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  • Question 1 - You do a house call to see a middle-aged gentleman with advanced colon...

    Incorrect

    • You do a house call to see a middle-aged gentleman with advanced colon cancer. He has been complaining of a sore mouth, retrosternal discomfort and dysphagia over the last one week.

      On examination he has obvious oral thrush.

      Which of the following management plans is most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Nystatin oral suspension 100,000 units QDS

      Correct Answer: Artificial saliva PRN

      Explanation:

      Managing Dry Mouth in Palliative Care

      Dry mouth is a common issue in palliative care, with various factors contributing to its development. If oral thrush is present, it should be treated accordingly. However, if there is no infective cause, simple measures such as good mouth care, chewing sugar-free gum, sucking ice cubes, or using artificial saliva can be effective. It is also important to review the patient’s medication, as certain drugs can cause dry mouth as a side effect, including opioids, antiemetics, and antimuscarinic drugs.

      In cases where the patient experiences symptoms of retrosternal discomfort and dysphagia, it may suggest candidal oesophagitis with more extensive disease than what is visible in the mouth. In such cases, oral miconazole gel and oral nystatin suspension may not be enough, and systemic treatment with oral fluconazole is necessary. Therefore, managing dry mouth in palliative care requires a comprehensive approach that considers the underlying causes and appropriate treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      65
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 30-year-old woman is brought to your office by her brother. He is...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman is brought to your office by her brother. He is concerned about her lack of close friends and her eccentric behavior, speech, and beliefs. The patient believes she has psychic abilities and is fascinated with the paranormal. Her brother reports that she has displayed these behaviors since childhood, but he is only seeking help now as he is moving to another state and worries about leaving her alone with their parents.

      What personality disorder could be present in this patient?

      Your Answer: Schizotypal personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Individuals with schizotypal personality disorder exhibit peculiar behavior, speech, and beliefs and typically do not have any close friends outside of their family.

      Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      147.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You are asked to see a 3-day-old newborn baby who was born by...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to see a 3-day-old newborn baby who was born by normal vaginal delivery without any complications. The parents report that the baby has suddenly become ill and deteriorated over the last few hours. The child is drowsy and lethargic, has a bulging fontanelle, and a high fever. You suspect meningitis and call for immediate transfer to the hospital.
      What is the most probable causative agent for this condition?

      Your Answer: Neisseria meningitidis

      Correct Answer: Group B Streptococcus

      Explanation:

      Newborn Meningitis: Signs, Causes, and Consequences

      Sepsis in newborns can cause nonspecific signs of unwellness, such as apnoeic episodes, drowsiness, lethargy, and irritability. However, meningitis in newborns may present differently, with a bulging fontanelle being a late and sometimes absent finding. The most common cause of meningitis in newborns is group B streptococcus (GBS), which is often transmitted vertically during labor and delivery. In some cases, infection may be delayed for up to one month.

      Meningitis as a whole has significant morbidity and mortality rates, with a mortality rate of 5-15% in infants. Even those who survive may experience learning difficulties, speech problems, visual impairment, and neural deafness. Recently, NICE has issued guidance on the prehospital care of patients with a clinical diagnosis of meningitis. It is crucial to recognize the signs of meningitis in newborns and seek prompt medical attention to prevent severe consequences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      53.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What amount of corticosteroid cream should be prescribed for two weeks to a...

    Incorrect

    • What amount of corticosteroid cream should be prescribed for two weeks to a teenager with eczema on the front and back of both hands?

      Your Answer: 60 g

      Correct Answer: 100 g

      Explanation:

      How to Measure and Apply Topical Corticosteroids

      Topical corticosteroids are commonly used to treat skin conditions such as eczema and psoriasis. It is important to apply them correctly to ensure maximum effectiveness and minimize side effects.

      To apply topical corticosteroids, spread a thin layer over the affected area, making sure to cover it completely. The amount of cream or ointment needed can be measured using a fingertip unit (ftu), which is the length of cream or ointment expelled from a tube from the tip of an adult index finger to the first crease. One ftu is approximately 0.5 g and is enough to cover an area twice the size of an adult hand (palm and fingers together).

      For example, to treat both hands for two weeks, 14 g of cream or ointment is needed. If the hands are frequently immersed in water, it may be necessary to apply the cream or ointment twice daily, in which case 15-30 g should be prescribed.

      By following these guidelines, patients can ensure that they are using the correct amount of topical corticosteroids and achieving the best possible results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      28.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A mother brings her 5-month old baby daughter to your clinic for a...

    Correct

    • A mother brings her 5-month old baby daughter to your clinic for a birthmark on her arm. Upon examination, you identify a small vascular plaque that doesn't seem to be causing any discomfort to the baby. Your diagnosis is a strawberry naevus. What would be the most suitable initial course of action?

      Your Answer: Watch and wait

      Explanation:

      A congenital haemangioma known as a strawberry naevus affects approximately one in 20 infants. These haemangiomas grow quickly during the first few months of life and then gradually disappear over a few years without any intervention. Unless they are causing vision, hearing, breathing, or feeding problems, they typically do not require treatment. However, if they are located on the lower spine, they may indicate spina bifida and require further investigation. Additionally, if they are unusually large or atypical, medical attention may be necessary.

