination, both of her eyes appear red, and her pupils are mid-dilated and unreactive in both eyes.
What is the probable medication responsible for this presentation?Your Answer: Propranolol
Correct Answer: Topiramate
Explanation:Topiramate: Mechanisms of Action and Contraceptive Considerations
Topiramate is a medication primarily used to treat seizures. It can be used alone or in combination with other drugs. The drug has multiple mechanisms of action, including blocking voltage-gated Na+ channels, increasing GABA action, and inhibiting carbonic anhydrase. The latter effect results in a decrease in urinary citrate excretion and the formation of alkaline urine, which favors the creation of calcium phosphate stones.
Topiramate is known to induce the P450 enzyme CYP3A4, which can reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. Therefore, the Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Health (FSRH) recommends that patients taking topiramate consider alternative forms of contraception. For example, the combined oral contraceptive pill and progestogen-only pill are not recommended, while the implant is generally considered safe.
Topiramate can cause several side effects, including reduced appetite and weight loss, dizziness, paraesthesia, lethargy, and poor concentration. However, the most significant risk associated with topiramate is the potential for fetal malformations. Additionally, rare but important side effects include acute myopia and secondary angle-closure glaucoma. Overall, topiramate is a useful medication for treating seizures, but patients should be aware of its potential side effects and contraceptive considerations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman presents with a 3-week episode of insomnia, increased psychomotor activity and impulsivity. There is no history of substance abuse, general medical problems, emotional stresses or depressive episodes. Laboratory tests for liver and thyroid functions are normal. Mental status examination reveals a well-oriented woman with pressured speech and mood lability, but no psychotic symptoms.
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer: Anxiety
Correct Answer: Hypomania
Explanation:Understanding Hypomania and Antisocial Personality Disorder
Hypomania is a mood disorder characterized by an elevated and euphoric mood, increased activity, decreased need for sleep, and impaired judgement. It is a feature of bipolar disorder 2 and cyclothymia, and can also occur in drug-induced mood disorders. Antisocial personality disorder, on the other hand, is characterized by a disregard for and violation of others’ rights since age 15, and typically presents in adulthood. It is important to distinguish between these two disorders, as they have different diagnostic criteria and treatment approaches.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 23
Correct
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A 27-year-old woman presents to the GP clinic with complaints of abdominal pain. She missed her last menstrual period and had unprotected sexual intercourse 8 weeks ago. She denies any vaginal discharge or bleeding and has no urinary symptoms.
During the examination, her abdomen is soft, but there is mild tenderness in the suprapubic region. Her heart rate is 72 beats per minute, blood pressure is 118/78 mmHg, and she has no fever. A pregnancy test is performed, and it comes back positive.
As per the current NICE CKS guidelines, what would be the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer: Arrange immediate referral to the early pregnancy assessment unit
Explanation:Women with a positive pregnancy test and abdominal, pelvic or cervical motion tenderness should be immediately referred for assessment to exclude ectopic pregnancy, which could be fatal. Referral should be made even if an ultrasound cannot be arranged immediately, as the patient may require monitoring in hospital. Serial hCG measurements should not be done in secondary care, and referral to a sexual health clinic alone is not appropriate.
Bleeding in the First Trimester: Causes and Management
Bleeding in the first trimester of pregnancy is a common concern for women, often leading them to seek medical attention. The main causes of bleeding during this time include miscarriage, ectopic pregnancy, implantation bleeding, cervical ectropion, vaginitis, trauma, and polyps. Of these causes, ectopic pregnancy is the most important to rule out as it can be life-threatening if missed.
To manage early bleeding, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released guidelines in 2019. If a woman has a positive pregnancy test and experiences pain, abdominal or pelvic tenderness, or cervical motion tenderness, she should be referred immediately to an early pregnancy assessment service. If the pregnancy is over six weeks gestation or of uncertain gestation and the woman experiences bleeding, she should also be referred to an early pregnancy assessment service. A transvaginal ultrasound scan is the most important investigation to identify the location of the pregnancy and whether there is a fetal pole and heartbeat.
For pregnancies under six weeks gestation and no pain or risk factors for ectopic pregnancy, expectant management is appropriate. Women should be advised to return if bleeding continues or pain develops, to repeat a urine pregnancy test after 7-10 days and to return if it is positive. A negative pregnancy test indicates a miscarriage. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can effectively manage bleeding in the first trimester and ensure the safety of both the mother and the developing fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 24
Correct
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Sophie is a 13-year-old girl who arrives at the paediatric emergency department with a worsening of her asthma symptoms. During the examination, she exhibits plastral wheezing when auscultated. Sophie's respiratory rate is 30 breaths per minute, her heart rate is 110 beats per minute, and her oxygen saturation level on air is 91%. Additionally, her peak flow is only 40% of her usual peak flow.
