00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 2-year-old boy has cerebral palsy. He presents with profuse rhinorrhoea, pyrexia and...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old boy has cerebral palsy. He presents with profuse rhinorrhoea, pyrexia and noisy respiration. The noise is a heavy-snoring inspiratory sound. His tonsils are enlarged and inflamed.
      Which of the following describes the sound that this child is making?

      Your Answer: Stridor

      Correct Answer: Stertorous

      Explanation:

      Stertorous refers to a noisy and laboured breathing sound, often heard during deep sleep or coma, caused by obstruction in the upper airways. Hypernasal speech is an abnormal voice resonance due to increased airflow through the nose during speech, caused by an incomplete closure of the soft palate and/or velopharyngeal sphincter. Rales, also known as crackles or crepitations, are clicking or crackling noises heard during auscultation, caused by the popping open of small airways and alveoli collapsed by fluid or exudate during expiration. Stridor is a high-pitched sound occurring during inhalation or exhalation, indicating respiratory obstruction, commonly caused by croup, foreign bodies, or allergic reactions. Wheezing is a high-pitched whistling sound made while breathing, caused by narrowed airways, typically in asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      56.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old man with schizophrenia reports that thoughts are leaking out of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man with schizophrenia reports that thoughts are leaking out of his head and being read by others around him.
      What is the correct term for this symptom?

      Your Answer: Thought echo

      Correct Answer: Thought broadcast

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Types of Thought Experiences

      There are various types of thought experiences that individuals may encounter. One of these is thought broadcast, where others can seemingly hear or read one’s thoughts as they are being broadcasted from the individual. On the other hand, thought insertion and withdrawal refer to the experience of having thoughts inserted into or taken out of one’s mind by an external force. In thought blocking, individuals may suddenly find themselves unable to continue speaking as their minds go blank. Meanwhile, thought echo involves hearing one’s own thoughts being spoken aloud after thinking them. Finally, auditory hallucinations refer to the perception of hearing sounds or voices without any external stimulus. Understanding these different types of thought experiences can help individuals better recognize and cope with them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      50.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You see a 44-year-old lady whose brother and nephew both died of pancreatic...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 44-year-old lady whose brother and nephew both died of pancreatic cancer. The lady was diagnosed with diabetes from a range of tests. In addition, she noticed that her skin started to have a yellow tinge and she complained of itching over her body.

      Which is the best management option?

      Your Answer: Refer urgently to a gastroenterologist (within the two week wait pathway)

      Correct Answer: Arrange an MRI of the pancreas

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral for Suspected Pancreatic Cancer

      With a strong family history of pancreatic cancer, it is important to have a low threshold for investigating any concerning symptoms. In addition, if a patient aged 60 or over presents with weight loss and any of the following symptoms – diarrhoea, back pain, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, constipation, or new-onset diabetes – a CT scan should be carried out urgently.

      In this case, the patient has also been diagnosed with diabetes and jaundice, which further warrants an urgent referral for suspected cancer. It is important to note that an MRI should not be arranged in primary care, and the decision can be left with the specialist. Additionally, an ultrasound is not the preferred investigation in this instance.

      A routine referral would be inappropriate due to the red flags highlighted in the patient’s history. With such a strong family history, it is crucial to investigate this patient further and take appropriate action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      93.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 28-year-old woman has relapsed Graves’ disease. The thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level is...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman has relapsed Graves’ disease. The thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level is less than 0.05 μU/l (normal range 1.7–3.2 μU/l and the free thyroxine (T4) is 32.5 pmol/l (normal range 11–22 pmol/l). She has severe bilateral thyroid eye disease with marked orbital oedema and proptosis. She is being considered for radioactive iodine treatment, as drug treatment has failed.
      Which of the following statements concerning the management of thyroid eye disease is correct?