      Strawberry naevi, also known as capillary haemangiomas, are not usually present at birth but can develop quickly within the first month of life. They appear as raised, red, and lobed tumours that commonly occur on the face, scalp, and back. These growths tend to increase in size until around 6-9 months before gradually disappearing over the next few years. However, in rare cases, they can obstruct the airway if they occur in the upper respiratory tract. Capillary haemangiomas are more common in white infants, particularly in females, premature infants, and those whose mothers have undergone chorionic villous sampling.

      Complications of strawberry naevi include obstruction of vision or airway, bleeding, ulceration, and thrombocytopaenia. Treatment may be necessary if there is visual field obstruction, and propranolol is now the preferred choice over systemic steroids. Topical beta-blockers such as timolol may also be used. Cavernous haemangioma is a type of deep capillary haemangioma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      40.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 21-year-old man presents to his GP with a complaint of a lump...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old man presents to his GP with a complaint of a lump in his scrotum that he noticed while showering. He reports feeling some discomfort in the area but denies any pain. He has been in a committed relationship with his girlfriend and had a clear sexual health screen two weeks ago.

      During the physical examination, the GP notes a soft mass on the front part of the right testis that cannot be distinguished from the testis itself. The lump is not tender to touch and transilluminates.

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Testicular tumour

      Correct Answer: Hydrocoele

      Explanation:

      When examining scrotal lumps, it is crucial to differentiate between a hydrocoele and other types of testicular masses. This can be done by determining whether the lump is connected to the testis or separate from it, and whether it is solid or fluid-filled.

      A hydrocoele is a fluid-filled sac that forms around the testis within the tunica vaginalis. It is cystic in nature and cannot be distinguished from the testis itself. However, it can be identified by its ability to transilluminate. Although a hydrocoele is typically benign, it can sometimes be a symptom of a testicular tumor, which can be ruled out with an ultrasound scan.

      In contrast, testicular tumors are usually connected to the testis and have an irregular shape. They are not cystic and do not transilluminate, but they can also cause a secondary hydrocoele.

      Varicocoeles and epididymal cysts are separate from the testis and can be identified by their distinct location.

      Scrotal Swelling: Causes and Management

      Scrotal swelling can be caused by various conditions, including inguinal hernia, testicular tumors, acute epididymo-orchitis, epididymal cysts, hydrocele, testicular torsion, and varicocele. Inguinal hernia is characterized by inguinoscrotal swelling that cannot be examined above it, while testicular tumors often have a discrete testicular nodule and symptoms of metastatic disease. Acute epididymo-orchitis is often accompanied by dysuria and urethral discharge, while epididymal cysts are usually painless and occur in individuals over 40 years old. Hydrocele is a non-painful, soft fluctuant swelling that can be examined above, while testicular torsion is characterized by severe, sudden onset testicular pain and requires urgent surgery. Varicocele is characterized by varicosities of the pampiniform plexus and may affect fertility.

      The management of scrotal swelling depends on the underlying condition. Testicular malignancy is treated with orchidectomy via an inguinal approach, while torsion requires prompt surgical exploration and testicular fixation. Varicoceles are usually managed conservatively, but surgery or radiological management can be considered if there are concerns about testicular function or infertility. Epididymal cysts can be excised using a scrotal approach, while hydroceles are managed differently in children and adults. In children, an inguinal approach is used to ligate the underlying pathology, while in adults, a scrotal approach is preferred to excise or plicate the hydrocele sac.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      109.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old male contacts his GP at 2PM to schedule his blood tests...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male contacts his GP at 2PM to schedule his blood tests following a recent visit to his psychiatrist. The psychiatrist has raised his dosage of lithium and requested that the GP arrange for lithium levels to be checked at the appropriate time after taking the medication. The patient took his first increased dose of lithium at 10AM (two hours ago).

      When should the GP schedule the blood test to be taken?

      Your Answer: 12 hours

      Correct Answer: 8 hours

      Explanation:

      Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in refractory depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate or cAMP formation.

      Common adverse effects of lithium include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, and nephrotoxicity. It may also cause thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, and hyperparathyroidism.

      Monitoring of patients on lithium therapy is crucial to prevent toxicity. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until concentrations are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every 3 months. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      49.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 68-year-old woman presents with dysuria and suprapubic pain for the past 3...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman presents with dysuria and suprapubic pain for the past 3 days. She reports feeling increasingly unwell and feverish over the last 24 hours. What symptom would suggest 'red flag' sepsis in this case?

      Your Answer: Blood pressure 98/62 mmHg

      Correct Answer: Heart rate 136/min

      Explanation:

      In recent years, there has been a push to enhance the handling of septic patients in secondary healthcare settings. This endeavor is now shifting towards primary care and aims to enhance the identification and prompt treatment of such patients.

      Understanding Sepsis: Classification and Management

      Sepsis is a life-threatening condition caused by a dysregulated host response to an infection. In recent years, the classification of sepsis has changed, with the old category of severe sepsis no longer in use. The Surviving Sepsis Guidelines now recognise sepsis as life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection, while septic shock is a more severe form of sepsis. The term ‘systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)’ has also fallen out of favour, with quick SOFA (qSOFA) score being used to identify adult patients outside of ICU with suspected infection who are at heightened risk of mortality.