As per NICE guidelines, which of the above criteria indicates that Sophie's asthma exacerbation is life-threatening?Your Answer: Saturations of 91%
Explanation:Assessing the severity of asthma attacks in children is crucial for effective management. The 2016 BTS/SIGN guidelines provide criteria for assessing the severity of asthma in general practice. These criteria include measuring SpO2 levels, PEF (peak expiratory flow) rates, heart rate, respiratory rate, use of accessory neck muscles, and other symptoms such as breathlessness, agitation, altered consciousness, and cyanosis.
A severe asthma attack is characterized by a SpO2 level below 92%, PEF rates between 33-50% of the best or predicted, being too breathless to talk or feed, and a high heart and respiratory rate. On the other hand, a life-threatening asthma attack is indicated by a SpO2 level below 92%, PEF rates below 33% of the best or predicted, a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, use of accessory neck muscles, agitation, altered consciousness, and cyanosis.
It is important for healthcare professionals to be familiar with these criteria to ensure prompt and appropriate management of asthma attacks in children. Early recognition of the severity of an asthma attack can help prevent complications and reduce the risk of hospitalization or death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 25
Correct
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The mother of a 10-year-old boy with Down's syndrome wanted advice about what sporting activities were safe for her child as she heard his neck is not as stable as other children's.
Which is the SINGLE MOST appropriate piece of advice to be given?Your Answer: He can play most sports, but specialised sports such as gymnastics require screening
Explanation:Cervical Spine Injury in Sports
Playing sports doesn’t increase the risk of cervical spine injury any more than the general population. In fact, specialised sports like gymnastics have protocols to screen for craniovertebral instability. There is no evidence to support the use of a neck brace for sports-related cervical spine injuries.
However, individuals with Down’s syndrome may be at a higher risk of craniovertebral instability or myelopathy. Warning signs include neck pain, abnormal head posture, reduced neck movements, deterioration of gait, increased frequency of falls, increasing fatigability on walking, or deterioration of manipulative skills. If someone with Down’s syndrome presents with these symptoms, they should immediately stop participating in sports and seek urgent assessment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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An individual who is 70 years old has been diagnosed with prostate cancer and is prescribed goserelin (Zoladex). During the first three weeks of treatment, what is the most crucial medication to co-prescribe?
Your Answer: Lansoprazole
Correct Answer: Cyproterone acetate
Explanation:To prevent tumour flare, it is recommended to co-prescribe anti-androgen treatment like cyproterone acetate when initiating gonadorelin analogues. This is because the initial stimulation of luteinising hormone release by the pituitary gland can lead to an increase in testosterone levels. According to the BNF, cyproterone acetate should be started three days prior to the gonadorelin analogue.
Prostate cancer management varies depending on the stage of the disease and the patient’s life expectancy and preferences. For localized prostate cancer (T1/T2), treatment options include active monitoring, watchful waiting, radical prostatectomy, and radiotherapy (external beam and brachytherapy). For localized advanced prostate cancer (T3/T4), options include hormonal therapy, radical prostatectomy, and radiotherapy. Patients may develop proctitis and are at increased risk of bladder, colon, and rectal cancer following radiotherapy for prostate cancer.
In cases of metastatic prostate cancer, reducing androgen levels is a key aim of treatment. A combination of approaches is often used, including anti-androgen therapy, synthetic GnRH agonist or antagonists, bicalutamide, cyproterone acetate, abiraterone, and bilateral orchidectomy. GnRH agonists, such as Goserelin (Zoladex), initially cause a rise in testosterone levels before falling to castration levels. To prevent a rise in testosterone, anti-androgens are often used to cover the initial therapy. GnRH antagonists, such as degarelix, are being evaluated to suppress testosterone while avoiding the flare phenomenon. Chemotherapy with docetaxel is also an option for the treatment of hormone-relapsed metastatic prostate cancer in patients who have no or mild symptoms after androgen deprivation therapy has failed, and before chemotherapy is indicated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 90-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 4-week history of sleep difficulties. She reports difficulty falling asleep and waking up early in the morning, leading to fatigue. Her daughter mentions that she was seen in a COTE clinic 6 weeks ago for memory problems and started on a medication, but cannot recall the name. The patient has a medical history of COPD, restless legs syndrome (treated with pramipexole), and ischaemic heart disease. She was also treated for an infective COPD exacerbation with amoxicillin 3 weeks ago. Which medication is most likely causing her symptoms?
Your Answer: Pramipexole
Correct Answer: Donepezil
Explanation:Insomnia is a possible side effect of donepezil.