      Your Answer: Her thyroid eye disease may be worsened by radioiodine treatment

      Explanation:

      Thyroid Eye Disease: Treatment and Management

      Thyroid eye disease (TED) is a condition that affects the eyes and is often associated with thyroid dysfunction. Radioiodine treatment may worsen the eye disease, with exacerbation being more common than with drug therapy alone. However, only a small percentage of cases threaten sight, with most causing discomfort and deteriorating cosmetic appearance. Orbital irradiation is not commonly used to treat TED, as studies have not clearly demonstrated its efficacy. Corrective eye muscle surgery should be delayed until the disease has been stable for at least six months and may be of value in improving diplopia. Urgent orbital decompression surgery may be required for severe sight-threatening disease. Methylcellulose drops may be prescribed by general practitioners to alleviate symptoms due to corneal exposure. Systemic corticosteroids and oral non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs may ease discomfort and decrease inflammation when symptoms are severe, while intravenous corticosteroids are used if vision is threatened. Smoking is an important risk factor for TED, increasing the risk of developing the disease by seven to eight times. The risk increases with the number of cigarettes smoked and reduces on stopping. Smoking also increases the risk of worsening after radioiodine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      199.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - You examine a femoral X-ray of a 14-year-old girl that you ordered yesterday....

    Incorrect

    • You examine a femoral X-ray of a 14-year-old girl that you ordered yesterday. She complained of persistent bone pain in her distal femur for the past month. The X-ray reveals destruction of the medullary and cortical bone in the distal femur. What is the recommended follow-up for this X-ray?

      Your Answer: Ensure patient is seen by a specialist within 2 weeks

      Correct Answer: Ensure patient is seen by a specialist within 48 hours

      Explanation:

      An urgent referral is required for specialist assessment of children and young people who have an X-ray indicating bone sarcoma, with a timeframe of less than 48 hours. This is particularly important for a child who presents with symptoms suggestive of osteosarcoma, as bony destruction is a typical finding. According to NICE guidelines, suspected cancer in children should be referred urgently within 48 hours, rather than the 2-week pathway for adults. Medications such as vitamin D, calcium, and alendronate are used to treat osteoporosis, which is not likely to be the primary cause of the child’s X-ray. If required, specialists may request a bone marrow biopsy, which cannot be performed at the GP surgery.

      Sarcomas: Types, Features, and Assessment

      Sarcomas are malignant tumors that originate from mesenchymal cells. They can either be bone or soft tissue in origin. Bone sarcomas include osteosarcoma, Ewing’s sarcoma, and chondrosarcoma, while soft tissue sarcomas are a more diverse group that includes liposarcoma, rhabdomyosarcoma, leiomyosarcoma, and synovial sarcomas. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma is a sarcoma that can arise in both soft tissue and bone.

      Certain features of a mass or swelling should raise suspicion for a sarcoma, such as a large (>5cm) soft tissue mass, deep tissue or intramuscular location, rapid growth, and a painful lump. Imaging of suspicious masses should utilize a combination of MRI, CT, and USS. Blind biopsy should not be performed prior to imaging, and where required, should be done in such a way that the biopsy tract can be subsequently included in any resection.

      Ewing’s sarcoma is more common in males, with an incidence of 0.3/1,000,000 and onset typically between 10 and 20 years of age. Osteosarcoma is more common in males, with an incidence of 5/1,000,000 and peak age 15-30. Liposarcoma is rare, with an incidence of approximately 2.5/1,000,000, and typically affects an older age group (>40 years of age). Malignant fibrous histiocytoma is the most common sarcoma in adults and is usually treated with surgical resection and adjuvant radiotherapy.

      In summary, sarcomas are a diverse group of malignant tumors that can arise from bone or soft tissue. Certain features of a mass or swelling should raise suspicion for a sarcoma, and imaging should utilize a combination of MRI, CT, and USS. Treatment options vary depending on the type and location of the sarcoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      65.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following tests involves a comparison of within-group variance and between-group...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following tests involves a comparison of within-group variance and between-group variance?

      Your Answer: Independent t-test

      Correct Answer: ANOVA

      Explanation:

      Understanding ANOVA: A Statistical Test for Comparing Multiple Group Means

      ANOVA is a statistical test used to determine if there are significant differences between the means of multiple groups. Unlike the t-test, which only compares two means, ANOVA can compare more than two means. However, ANOVA assumes that the variable being tested is normally distributed. If this assumption is not met, nonparametric tests such as the Kruskal-Wallis analysis of ranks, the Median test, Friedman’s two-way analysis of variance, and Cochran Q test can be used instead.

      The ANOVA test works by comparing the variance of the means. It distinguishes between within-group variance, which is the variance of the sample mean, and between-group variance, which is the variance between the separate sample means. The null hypothesis assumes that the variance of all the means is the same, and that within-group variance is the same as between-group variance. The test is based on the ratio of these two variances, which is known as the F statistic.