      Management of sepsis involves identifying and treating the underlying cause of the patient’s condition, as well as providing support regardless of the cause or severity. NICE guidelines recommend using red flag and amber flag criteria for risk stratification. If any of the red flags are present, the ‘sepsis six’ should be started straight away, which includes administering oxygen, taking blood cultures, giving broad-spectrum antibiotics, giving intravenous fluid challenges, measuring serum lactate, and measuring accurate hourly urine output.

      To help identify and categorise patients, the Sequential (Sepsis-Related) Organ Failure Assessment Score (SOFA) is increasingly used. The score grades abnormality by organ system and accounts for clinical interventions. A SOFA score of 2 or more reflects an overall mortality risk of approximately 10% in a general hospital population with suspected infection. Even patients presenting with modest dysfunction can deteriorate further, emphasising the seriousness of this condition and the need for prompt and appropriate intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      66.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - The practice nurse seeks your guidance on how to manage 23-year-old Sarah, who...

    Correct

    • The practice nurse seeks your guidance on how to manage 23-year-old Sarah, who is 29 weeks pregnant and has come for routine vaccinations. She reports experiencing ankle swelling and her blood pressure has increased from 117/74 mmHg at booking to 143/91 mmHg today. A urine dipstick test has revealed 1+ protein, - leukocytes, and - nitrites. What would be the best course of action to take?

      Your Answer: Urgent admission to obstetric unit

      Explanation:

      Meera’s condition has progressed to pre-eclampsia, indicated by her blood pressure exceeding 140/90 mmHg and the presence of proteinuria at a level of 1+ or higher. As per NICE guidelines, it is imperative that she is promptly admitted to an obstetric unit for close observation and potential intervention.

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common condition that can be managed effectively with proper care. In normal pregnancy, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, if a pregnant woman develops hypertension, it is usually defined as a systolic blood pressure of over 140 mmHg or a diastolic blood pressure of over 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from booking readings can also indicate hypertension.

      After confirming hypertension, the patient should be categorized into one of three groups: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), or pre-eclampsia. PIH, also known as gestational hypertension, occurs in 3-5% of pregnancies and is more common in older women. If a pregnant woman takes an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin II receptor blocker for pre-existing hypertension, it should be stopped immediately, and alternative antihypertensives should be started while awaiting specialist review.

      Pregnancy-induced hypertension in association with proteinuria, which occurs in around 5% of pregnancies, may also cause oedema. The 2010 NICE guidelines recommend oral labetalol as the first-line treatment for hypertension during pregnancy. Oral nifedipine and hydralazine may also be used, depending on the patient’s medical history. It is important to manage hypertension during pregnancy effectively to reduce the risk of complications and ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      72.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 28-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents with a complaint of a 'facial rash'. Upon...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents with a complaint of a 'facial rash'. Upon examination, you note a blotchy, brownish pigmentation on both cheeks. She reports starting the combined oral contraceptive a few months ago and believes that her skin began to develop the pigmentation after starting the pill. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chloasma

      Explanation:

      Chloasma, also known as melasma, is a skin condition characterized by brown pigmentation that typically develops across the cheeks. It is more common in women and in people with darker skin, and commonly presents between the ages of 30-40. Hormonal contraceptives, pregnancy, sun exposure, and certain cosmetics are well-documented triggers for developing the condition.

      It is important to note that other conditions can cause facial rashes, but they would not fit into the description of chloasma. Acne rosacea causes papules and pustules, as well as facial flushing. Dermatomyositis causes a heliotrope rash across the face, eyelids, and light-exposed areas. Perioral dermatitis, also known as muzzle rash, causes papules that are usually seen around the mouth. Seborrhoeic dermatitis causes a scaling, flaky rash.

      Overall, chloasma is a common skin condition that can be triggered by hormonal changes and sun exposure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      41.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What is the food item with the highest glycaemic index (GI)? ...

    Correct

    • What is the food item with the highest glycaemic index (GI)?

      Your Answer: Potatoes

      Explanation:

      The Importance of GI and Nutrition in Diabetes and Dieting

      The GI and nutrition are crucial factors to consider when it comes to managing diabetes and maintaining a healthy diet. In exams, questions related to these topics are common. Foods with a low GI are recommended for people with diabetes as they cause a smaller increase in blood glucose levels, resulting in better glycaemic control.

      For instance, potatoes have a high GI, which means they can cause a rapid spike in blood sugar levels. On the other hand, cucumber has the lowest GI, making it an excellent choice for people with diabetes. By understanding the GI and nutrition of different foods, individuals can make informed choices about what they eat, which can help them manage their diabetes and maintain a healthy weight.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      20.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 48-year-old woman complains of fatigue and itching. She denies any alcohol abuse...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old woman complains of fatigue and itching. She denies any alcohol abuse and is not on any medications. She has xanthelasmas and her alkaline phosphatase level is elevated.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Primary biliary cholangitis (PBC)

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnoses for a Patient with Pruritus and Xanthelasmas

      The patient’s symptoms of pruritus and xanthelasmas suggest a possible diagnosis of primary biliary cholangitis (PBC), a chronic liver disease that primarily affects women between the ages of 30 and 65. Fatigue is often the first symptom, and pruritus is also common. Elevated alkaline phosphatase levels and increased lipid and cholesterol levels are typical of PBC. Xanthelasmas may be present in late-stage disease.

