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  • Question 1 - A 38-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with new lower back pain....

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with new lower back pain. The pain started yesterday when she was lifting a heavy item at her workplace. She is otherwise fit and well, and not on any regular medications.
      Which of the following features would suggest an urgent hospital admission should be arranged?

      Your Answer: Loss of perineal sensation

      Explanation:

      Assessing Symptoms of Lower Back Pain: Red Flags and Reassuring Signs

      Lower back pain is a common complaint, but it can sometimes be a sign of a more serious condition. Here are some symptoms to look out for:

      – Loss of perineal sensation: This is a red flag symptom for cauda equina syndrome, a surgical emergency. Urgent admission should be arranged if suspected.
      – Shooting pain down the leg: This is a common symptom of sciatica, which is typically not alarming unless accompanied by red flag symptoms.
      – Back pain worsened by coughing or sneezing: This is a common feature of back pain and is not alarming unless accompanied by red flag symptoms.
      – Downgoing plantar reflexes: This is a reassuring finding and indicates normal plantar reflexes.
      – Pain remaining after 1 week: Acute lower back pain typically improves over 4-6 weeks, so it is not unusual for pain to remain after 1 week. Referral to physiotherapy may be warranted if the patient is not resuming their normal activities.

      It is important to be aware of these symptoms and seek medical attention if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
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  • Question 2 - A 72-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a headache after being...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a headache after being referred by his General Practitioner (GP). The GP referral letter mentions that the patient presented with a history of fluctuating consciousness levels for the past week. The wife reports that her husband had a fall about a week ago and since then, he seemed to be a different man. The patient mentions that he has been experiencing a dull headache which did not respond to regular paracetamol. He denies nausea, vomiting and photophobia.
      On examination, the vital signs are stable, the patient is apyrexial and there are no rashes. The patient has a past medical history of alcohol dependence, liver cirrhosis, gout and hypertension. A computed tomography (CT) scan of the patient’s head shows a crescent-shaped area of haemorrhage with midline shift of the brain structures.
      What is the best next management step for this patient?

      Your Answer: Mannitol

      Correct Answer: Burr hole drainage

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Subdural Haemorrhage: Burr Hole Drainage, Mannitol, Nimodipine, Endovascular Coiling, and Aspirin

      Subdural haemorrhage is a serious medical condition that requires prompt treatment. The most common treatment option for subdural haemorrhage is burr hole drainage, which involves removing the haematoma and relieving the compression of the brain. Mannitol is another treatment option that is used to reduce intracranial pressure if signs of intracranial pressure are present. Nimodipine is used in cases of subarachnoid haemorrhage to reduce vasospasm, which is often an acute complication of subarachnoid haemorrhage and leads to cerebral ischaemia. Endovascular coiling is a treatment for subarachnoid haemorrhage and is not indicated for subdural haemorrhage. Aspirin is contraindicated in the case of a haemorrhagic stroke or intracranial haemorrhage, as it can worsen bleeding. Therefore, it is important to rule out bleeding as the cause of the patient’s symptoms before administering aspirin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
      20.4
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  • Question 3 - A 52-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner for recent onset of acute...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner for recent onset of acute back pain. For the last three months, she has been having a burning sensation and tingling of the hands and feet. Her past medical history includes hypertension, diabetes, coronary artery disease and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). She is on medication for her hypertension and diabetes which are well controlled. X-ray of thoracic vertebrae demonstrates punched-out lytic lesions.
      Her laboratory investigation report shows the following abnormalities:
      Investigations Results Normal values
      Calcium 3.2 mmol/l 2.2–2.6 mmol/l
      Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 15 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 130 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
      Haemoglobin 98 g/dl 115–155 g/l
      What is the most appropriate next investigation in this patient?

      Your Answer: Serum vitamin B12 estimation

      Correct Answer: Urine analysis

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Peripheral Neuropathy in a Patient with Multiple Myeloma

      Multiple myeloma is a neoplastic clonal expansion of plasma cells that produce monoclonal immunoglobulins. It can cause extensive skeletal damage by osteopenia and inducing osteolytic bone lesions. Peripheral neuropathy symptoms (both sensory and motor involvement can be seen) are present in this patient at the same time of the onset of bone pain. Here are some diagnostic tests that can help identify the cause of peripheral neuropathy in a patient with multiple myeloma:

      24-hour urine electrophoresis test: This test could confirm the diagnosis of multiple myeloma through the identification of Bence-Jones protein, a characteristic finding in multiple myeloma.