      In summary, ANOVA is a useful statistical test for comparing multiple group means. However, it is important to ensure that the variable being tested is normally distributed. If this assumption is not met, nonparametric tests can be used instead.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 38-year-old man presents to your clinic with a complaint of persistent epigastric...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man presents to your clinic with a complaint of persistent epigastric pain for the past three months. He denies any weight loss, haematemesis, or melaena. On examination, there is tenderness in the epigastrium, but otherwise, the abdominal examination is unremarkable. The patient is currently taking Citalopram 20 mg, Lisinopril 20 mg OD, Aspirin 75 mg OD, and Bendroflumethiazide 2.5 mg. He recently had a painful knee and has been taking Ibuprofen at least three times a day. He has a history of severe depressive disorder, which has been effectively controlled on Citalopram for the past 9 months. What is the most appropriate initial management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Stop his Ibuprofen, continue Citalopram and start him on a proton pump inhibitor

      Correct Answer: Reduce his Ibuprofen and change his antidepressant

      Explanation:

      Medication Review for Patient with Multiple Symptoms

      This patient is experiencing symptoms that are likely caused by the combination of aspirin, ibuprofen, and citalopram. Co-prescribing NSAIDs and SSRIs can increase the risk of gastric bleeding, so it is important to alter the medication rather than refer for endoscopy. The patient should be closely monitored and may benefit from a PPI for gastroprotection.

      Although citalopram may be contributing to the symptoms, it has been effective in managing the patient’s recurrent depressive episodes. Patients with a history of depression should remain on antidepressants for at least 2 years into remission.

      To ensure the patient responds well to the altered medication, a review should be scheduled in two weeks. It may also be appropriate to check the patient’s Hb level for anaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      123.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 68-year-old woman has falls at home. You diagnose a chest infection and...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman has falls at home. You diagnose a chest infection and find that she is also confused. You start antibiotics but her family is mainly concerned about the falls.

      Neither the patient nor family wants her to be admitted to hospital.

      What measures would you suggest to minimize her risk of falling?

      Your Answer: Ensure adequate hydration and treatment of infection

      Explanation:

      Preventing Falls in Elderly Patients

      To prevent falls in elderly patients, it is important to ensure adequate hydration and treat any infections promptly. Cot-sides and restraints should be avoided as they can be dangerous. Hip protectors may not be effective in preventing falls or fractures. In cases where postural hypotension is the cause of falls, midodrine can be used as a treatment option. By taking these precautions, the risk of falls can be reduced in elderly patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      83.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 26-year-old male presents with benign paroxysmal positional vertigo that has persisted for...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old male presents with benign paroxysmal positional vertigo that has persisted for 3 weeks after a recent upper respiratory tract infection. He requests the Epley manoeuvre to alleviate his symptoms as he is currently unable to operate a vehicle. What is the success rate of the Epley manoeuvre in patients with this condition?

      Your Answer: 95%

      Correct Answer: 80%

      Explanation:

      Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common cause of vertigo that occurs suddenly when there is a change in head position. It is more prevalent in individuals over the age of 55 and is less common in younger patients. Symptoms of BPPV include dizziness and vertigo, which can be accompanied by nausea. Each episode typically lasts for 10-20 seconds and can be triggered by rolling over in bed or looking upwards. A positive Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre, which is indicated by vertigo and rotatory nystagmus, can confirm the diagnosis of BPPV.

      Fortunately, BPPV has a good prognosis and usually resolves on its own within a few weeks to months. Treatment options include the Epley manoeuvre, which is successful in around 80% of cases, and vestibular rehabilitation exercises such as the Brandt-Daroff exercises. While medication such as Betahistine may be prescribed, it tends to have limited effectiveness. However, it is important to note that around half of individuals with BPPV may experience a recurrence of symptoms 3-5 years after their initial diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      55.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old man presents with weakness of his right arm - he cannot...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents with weakness of his right arm - he cannot move the arm at all.

      The weakness came on suddenly. He sees a neurologist but no neurological illness can be found. He is a soldier and has just returned from a tour of duty. He has no history of illness and has not missed a day off work for two years. The weakness has been present for nine days.