      Familial hypercholesterolaemia may also cause xanthelasmas, but pruritus and elevated alkaline phosphatase levels would not be expected. Asteatotic eczema may cause pruritus, but it is more common in elderly patients and would not explain the elevated alkaline phosphatase levels. Carcinoma of the head of the pancreas may cause painless jaundice and pruritus, but it would not explain the xanthelasmas. Paget’s disease of bone may cause elevated alkaline phosphatase levels, but it would not explain the xanthelasmas or pruritus.

      Overall, the combination of symptoms suggests PBC as the most likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      61.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 25-year-old woman comes to the General Practice Surgery complaining of a one-week...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to the General Practice Surgery complaining of a one-week history of fever, malaise, a generalised rash and a sore throat. During the examination, there is an erythematous rash affecting the entire body and generalised lymphadenopathy. She confesses to a history of intravenous drug use. What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Human Immunodeficieny Virus (HIV)

      Explanation:

      HIV, glandular fever, measles, rubella, and syphilis are all infectious diseases with distinct symptoms and modes of transmission. HIV is more common among at-risk groups such as intravenous drug users, men who have sex with men, and sex workers. Glandular fever is caused by Epstein-Barr Virus and is common in young adult populations. Measles and rubella are RNA viruses transmitted by respiratory droplet spread, with measles being uncommon in the UK due to vaccination rates. Syphilis is a treponemal infection with distinct stages, but is not associated with drug use and doesn’t present with prominent systemic features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      88.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 32-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of constipation that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of constipation that has persisted since her last pregnancy two years ago. She has been using laxatives for the past few months. She reports no abdominal pain or diarrhoea and has not noticed any triggers or alleviating factors. Her weight is stable and she has not observed any blood in her stools. She is in good health otherwise.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic constipation

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Chronic Constipation: A Differential Diagnosis

      Chronic constipation is a common condition affecting approximately 14% of the global population. While most cases do not require investigation, it is important to consider potential underlying causes in certain patients. Here are some possible diagnoses to consider:

      1. Idiopathic constipation: This is the most common cause of chronic constipation, especially in young patients. A high-fiber diet and physical activity can help alleviate symptoms.

      2. Diverticular disease: This condition is characterized by abdominal pain and diarrhea, but it usually presents later in life and chronic constipation is a risk factor.

      3. Colon cancer: While chronic constipation can be a symptom of colon cancer, other factors such as weight loss and rectal bleeding are usually present. This diagnosis is unlikely in younger patients.

      4. Hypothyroidism: Constipation can be a symptom of an underactive thyroid, but other symptoms such as weight gain and fatigue are usually present.

      5. Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS): IBS can cause constipation and/or diarrhea, but it is usually associated with abdominal pain and bloating.

      In summary, chronic constipation can have various underlying causes, and a careful history and physical examination can help determine the appropriate diagnostic approach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      87.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 30-year-old man presents with a 10-day history of mucopurulent anal discharge, anal...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presents with a 10-day history of mucopurulent anal discharge, anal bleeding, and pain during defecation.
      What is the MOST PROBABLE diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Crohn’s disease

      Correct Answer: Gonorrhoea

      Explanation:

      Symptoms and Causes of Rectal Infections

      Rectal infections can have various symptoms and causes. Gonorrhoea, for instance, is often asymptomatic but may cause anal discharge or perianal/anal pain, pruritus, or bleeding. Primary syphilis, on the other hand, is characterized by a painless ulcer or chancre. Candidiasis is associated with a perianal intertrigenous rash, while Crohn’s disease may lead to perianal pendulous skin tags, abscesses, and fistulas. Salmonella infection, meanwhile, causes acute diarrhea, vomiting, abdominal cramps, and fever. It is important to seek medical attention if you experience any of these symptoms to receive proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      62.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 45-year-old man complains of intermittent, unilateral pain above and behind his left...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man complains of intermittent, unilateral pain above and behind his left eye, which has been waking him up at night for the past ten days. The pain is described as severe and stabbing, lasting about 20 minutes and causing him to feel restless and agitated. He also experiences tearing from his left eye and nasal congestion. During attacks, he has noticed his left eyelid drooping. He recalls having similar symptoms for a few weeks last year, but they went away on their own and he did not seek medical attention. Physical examination reveals no abnormalities. He has been a smoker for most of his life.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cluster headache

      Explanation:

      Headache Disorders: Cluster Headache, Migraine, Paroxysmal Hemicrania, Temporal Arteritis, and Trigeminal Neuralgia

      Cluster headache is a type of headache disorder that commonly affects middle-aged men in clusters lasting weeks to months. Verapamil and prednisolone are used for prophylaxis, while sumatriptan and oxygen are the main treatments for the acute attack. Migraine lacks the specific features of cluster headache and tends to have bilateral autonomic symptoms. Paroxysmal hemicrania is another type of trigeminal autonomic cephalgia that occurs multiple times throughout the day but for shorter periods and is more frequently seen in women. It responds to indomethacin and is often used as a diagnostic aid. Temporal arteritis is unusual in this age group and is usually throbbing and continuous with focal tenderness on direct palpation. Trigeminal neuralgia is sometimes mistaken for cluster headache, but the attacks are much shorter and autonomic activation is rare.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      60.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - An 80-year-old man complains to the palliative care team of increasing fatigue and...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man complains to the palliative care team of increasing fatigue and breathlessness over the past four weeks. He is under their care and has ceased any active treatment; his preferred care plan is for symptom-related treatment only. He is living independently at home and has been reasonably well over the last six months.
      On examination, he is pale, with a pulse of 96 bpm at rest. He becomes breathless after undressing for the examination. There is a palpable spleen.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal values
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 66 g/l 130–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 1.2 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Platelets (PLT) 34 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Neutrophils 0.5 × 109/l 2.0–7.5 × 109/l
      Lymphocytes 0.6 × 109/l 1.0–4.5 × 109/l
      What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Primary myelofibrosis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Pancytopenia and Splenomegaly