      Autoimmune antibodies: Autoimmune conditions like Sjögren syndrome, lupus and rheumatoid arthritis can give rise to symptoms of peripheral neuropathy. However, the patient’s history and clinical findings do not correlate with these conditions.

      Glycosylated haemoglobin: Peripheral neuropathy is a complication of uncontrolled diabetes mellitus. However, given that it is well controlled in this patient, it is highly unlikely to be a cause of her symptoms.

      Serum vitamin B12 estimation: Vitamin B12 deficiency causes peripheral neuropathy. However, it does not cause osteolytic lesions in the vertebrae, as in this patient’s case.

      Thyroid function tests: Hypothyroidism, which is long-standing and often untreated, can lead to complications of peripheral neuropathy. However, hypercalcaemia found in this patient would go against this diagnosis and performing thyroid function tests would not be a correct option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
      38.4
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  • Question 4 - A 37-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of left-sided hearing loss...

    Incorrect

    • A 37-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of left-sided hearing loss and tinnitus that have been ongoing for three months. He also reports experiencing dizziness, which has now progressed to difficulty walking steadily. Audiometry confirms sensorineural hearing loss in his left ear, and a contrast magnetic resonance imaging scan indicates that he has a tumor with characteristics consistent with an acoustic neuroma. Which type of cell is linked to the excessive growth of an acoustic neuroma?

      Your Answer: Microglial cell

      Correct Answer: Schwann cell

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Cells Involved in Neurological Tumors

      Neurological tumors can arise from various cells in the central and peripheral nervous systems. It is important to understand the different types of cells involved in these tumors to accurately diagnose and treat them.

      Schwann cells are responsible for the pathogenesis of acoustic neuromas, which are benign tumors of the vestibulocochlear nerve. These cells surround nerves in the peripheral nervous system. Symptoms of acoustic neuromas include unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, tinnitus, and vertigo.

      Microglial cells are immune cells in the central nervous system, but they do not typically form neurological tumors.

      Astrocytes are glial cells in the central nervous system and are responsible for the most common type of glioma, but this patient’s symptoms are consistent with a peripheral nervous system tumor of glial origin.

      Ependymal cells form the epithelial lining of the ventricles in the brain and the central canal of the spinal cord. Although they can cause ependymomas, which are a type of brain tumor, the symptoms present are not consistent with this and ependymal cells are not responsible for acoustic neuromas.

      Satellite cells are neuroglial cells of the peripheral nervous system, but they are unlikely to be responsible for acoustic neuromas. Over-proliferation of Schwann cells is the pathogenesis of this type of tumor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
      23.4
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  • Question 5 - A 64-year-old computer programmer reported experiencing frequent headaches to his GP. Upon examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year-old computer programmer reported experiencing frequent headaches to his GP. Upon examination, the GP observed papilloedema and pupillary dilation and referred the patient for further radiological studies and to a neurologist. The results of the radiological studies revealed a mass causing non-communicating hydrocephalus. Where is the most likely location of the tumour?

      Your Answer: Lateral geniculate nucleus

      Correct Answer: Pineal gland

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Possible Causes of Non-Communicating Hydrocephalus

      Non-communicating hydrocephalus can be caused by various factors, including a pinealoma, which is a slow-growing tumor of the pineal gland. This type of tumor can compress the midbrain cerebral aqueduct, leading to a blockage in the flow of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the lateral and third ventricles to the fourth ventricle and subarachnoid space. To address this issue, surgical placement of a shunt may be necessary.

      Another possible cause of non-communicating hydrocephalus is a midbrain tumor, such as a pinealoma, which can compress the Edinger-Westphal nuclei. This can result in mydriasis or dilation of the pupil due to the lack of parasympathetic input from the Edinger-Westphal nuclei to the oculomotor muscles.