      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Conversion disorder

      Correct Answer: Multiple sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of a Soldier with Paralysis

      The soldier in this case has a previously good sickness record but is now experiencing muscle paralysis. It is reasonable to assume that he has been exposed to considerable stress in the recent past. After seeing a neurologist, it can be concluded that there is no neurological disease present.

      This situation is indicative of a conversion disorder, which is a psychological condition where physical symptoms cannot be explained by medical examination. Muscle paralysis is a common symptom of this disorder, and the signs do not support the symptoms. In fact, tone may seem to be increased due to simultaneous flexor and extensor contraction.

      Given the soldier’s history and symptoms, it is unlikely that he is malingering. Instead, psychological factors are likely to be important in this case. Overall, the most likely diagnosis for this soldier is a conversion disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      79
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 70-year-old man visits his doctor after his family complains about his hearing...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man visits his doctor after his family complains about his hearing loss. He claims that they speak too softly, but admits that he struggles to hear in noisy settings. The patient reports feeling generally healthy, but has a history of hypertension and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.

      During the examination, the doctor discovers bilateral sensorineural hearing loss. Presbycusis is suspected as the cause and the patient is referred for audiometric testing.

      What is the expected audiogram pattern for this individual?

      Your Answer: Bilateral low-frequency hearing loss. Air conduction better than bone

      Correct Answer: Bilateral high-frequency hearing loss. Air conduction better than bone

      Explanation:

      Presbycusis is characterized by a bilateral loss of high-frequency hearing. This type of age-related hearing loss affects the inner ear and is often accompanied by difficulty hearing in noisy environments. In sensorineural hearing loss, air conduction is more effective than bone conduction, which is the opposite of conductive hearing loss. Therefore, the correct answer is ‘Bilateral high-frequency hearing loss. Air conduction is more effective than bone conduction.’

      Understanding Presbycusis: Age-Related Hearing Loss

      Presbycusis is a type of hearing loss that affects older individuals. It is a sensorineural hearing loss that typically affects high-frequency hearing bilaterally, leading to difficulties in understanding conversations, especially in noisy environments. The condition progresses slowly as the sensory hair cells and neurons in the cochlea atrophy over time. Although certain factors are associated with presbycusis, it is distinct from noise-related hearing loss.

      The prevalence of presbycusis increases with age, with an estimated 25-30% of 65-74 year-olds and 40-50% of those over 75 years experiencing impaired hearing in the USA. The exact cause of presbycusis is unknown, but it is likely multifactorial. Arteriosclerosis, diabetes, accumulated exposure to noise, drug exposure, stress, and genetics are some of the factors that may contribute to the development of presbycusis.

      Patients with presbycusis typically present with a chronic, slowly progressing history of difficulty understanding speech, increased volume needed for television or radio, difficulty using the telephone, loss of directionality of sound, and worsening of symptoms in noisy environments. Hyperacusis, a heightened sensitivity to certain frequencies of sound, and tinnitus, a ringing or buzzing in the ears, may also occur but are less common.

      To diagnose presbycusis, otoscopy is performed to rule out other causes of hearing loss, such as otosclerosis or conductive hearing loss. Tympanometry is used to assess middle ear function, and audiometry is used to confirm bilateral sensorineural hearing loss. Blood tests may also be performed to rule out other underlying conditions.

      In summary, presbycusis is an age-related hearing loss that affects a significant portion of the elderly population. Although the exact cause is unknown, it is likely due to a combination of factors. Patients with presbycusis may experience difficulty understanding speech, increased volume needed for audio devices, and other symptoms. Diagnosis is made through a combination of physical examination and hearing tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      118
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 55-year-old woman visits your office with chronic anxiety. She recently came across...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman visits your office with chronic anxiety. She recently came across an article in the newspaper about breast cancer and is now concerned about her risk of developing it.

      What is a known risk factor for breast cancer?

      Your Answer: High alcohol consumption

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Risk Factors for Breast Cancer

      Breast cancer is a major concern for women worldwide, and understanding its risk factors is crucial for prevention and early detection. According to the Royal College, having knowledge of the epidemiology of major cancers, along with risk factors and unhealthy behaviors, is essential.

      One of the significant risk factors for breast cancer is high alcohol consumption, which can increase the likelihood of developing the disease. Additionally, a late menopause can also increase the risk of breast cancer. Other risk factors include having had no children, not having breastfed, and having an early puberty.