      A patient presents with pallor, tiredness, and breathlessness, along with pancytopenia and splenomegaly. The most likely cause is a myelodysplastic disorder, specifically primary myelofibrosis, which results in scarring of the bone marrow and loss of bone marrow function. This disorder has a median survival of around five and a half years and can cause progressive symptoms. The splenomegaly is due to extramedullary haemopoiesis.

      Other potential causes, such as bowel cancer, prostate cancer, and metastatic oesophageal carcinoma, are less likely due to the absence of relevant symptoms or metastasis to the bone. Chemotherapy-related bone marrow suppression is also unlikely as the patient is not receiving any active treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      200.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner, reporting changes in her skin over...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner, reporting changes in her skin over the past year. She has noticed several pale patches on her fingers and wrists of both hands, as well as similar areas on her abdomen.
      She had a history of mild acne in her teenage years, treated with topical creams and antibiotics.
      Upon examination, there are well-defined, white lesions on the dorsum of both hands over the fingers and on the palmar surface of both wrists. The borders are smooth. The lesions are flat and non-itchy.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vitiligo

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Symmetrical Acquired Depigmentation

      Symmetrical acquired depigmentation is a common skin condition that can be caused by various factors. In this case, the history and examination findings suggest vitiligo as the most likely diagnosis. Vitiligo is an autoimmune disorder that results in the destruction of melanocytes in the skin, leading to smooth, well-demarcated, milky white lesions with no scale. It can occur alone or alongside other autoimmune disorders.

      Other possible differentials include lichen sclerosus, which is a chronic skin disorder that affects the genital and perianal areas, but is usually seen in women over the age of 50 and doesn’t affect the hands. Pityriasis alba, characterised by flaky pink patches and hypopigmentation on the skin, is generally asymptomatic and often found on the cheeks and upper arms, but is unlikely in this patient as there is no history of flaky pink patches and hypopigmentation. Tinea versicolor, a common yeast infection of the skin, appears as flaky discoloured patches on the chest and back, but there are no lesions on the trunk seen in this patient and no indication that the lesions are flaky.

      Lastly, steroid-induced skin depigmentation is unlikely in this patient as the steroid use was historical and ceased 13 years ago, and only involved mildly potent steroids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      84.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 25-year-old nurse has a needlestick injury after taking blood from a patient...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old nurse has a needlestick injury after taking blood from a patient known to be HIV positive.
      Select the single most appropriate immediate management after hand-washing for 10 minutes.

      Your Answer: Antiretroviral therapy

      Explanation:

      Reducing the Risk of HIV and Hepatitis B Transmission in Healthcare Workers

      Healthcare workers are at risk of occupational exposure to HIV and hepatitis B through needlestick injuries or other percutaneous and mucous membrane exposures. The average risk of HIV infection after such exposure is 0.3%, while the risk of hepatitis B transmission is higher. The risk is greatest for deep injuries, visible blood on the device, direct cannulation of blood vessels, or advanced HIV disease in the source patient.

      To reduce the risk of HIV transmission, healthcare workers should receive post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) as soon as possible after exposure. A small study showed an 80% reduction in seroconversion with zidovudine, and current recommendations include two nucleoside inhibitors and a protease inhibitor for 1 month. Nevirapine is not recommended due to adverse reactions.

      In addition to PEP, healthcare workers should receive hepatitis B immunoglobulin within 72 hours if the source is HBeAg positive or unknown, and they have negative serology. All healthcare workers should also be offered hepatitis B immunisation if they have not been immunised or are non-immune, following baseline serology testing.

      A careful risk assessment and information provision are crucial in the management of occupational exposure to HIV and hepatitis B in healthcare workers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      36.7
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  • Question 20 - A 32-year-old woman returns from a 3-week holiday to Thailand with a 5-day...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman returns from a 3-week holiday to Thailand with a 5-day history of feeling generally unwell, feverish, nauseous with a loss of appetite and right upper quadrant pain.

      Upon examination, she appears unwell with a temperature of 38.2ºC and a heart rate of 102 beats per minute. Abdominal examination reveals tender hepatomegaly.

      Blood tests are conducted, and the results are as follows:

      Hb 148 g/L Male: (135-180)
      Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 456 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 12.2 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.3 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Urea 5.2 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 76 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      CRP 32 mg/L (< 5)

      Bilirubin 42 µmol/L (3 - 17)
      ALP 164 u/L (30 - 100)
      ALT 512 u/L (3 - 40)
      γGT 86 u/L (8 - 60)
      Albumin 38 g/L (35 - 50)

      What is the most probable diagnosis from the options below?