      It is important to note that a cerebellar lesion is unlikely to cause non-communicating hydrocephalus, as it is associated with defects in coordination and changes in gait. Similarly, an optic nerve lesion is also unlikely to cause this condition, as afferent fibers from the retina pass through the optic nerve to the hypothalamic lateral geniculate nucleus. A lesion in the lateral geniculate nucleus is more likely to cause visual symptoms rather than non-communicating hydrocephalus.

      In summary, understanding the possible causes of non-communicating hydrocephalus can help in identifying and addressing the underlying issue. A thorough evaluation and diagnosis by a medical professional is necessary for proper treatment and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
      9.4
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  • Question 6 - A 32-year-old man presents with sudden-onset severe occipital headache and neck stiffness. His...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man presents with sudden-onset severe occipital headache and neck stiffness. His wife helped him into bed but had to call an ambulance after he became increasingly confused and drowsy. He is currently under investigation for chronic renal failure. On examination, his Glasgow Coma Score (GCS) is 6 and his blood pressure is elevated at 192/100 mmHg. There are bilateral ballotable renal masses on abdominal palpation.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 131 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 9.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 189 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 195 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Subarachnoid haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease is suggested by the presence of chronic renal failure and bilateral renal masses on abdominal examination. This disease is associated with cerebral ‘berry’ aneurysms, which may rupture and cause subarachnoid hemorrhage. A CT head can confirm the presence of subarachnoid blood, but if negative, a lumbar puncture should be performed to look for evidence of hemoglobin breakdown products. Focal neurology, absence of neck stiffness, and increased age are more indicative of an embolic stroke. Extradural hemorrhage is associated with significant head trauma, while subdural hemorrhage is more common in the elderly, particularly those on anticoagulation. Pituitary apoplexy, which is bleeding or impaired blood supply to the pituitary gland, can cause sudden-onset headache and subsequent adrenal crises due to pituitary failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
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  • Question 7 - A 28-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of abnormal sensations in...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of abnormal sensations in his right hand and forearm. He reports experiencing numbness and tingling in the back of his hand, particularly around his thumb, index, and middle finger. Additionally, he has noticed weakness in his elbow and wrist. Upon examination, the GP observes reduced power in elbow and wrist extension on the right side. The patient denies any history of trauma to the arm and does not engage in extreme sports. He works as a security agent and often sleeps in a chair during his night shifts. X-rays of the right wrist, elbow, and shoulder reveal no apparent fractures. What is the most probable diagnosis for this individual?

      Your Answer: Radial nerve palsy

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Radial Nerve Palsy from Other Upper Limb Pathologies

      Radial nerve palsy is a condition that affects the extensors of the wrist and forearms, as well as the sensation of the back of the hands at the thumb, index, middle, and radial side of the ring finger. It is often caused by compression or injury to the radial nerve, which can occur from sleeping in an awkward position or other trauma. This condition is commonly referred to as Saturday night palsy.

      It is important to differentiate radial nerve palsy from other upper limb pathologies, such as carpal tunnel syndrome, Erb’s palsy, cubital tunnel syndrome, and Klumpke’s palsy. Carpal tunnel syndrome involves compression of the median nerve at the wrist, causing tingling, numbness, and pain in the palmar side of the thumb, index, middle, and ring finger area. Erb’s palsy is an injury to the brachial plexus involving the upper roots, usually occurring during delivery and causing an adducted and internally rotated shoulder with elbow extension, pronation, and wrist flexion. Cubital tunnel syndrome involves impingement of the ulnar nerve at the elbow, causing numbness and tingling at the ulnar side of the ring finger and small finger, and potentially leading to an ulnar claw deformity. Klumpke’s palsy is an injury to the brachial plexus involving the lower roots, usually occurring during delivery and causing a claw hand and potentially Horner syndrome.

      By understanding the specific symptoms and causes of each condition, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat patients with upper limb pathologies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
      108.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A patient presents to the Emergency Department after being assaulted. She tells you...

    Correct

    • A patient presents to the Emergency Department after being assaulted. She tells you that this occurred a few hours ago and she has taken several blows to the head. On examination, there is bruising around the eyes. Clear fluid can be seen discharging from her nose.
      Where is the patient’s pathology likely to be?