      It is important to note that having one or more of these risk factors doesn’t necessarily mean that a person will develop breast cancer. However, being aware of these factors and taking steps to reduce their impact can help lower the risk of developing the disease. Regular breast cancer screenings and maintaining a healthy lifestyle can also aid in early detection and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      109.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 65-year-old woman has a diagnosis of subclinical hypothyroidism, but over the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman has a diagnosis of subclinical hypothyroidism, but over the past six months has been increasingly fatigued, constipated and always feels cold. She has gained 3 lb in the same timeframe despite no change to her diet or lifestyle. Her General Practitioner suspects the development of primary hypothyroidism and arranges a thyroid function blood test to confirm.
      Which of the following biochemical changes is most likely to appear first?

      Your Answer: Fall in serum free thyroxine (T4)

      Correct Answer: Increase in serum thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

      Explanation:

      Hypothyroidism develops gradually over a long period of time. In the early stages, the body compensates for the low levels of free thyroxine by increasing the production of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). This can result in subclinical hypothyroidism, where TSH levels are slightly elevated and thyroxine levels are low-normal. Subclinical hypothyroidism affects 3-8% of the population and carries a risk of progressing to overt hypothyroidism. Treatment should be considered if TSH levels are 10 U/ml or higher, or if there are other factors such as a goitre, positive anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies, or subfertility. As hypothyroidism progresses, there is a decrease in free triiodothyronine (T3) and free thyroxine (T4) levels, followed by a decrease in thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG) levels. Total triiodothyronine (T3) levels tend to decrease later in the course of hypothyroidism, after a rise in TSH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      130.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 16-year-old boy is being examined after experiencing excessive bleeding post a tooth...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old boy is being examined after experiencing excessive bleeding post a tooth extraction. The test results are as follows:

      Platelet count: 173 * 109/l
      Prothrombin time (PT): 12.9 seconds
      Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT): 84 seconds

      Based on these results, which clotting factor deficiency is the most probable cause of his bleeding?

      Your Answer: Factor VIII

      Explanation:

      Haemophilia is a genetic disorder that affects blood coagulation and is inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. It is possible for up to 30% of patients to have no family history of the condition. Haemophilia A is caused by a deficiency of factor VIII, while haemophilia B, also known as Christmas disease, is caused by a lack of factor IX.

      The symptoms of haemophilia include haemoarthroses, haematomas, and prolonged bleeding after surgery or trauma. Blood tests can reveal a prolonged APTT, while the bleeding time, thrombin time, and prothrombin time are normal. However, up to 10-15% of patients with haemophilia A may develop antibodies to factor VIII treatment.

      Overall, haemophilia is a serious condition that can cause significant bleeding and other complications. It is important for individuals with haemophilia to receive appropriate medical care and treatment to manage their symptoms and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      87.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 35-year-old woman has had a renal transplant six months ago. Other than...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman has had a renal transplant six months ago. Other than chronic kidney disease and her subsequent transplant, she has no significant medical history or family history. There is a shared-care protocol between the Transplant Unit and the General Practitioner.
      Which of the following is this patient most likely to receive as part of this protocol?

      Your Answer: Depot medroxyprogesterone acetate

      Explanation:

      Managing Women’s Health after Renal Transplant: Contraception, Cancer Screening, and Vaccinations

      Women who have undergone renal transplant and are of childbearing age should use effective contraception to prevent unintended pregnancy. The most effective methods include intrauterine contraceptive devices, etonogestrel implants, and depot medroxyprogesterone acetate. The latter is particularly suitable as it doesn’t interact with immunosuppressive drugs commonly used in transplant patients. While pregnancy is possible after a renal transplant, it is recommended to wait for at least a year and plan it carefully. Women should also manage their cardiovascular risk factors and keep up-to-date with vaccinations and cancer screening.

      Renal transplant recipients have a higher incidence of cancer than the general population, so regular cancer screening is essential. Breast screening typically starts at 50 years, while cervical screening may not require additional tests. Warfarin is unlikely to be prescribed after a renal transplant, but if necessary, careful monitoring is required. Live vaccines, including Zostavax® shingles vaccine, should be avoided due to the risk of lower efficacy and immunosuppression. Instead, Shingrix® vaccine can be used where indicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      85.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - You are the on-call doctor for the afternoon clinic and have received an...