      Your Answer: Hepatitis C

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis A

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis A is a viral infection that affects the liver and typically presents with flu-like symptoms, nausea, fatigue, and pain in the upper right quadrant of the abdomen. The liver may also become enlarged and tender, and liver function tests may be abnormal. As the infection progresses, it can lead to significant liver inflammation and a cholestatic picture.

      While an amoebic abscess is a possibility given the patient’s history of travel and symptoms of fever and right upper quadrant pain, the blood tests do not fully support this diagnosis, as the white blood cell count and C-reactive protein are only mildly elevated, and the alanine transaminase (ALT) is significantly raised.

      Ascending cholangitis, which is characterized by fever, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice, is less likely in this scenario, as the liver function tests show marked hepatic inflammation with the raised ALT in proportion to the slightly raised bilirubin.

      Cholecystitis, which is inflammation of the gallbladder, would not typically cause such a significant rise in ALT or the development of jaundice.

      Understanding Hepatitis A: Symptoms, Transmission, and Prevention

      Hepatitis A is a viral infection that affects the liver. It is usually a mild illness that resolves on its own, with serious complications being rare. The virus is transmitted through the faecal-oral route, often in institutions. The incubation period is typically 2-4 weeks, and symptoms include a flu-like prodrome, abdominal pain (usually in the right upper quadrant), tender hepatomegaly, jaundice, and deranged liver function tests.

      While complications are rare, there is no increased risk of hepatocellular cancer. An effective vaccine is available, and it is recommended for people travelling to or residing in areas of high or intermediate prevalence, those with chronic liver disease, patients with haemophilia, men who have sex with men, injecting drug users, and individuals at occupational risk (such as laboratory workers, staff of large residential institutions, sewage workers, and people who work with primates).

      It is important to note that the vaccine requires a booster dose 6-12 months after the initial dose. By understanding the symptoms, transmission, and prevention of hepatitis A, individuals can take steps to protect themselves and others from this viral infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A study is designed to compare the cholesterol levels of males and females...

    Incorrect

    • A study is designed to compare the cholesterol levels of males and females who have hypertension. The researchers aim to determine if there is a significant difference between the mean cholesterol level in males and females. It is known from previous studies that the cholesterol levels follow a normal distribution. Which statistical test would be the most suitable to use?

      Your Answer: Chi-squared test

      Correct Answer: Student's unpaired t-test

      Explanation:

      An unpaired t-test is the most suitable test to use since the data is parametric and involves comparing two independent samples from the identical population.

      Types of Significance Tests

      Significance tests are used to determine whether the results of a study are statistically significant or simply due to chance. The type of significance test used depends on the type of data being analyzed. Parametric tests are used for data that can be measured and are usually normally distributed, while non-parametric tests are used for data that cannot be measured in this way.

      Parametric tests include the Student’s t-test, which can be paired or unpaired, and Pearson’s product-moment coefficient, which is used for correlation analysis. Non-parametric tests include the Mann-Whitney U test, which compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data, and the Wilcoxon signed-rank test, which compares two sets of observations on a single sample. The chi-squared test is used to compare proportions or percentages, while Spearman and Kendall rank are used for correlation analysis.

      It is important to choose the appropriate significance test for the type of data being analyzed in order to obtain accurate and reliable results. By understanding the different types of significance tests available, researchers can make informed decisions about which test to use for their particular study.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 22 - A 55-year-old man has recently read about prostate cancer and asks whether he...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man has recently read about prostate cancer and asks whether he should undergo a digital rectal examination to assess his prostate.
      For which of the following would it be most appropriate to conduct a digital rectal examination (DRE) to assess prostate size and consistency?

      Your Answer: Immediately prior to testing for prostate-specific antigen (PSA)

      Correct Answer: In a patient with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS)

      Explanation:

      Prostate Cancer Screening and Testing: Important Considerations

      In patients with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS), it is important to consider the possibility of locally advanced prostate cancer causing obstructive LUTS. Therefore, a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test and digital rectal exam (DRE) should be offered to men with obstructive symptoms.

      While family history is a significant risk factor for prostate cancer, a grandfather’s history of the disease may not be as significant as a first-degree relative’s (father or brother) history.

      If a man presents with symptoms of urinary tract infection, it is important to investigate and treat the infection before considering any PSA testing. Prostate cancer typically doesn’t cause symptoms of urinary tract infection.

      Currently, there is no formal screening program for prostate cancer. However, men may choose to request a PSA test after being informed of the potential benefits and risks. It is important to note that DRE alone should not be used for screening.

      Prior to testing for PSA, it is recommended to perform DRE at least a week prior as it can falsely elevate PSA levels.

      Key Considerations for Prostate Cancer Screening and Testing

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 23 - For which patient is it necessary to utilize a cardiovascular risk assessment tool...

    Incorrect

    • For which patient is it necessary to utilize a cardiovascular risk assessment tool (such as QRISK) in order to ascertain their likelihood of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD)?