Management of Alzheimer’s Disease
Alzheimer’s disease is a type of dementia that progressively affects the brain and is the most common form of dementia in the UK. There are both non-pharmacological and pharmacological management options available for patients with Alzheimer’s disease.
Non-pharmacological management involves offering activities that promote wellbeing and are tailored to the patient’s preferences. Group cognitive stimulation therapy, group reminiscence therapy, and cognitive rehabilitation are some of the options that can be considered.
Pharmacological management options include acetylcholinesterase inhibitors such as donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s disease. Memantine, an NMDA receptor antagonist, is a second-line treatment option that can be used for patients with moderate Alzheimer’s who are intolerant of or have a contraindication to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors. It can also be used as an add-on drug to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors for patients with moderate or severe Alzheimer’s or as monotherapy in severe Alzheimer’s.
When managing non-cognitive symptoms, NICE doesn’t recommend the use of antidepressants for mild to moderate depression in patients with dementia. Antipsychotics should only be used for patients at risk of harming themselves or others or when the agitation, hallucinations, or delusions are causing them severe distress.
It is important to note that donepezil is relatively contraindicated in patients with bradycardia, and adverse effects may include insomnia. Proper management of Alzheimer’s disease can improve the quality of life for patients and their caregivers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A young woman with haemophilia conceives with her husband and attends requesting information. Her husband has no family history of the disease (i.e. he is genetically normal in this context).
She asks about the chances of her offspring being affected by haemophilia.
Which of the following statements is correct?Your Answer: A daughter will have a 50% chance of being a carrier
Correct Answer: A son will not be affected
Explanation:Understanding Haemophilia Inheritance
Haemophilia is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. This means that the gene responsible for haemophilia is located on the X-chromosome. As a result, females who inherit one copy of the gene will be carriers of the disorder, but will not be affected by it as they have a normal X-chromosome that can compensate for the faulty one.
On the other hand, males who inherit the faulty X-chromosome from their mother will develop haemophilia as they do not have a second X-chromosome to compensate for the faulty one. However, males who inherit a normal X-chromosome from their mother will not develop haemophilia.
It is important to understand the inheritance pattern of haemophilia as it can help individuals make informed decisions about family planning and genetic testing. By knowing the risk of passing on the disorder to their children, individuals can take steps to prevent or manage the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 29
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman who is taking the 20 microgram ethinyloestrodiol combined pill contacts the clinic to report that she has missed a dose. She is currently on day 10 of her pack and it has been 24 hours since she was supposed to take her previous day's pill. What is the most suitable guidance to give her?
Your Answer: She should take the missed pill with today's and carry on with the pack
Explanation:Missed Birth Control Pills
When it comes to missed birth control pills, most of the advice and evidence is based on studies of the 35 mcg oestrogen combined pill. However, it’s important to note that the risk of pregnancy with a missed 20 mcg pill may be higher than with a larger dose pill. Despite this, the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) recommends that women take the missed pill and continue with the pack. Additional contraception is not required in this case.
If two or more pills are missed, it’s recommended to use barrier contraception for around seven days. It’s important to follow the instructions provided with your specific type of birth control pill and to speak with your healthcare provider if you have any concerns or questions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 30
Correct
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Your next patient is a 32-year-old teacher who has come for their annual review. Until around two years ago they used just a salbutamol inhaler as required. Following a series of exacerbations, they were started on a corticosteroid inhaler and currently takes Clenil (beclomethasone dipropionate) 400mcg bd. The patient reports that their asthma control has been 'good' for the past six months or so. They have had to use their asthma inhaler twice over the past six months, both times after going for a long jog. Their peak flow today is 520 l/min which is 90% of the best value recorded 5 years ago but up from the 510 l/min recorded 12 months ago. Their inhaler technique is good. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Your Answer: Decrease the Clenil dose to 200mcg bd
Explanation:If asthma is well controlled, it is advisable to reduce the treatment, as per the guidelines of the British Thoracic Society.
Stepping Down Asthma Treatment: BTS Guidelines
The British Thoracic Society (BTS) recommends that asthma treatment should be reviewed every three months to consider stepping down treatment. However, the guidelines do not suggest a strict move from one step to another but rather advise taking into account the duration of treatment, side-effects, and patient preference. When reducing the dose of inhaled steroids, the BTS suggests doing so by 25-50% at a time.
Patients with stable asthma may only require a formal review once a year. However, if a patient has recently had an escalation of asthma treatment, they are likely to be reviewed more frequently. It is important to follow the BTS guidelines to ensure that patients receive the appropriate level of treatment for their asthma and to avoid unnecessary side-effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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