    Incorrect

    • You are the on-call doctor for the afternoon clinic and have received an email from a consultant psychiatrist regarding a patient with bipolar disorder who is registered at your practice. The psychiatrist has just reviewed the patient and increased their lithium dose from 200 mg to 400 mg daily. The patient has already started taking the new dose. As the duty doctor, when should you schedule the next lithium level check for this patient?

      Your Answer: 3 days after change

      Correct Answer: 1 week after change

      Explanation:

      Following a change in dosage, it is recommended to monitor lithium levels one week later and continue to do so on a weekly basis until the levels stabilize. Checking lithium levels three days after a dosage change may not provide accurate results as the medication may not have reached a steady state. However, it is crucial to not delay monitoring for more than a week as an increase in lithium dosage can increase the risk of toxicity. Neglecting to monitor lithium levels can be unsafe.

      Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in refractory depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate or cAMP formation.

      Common adverse effects of lithium include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, and nephrotoxicity. It may also cause thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, and hyperparathyroidism.

      Monitoring of patients on lithium therapy is crucial to prevent toxicity. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until concentrations are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every 3 months. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      70.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A man attends the surgery for an 'MOT' having just had his 55th...

    Correct

    • A man attends the surgery for an 'MOT' having just had his 55th birthday. He is keen to reduce his risk of cardiovascular disease and asks about being started on a 'statin'.

      He has no significant past medical history and takes no medication. His father had a 'heart attack' aged seventy, but his father was obese and a heavy smoker. There is no other family history of note. There is no suggestion of a familial lipid condition.

      What is the most appropriate management approach at this point?

      Your Answer: Optimise adherence to diet and lifestyle measures

      Explanation:

      Primary Prevention of Cardiovascular Disease

      This patient has no history of cardiovascular disease (CVD), and therefore, the primary prevention approach is necessary. The first step is to use a CVD risk assessment tool such as QRISK2 to evaluate the patient’s cardiovascular risk. If the patient has a 10% or greater 10-year risk of developing CVD, measuring their lipid profile and offering atorvastatin 20 mg daily would be appropriate. Additionally, providing advice to optimize diet and lifestyle measures is necessary. However, if the patient’s risk is less than 10%, then diet and lifestyle advice/optimization in isolation would be appropriate. At this point, there is no specific indication for lipid clinic input. The use of QRISK2 in this scenario is the best approach as it guides the management, including whether pharmacological treatment with a statin is necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      121.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 20-year-old patient with panic attacks is evaluated after being on a selective...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old patient with panic attacks is evaluated after being on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) for 3 months. The patient reports no significant improvement in the frequency of the episodes. According to NICE, what is the recommended second-line pharmacological treatment for panic disorder?

      Your Answer: Quetiapine

      Correct Answer: Imipramine

      Explanation:

      Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing psychiatric disorders such as anxiety. Hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety are important alternative causes. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.

      NICE recommends a stepwise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). The first step is education about GAD and active monitoring. The second step involves low-intensity psychological interventions such as individual non-facilitated self-help, individual guided self-help, or psychoeducational groups. The third step includes high-intensity psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioural therapy or applied relaxation, or drug treatment. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI recommended by NICE. If sertraline is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin–noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the person cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under the age of 30 years, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.

      The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach. The first step is recognition and diagnosis, followed by treatment in primary care. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment. SSRIs are the first-line treatment. If contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered. The third step involves reviewing and considering alternative treatments, followed by review and referral to specialist mental health services in the fourth and fifth steps, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      62.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 70-year-old man in a nursing home has dementia and is experiencing severe...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man in a nursing home has dementia and is experiencing severe pruritus. During examination, he has excoriations on his trunk and limbs. There is some scaling on his palms, particularly in the web spaces.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Scabies infestation

      Explanation:

      Skin Conditions and Diseases: Differential Diagnosis for Pruritus and Rash

      When a patient presents with pruritus and a rash, it is important for doctors to consider a range of possible skin conditions and diseases. One common cause of such symptoms is scabies infestation, which can be identified by a scaly rash on the hands with burrows and scaling in the web spaces. However, the rash in scabies is nonspecific and can be mistaken for eczema, so doctors must maintain a high index of suspicion and consider scabies as a diagnosis until proven otherwise.