      Your Answer: A 58-year-old woman with a history of a myocardial infarction 12 months ago

      Correct Answer: A 45-year-old man with type 1 diabetes with a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol and no nephropathy or microalbuminuria

      Explanation:

      High Risk Patients for Cardiovascular Disease

      Certain patients are automatically considered at high risk for cardiovascular disease (CVD) and do not require the use of a CVD risk assessment tool such as QRISK2. These high-risk patients include those with pre-existing CVD, those aged 85 and above, those with an eGFR <60 ml/min/1.73m2 and/or albuminuria, those with familial hypercholesterolaemia or other inherited lipid disorders, and those with type 1 diabetes who are over 40 years old, have a history of diabetes for at least 10 years, have established nephropathy, or have other CVD risk factors. However, for patients with a BMI of 38, a CVD risk assessment tool should be used. It is important to note that for patients with a BMI higher than 40 kg/m2, their risk may be underestimated by standard CVD risk assessment tools. By identifying high-risk patients, healthcare providers can take appropriate measures to prevent and manage CVD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 24 - A 40-year-old woman presents with progressively worsening headaches over the past four months....

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents with progressively worsening headaches over the past four months. The headaches are more severe in the morning, when she lies flat, and when she coughs or strains. She also experiences brief episodes of blurred vision.
      Her blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg, and her heart rate is regular at 72 bpm. Her BMI is 36 kg/m2.
      An image of the left retina is displayed below:
      The right retina has a similar appearance.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Subdural haematoma

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic intracranial hypertension

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension from Other Headache Disorders

      Idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH) is a condition that primarily affects obese young women and is characterized by headaches and blurred vision due to increased intracranial pressure. To diagnose IIH, imaging is necessary to rule out other potential causes such as space-occupying lesions or cerebral venous sinus thrombosis. A lumbar puncture is then performed to measure cerebrospinal fluid opening pressure, which can provide short-term relief if the pressure is reduced.

      It is important to differentiate IIH from other headache disorders such as atypical migraine, normal pressure hydrocephalus, subdural hematoma, and tension headache. Atypical migraine typically presents with unilateral headache and nausea, while normal pressure hydrocephalus is associated with dementia, incontinence, and gait disturbance in the elderly. Subdural hematoma may cause fluctuating consciousness and focal neurological signs, and is more commonly seen in alcoholics and elderly patients on anticoagulant or antiplatelet therapy. Tension headaches, on the other hand, are usually frontal or bitemporal and not positional or worsened by activities that increase intracranial pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 25 - A 25-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with infertility and is found...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with infertility and is found to have azoospermia. He is noted to have a tall stature, gynaecomastia and small, firm testes. He struggled at school and was diagnosed with dyslexia.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Klinefelter syndrome

      Explanation:

      Genetic Syndromes and Infertility in Men

      Tall stature, gynaecomastia, and infertility due to azoospermia are characteristic features of Klinefelter syndrome, a genetic disorder caused by an extra X chromosome in males. Other symptoms include reduced facial hair, obesity, and small testes. Cystic fibrosis, on the other hand, is unlikely to cause tall stature and is usually diagnosed in childhood due to recurrent chest infections and failure to thrive. Homocystinuria, a rare autosomal recessive disorder, causes tall stature, learning difficulties, lens dislocation, osteoporosis, and recurrent arterial thrombosis. Marfan syndrome, an autosomal dominant disorder, is characterized by tall stature, joint laxity, lens dislocation, aortic root dilatation, and skin striae. XYY syndrome, a condition where males have an extra Y chromosome, can cause tall stature, mild learning difficulties, and behavioral problems, but most men have normal fertility. It is important to consider genetic syndromes as a potential cause of infertility in men.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      42.4
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  • Question 26 - Betty is a 78-year-old woman on multiple medications who is seeing her general...

    Incorrect

    • Betty is a 78-year-old woman on multiple medications who is seeing her general practitioner for a medication review.

      Which of the following tools is most helpful in aiding this?

      Your Answer: MED/REC

      Correct Answer: STOPP/START

      Explanation:

      MED/REC – Medical Record – a comprehensive documentation of a patient’s medical history, including diagnoses, treatments, medications, and test results. It is an essential tool for healthcare professionals to provide quality care and ensure continuity of care.

      Understanding Multimorbidity: Definition, Prevalence, Risk Factors, Complications, Assessment, and Management

      Multimorbidity is a growing public health issue that refers to the presence of two or more long-term health conditions. In 2017, NICE issued guidelines to identify and manage multimorbidity among patients. The most common comorbid conditions include hypertension, depression, anxiety, chronic pain, prostate disorders, thyroid disorders, and coronary artery disease. Risk factors for multimorbidity include increasing age, female sex, low socioeconomic status, tobacco and alcohol usage, lack of physical activity, and poor nutrition and obesity.

      Complications of multimorbidity include decreased quality of life and life expectancy, increased treatment burden, mental health issues, polypharmacy, and negative impact on carers’ welfare. The assessment of multimorbidity involves identifying patients who may benefit from a multimorbidity approach, establishing the extent of disease burden, investigating how treatment burden affects daily activities, assessing social circumstances and health literacy, and evaluating frailty.

      Management of multimorbidity aims to reduce treatment burden and optimise care. This involves maximising the benefits of existing treatments, offering alternative follow-up arrangements, reducing the number of high-risk medications, considering a ‘bisphosphonate holiday,’ using screening tools such as STOPP/START, stopping the use of medications in patients with peptic ulcer disease, developing an individualised management plan, promoting self-management, and supporting carers and families of patients. Regular medication reviews are recommended to ensure that treatments are optimised.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
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  • Question 27 - A 50-year-old man has been diagnosed with motor neuron disease. Is there any...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man has been diagnosed with motor neuron disease. Is there any drug that has been proven to increase survival rates in such cases?