      Your Answer: Cribriform plate

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Skull Fractures and their Symptoms

      Skull fractures can have varying symptoms depending on the location of the fracture. A fracture of the cribriform plate can result in periorbital ecchymosis and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak from the nose. In such cases, nasogastric tubes or nasal airway adjuncts should be avoided to prevent the tube from entering the cranial cavity.

      Fractures of the occiput bone and middle cranial fossa can present with similar symptoms such as bruising around the mastoid process (‘battle sign’), haemotympanum, and otorrhoea. However, an occiput fracture may also cause CSF leak from the ear.

      Fractures of the frontal bone are likely to have a wound at the site of the fracture but are unlikely to cause CSF leak. Similarly, zygoma fractures are unlikely to cause CSF leak. Understanding the symptoms associated with different skull fractures can aid in their proper diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
      11.6
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  • Question 9 - A 30-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department after being involved in...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department after being involved in an altercation, during which he was stabbed in his lower back. On examination, he has right leg weakness in all muscle groups. Further examination reveals that he has loss of vibration and proprioception on the same side. In his left leg, there is loss of pain and temperature sensation, but preserved motor strength. He has no problems with bladder or bowel retention. His motor strength is preserved in his upper limbs.
      With which one of the following spinal cord syndromes is his presentation consistent?

      Your Answer: Hemisection of the cord

      Explanation:

      Overview of Spinal Cord Syndromes

      Spinal cord syndromes are a group of neurological disorders that affect the spinal cord and its associated nerves. These syndromes can be caused by various factors, including trauma, infection, and degenerative diseases. Here are some of the most common spinal cord syndromes:

      Hemisection of the Cord (Brown-Sequard Syndrome)
      This syndrome is characterized by ipsilateral loss of vibration and proprioception, as well as ipsilateral hemiplegia. On the other hand, there is contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Hemisection of the cord is usually caused by a stab injury.

      Central Cord Syndrome
      Central cord syndrome causes bilateral weakness of the limbs, with the upper limbs being more affected than the lower extremities. This is because the upper limbs are represented medially in the corticospinal tracts.

      Anterior Cord Syndrome
      In anterior cord syndrome, proprioception, vibratory sense, and light touch are preserved. However, there is bilateral weakness and loss of pain and temperature sensation due to involvement of the spinothalamic tracts.

      Posterior Cord Syndrome
      Posterior cord syndrome is characterized by loss of vibratory sense and proprioception below the level of the lesion, as well as total sensory loss at the level of the lesion.

      Cauda Equina Syndrome
      Cauda equina syndrome is caused by compressive lesions at L4/L5 or L5/S1. Symptoms include asymmetric weakness, saddle anesthesia, decreased reflexes at the knee, and radicular pain. Bowel and bladder retention may develop as late complications.

      In conclusion, understanding the different types of spinal cord syndromes is crucial in diagnosing and treating patients with neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
      52.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old man presents with complaints of numbness in his lower extremities. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents with complaints of numbness in his lower extremities. He has no significant medical history. Upon physical examination, there is a loss of proprioception on his left side below the umbilical line, and complete loss of sensation at the umbilical line. Furthermore, there is a loss of thermal and pain sensation in the groin area and below, on the right side. Radiological imaging reveals a mass on the spine. What is the most likely location of the mass?

      Your Answer: Lumbar level 1 on the left side

      Correct Answer: Thoracic level 10 on the right side

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sensory Loss in Spinal Lesions at Different Levels

      Spinal lesions can cause a range of sensory deficits depending on the level of the injury. For example, a lesion at the right tenth thoracic level can result in Brown-Séquard syndrome, with loss of tactile discrimination and vibratory and proprioceptive sensations on the ipsilateral side below the lesion, and loss of pain and temperature sensation on the contralateral side 2-3 levels below the lesion. However, a lesion at lumbar level 1 on the left side would cause sensory loss on the opposite side, around the level of the anterior superior iliac spines. It’s important to note that the umbilical line is innervated by T10, so a lesion at T11 on either side would spare sensation at this level. Understanding these patterns of sensory loss can aid in diagnosing and treating spinal lesions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
      82.5
      Seconds

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