      Your Answer: Rituximab

      Correct Answer: Riluzole

      Explanation:

      Managing Motor Neuron Disease

      Motor neuron disease is a neurological condition that affects both upper and lower motor neurons. It typically presents after the age of 40 and can manifest in different patterns, such as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, progressive muscular atrophy, and bulbar palsy. While the cause of the disease is unknown, there are several management strategies that can help improve the patient’s quality of life and prolong survival.

      One such strategy is the use of riluzole, which prevents the stimulation of glutamate receptors and is mainly used in amyotrophic lateral sclerosis. Studies have shown that it can prolong life by about three months. Respiratory care is also crucial, and non-invasive ventilation, usually BIPAP, is used at night. This has been shown to provide a survival benefit of around seven months.

      Nutrition is another important aspect of managing motor neuron disease, and the preferred method of support is through a percutaneous gastrostomy tube (PEG). This has been associated with prolonged survival. However, despite these management strategies, the prognosis for motor neuron disease remains poor, with 50% of patients dying within three years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 28 - After a fall at home, a 75-year-old Caucasian male presents to his GP....

    Incorrect

    • After a fall at home, a 75-year-old Caucasian male presents to his GP. After a FRAX assessment, he is referred for a DEXA scan. The results of the scan are as follows:

      T score -2.25 > -1.0 = normal
      -1.0 to -2.5 = osteopaenia
      < -2.5 = osteoporosis
      Z score 0 < -2.0 = below the expected range for age
      > -2.0 = within the expected range for age

      For which of the following factors is the Z score adjusted?

      Your Answer: Glucocorticoid treatment, age, gender

      Correct Answer: Age, gender, ethnic factors

      Explanation:

      When analyzing DEXA scans, the Z score is modified to account for age, gender, and ethnicity, allowing for a comparison of an individual’s bone density to that of an average person with similar characteristics. Notably, the Z score remains unaffected by a person’s history of fractures or treatment with glucocorticoids.

      Understanding DEXA Scan Results for Osteoporosis

      When it comes to diagnosing osteoporosis, a DEXA scan is often used to measure bone density. The results of this scan are given in the form of a T score, which compares the patient’s bone mass to that of a young reference population. A T score of -1.0 or higher is considered normal, while a score between -1.0 and -2.5 indicates osteopaenia, or low bone mass. A T score below -2.5 is classified as osteoporosis, which means the patient has a significantly increased risk of fractures. It’s important to note that the Z score, which takes into account age, gender, and ethnicity, can also be used to interpret DEXA scan results. By understanding these scores, patients can work with their healthcare providers to develop a plan for managing and treating osteoporosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 29 - A 38-year-old woman comes to your clinic for a regular check-up. During the...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman comes to your clinic for a regular check-up. During the consultation, she reveals that she smokes around 12 cigarettes per day and has made two attempts in the past to quit smoking. What is the most effective intervention for achieving smoking cessation?

      Your Answer: Acupuncture

      Correct Answer: Brief advice from a physician

      Explanation:

      Effective Interventions for Smoking Cessation: Brief Advice and Lifestyle Changes

      Brief advice from a physician can be a powerful tool in helping people quit smoking. In less than 30 seconds, a physician can ask a person if they smoke and if they have considered quitting, while also offering help. This type of intervention has been proven effective for lifestyle changes, such as smoking cessation and weight loss. However, acupuncture and hypnotherapy have little evidence to support their effectiveness in smoking cessation. While a prescribed exercise program may not be effective, short bouts of moderate exercise can help distract from cravings. Additionally, a low-calorie diet doesn’t impact a person’s ability to quit smoking successfully. By incorporating brief advice and lifestyle changes, physicians can help their patients successfully quit smoking.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 30 - A 22-year-old woman at 36 weeks gestation contacts her healthcare provider seeking advice...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old woman at 36 weeks gestation contacts her healthcare provider seeking advice on contraceptive options postpartum. She expresses interest in the contraceptive implant after a thorough discussion. The patient has no medical issues and doesn't intend to breastfeed.

      At what point after delivery could she begin using the contraceptive implant?

      Your Answer: Immediately following childbirth

      Explanation:

      It is safe to insert a contraceptive implant after childbirth, even immediately. However, the manufacturer of the most commonly used implant in the UK recommends waiting at least 4 weeks after childbirth for breastfeeding women. While there is no evidence of harm to the mother or baby, it is not recommended to insert an implant during pregnancy due to potential complications. It is important to note that fertility may not return until after the implant is removed.

      Implanon and Nexplanon are both subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucous. Nexplanon is an updated version of Implanon with a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It doesn’t contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a history of thromboembolism or migraines. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraception is required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1-5 of the menstrual cycle.

      The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a different method or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment. Contraindications include ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, meaning it represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

End Of Life (1/2) 50%
Mental Health (1/2) 50%
Children And Young People (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (2/3) 67%
Kidney And Urology (0/2) 0%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (1/4) 25%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (2/2) 100%
Population Health (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (1/2) 50%
Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse (1/2) 50%
Neurology (1/2) 50%
Allergy And Immunology (1/1) 100%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular Health (0/1) 0%
Eyes And Vision (0/1) 0%
Genomic Medicine (1/1) 100%
People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal Health (0/1) 0%
Passmed