      Other skin conditions and diseases that may cause pruritus and rash include diabetes, atopic eczema, chronic renal failure, and iron deficiency anaemia. Diabetes is associated with several skin conditions, such as necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum and acanthosis nigricans, but typically doesn’t present with pruritus and rash. Atopic eczema can lead to pruritus and rash, but patients with this condition usually have a long history of eczematous lesions elsewhere on their body. Chronic renal failure may cause pruritus due to uraemia, but rarely results in a skin rash. Iron deficiency anaemia may cause itching and pruritus, but doesn’t typically cause a skin rash.

      In summary, when a patient presents with pruritus and rash, doctors must consider a range of possible skin conditions and diseases, including scabies infestation, diabetes, atopic eczema, chronic renal failure, and iron deficiency anaemia. A thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to accurately identify the underlying cause of the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      72
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 7-year-old girl is playing outside when she trips and falls, landing on...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl is playing outside when she trips and falls, landing on the outside of her left foot. She immediately cries out in pain and looks for help. There is no significant family or personal medical history. She is assisted by a neighbor as she limps inside. She is able to put weight on her foot.
      Upon examination, her left ankle is swollen, warm, and shows signs of bruising. She has limited range of motion, particularly with internal rotation, and experiences tenderness along the lateral aspect of the ankle joint below the lateral malleolus, although there is no point tenderness over the malleolus itself.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ankle sprain

      Correct Answer: Ankle dislocation

      Explanation:

      Ankle Injuries in Children and the Ottawa Ankle Rules

      The history of ankle injuries in children suggests a forced internal rotation at the ankle joint, which can cause a sprain of the lateral ligaments. This type of injury requires supportive strapping, analgesia, and graduated mobilization. However, ankle sprains are less common in children than adults because their ligaments are stronger than their growth plates. As a result, the growth plate tends to fracture before the ligament tears.

      In some cases, Salter-Harris Type 1 fractures and ligament tears may not show up on radiographs. Therefore, it is important to consider the patient’s history, such as tenderness over the ligament rather than bone and whether the patient is weight-bearing.

      The Ottawa ankle rules are helpful in assisting GPs in the management of ankle injuries in adults and determining the need for an x-ray. A recent study published in the BMJ showed that the Ottawa ankle rules are highly accurate at excluding ankle fractures after a sprain injury. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate care for ankle injuries in children and adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      94
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 67-year-old man was put on treatment for glaucoma and came back for...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man was put on treatment for glaucoma and came back for a review after a month. Although his eye pressures had improved, he reported an increase in the length of his eyelashes. Which medication is responsible for this side effect?

      Your Answer: Dorzolamide

      Correct Answer: Latanoprost

      Explanation:

      Prostaglandin analogues are associated with several side effects, including longer eyelashes, iris pigmentation, and periocular pigmentation.

      Primary open-angle glaucoma is a type of optic neuropathy that is associated with increased intraocular pressure (IOP). It is classified based on whether the peripheral iris is covering the trabecular meshwork, which is important in the drainage of aqueous humour from the anterior chamber of the eye. In open-angle glaucoma, the iris is clear of the meshwork, but the trabecular network offers increased resistance to aqueous outflow, causing increased IOP. This condition affects 0.5% of people over the age of 40 and its prevalence increases with age up to 10% over the age of 80 years. Both males and females are equally affected. The main causes of primary open-angle glaucoma are increasing age and genetics, with first-degree relatives of an open-angle glaucoma patient having a 16% chance of developing the disease.

      Primary open-angle glaucoma is characterised by a slow rise in intraocular pressure, which is symptomless for a long period. It is typically detected following an ocular pressure measurement during a routine examination by an optometrist. Signs of the condition include increased intraocular pressure, visual field defect, and pathological cupping of the optic disc. Case finding and provisional diagnosis are done by an optometrist, and referral to an ophthalmologist is done via the GP. Final diagnosis is made through investigations such as automated perimetry to assess visual field, slit lamp examination with pupil dilatation to assess optic nerve and fundus for a baseline, applanation tonometry to measure IOP, central corneal thickness measurement, and gonioscopy to assess peripheral anterior chamber configuration and depth. The risk of future visual impairment is assessed using risk factors such as IOP, central corneal thickness (CCT), family history, and life expectancy.

      The majority of patients with primary open-angle glaucoma are managed with eye drops that aim to lower intraocular pressure and prevent progressive loss of visual field. According to NICE guidelines, the first line of treatment is a prostaglandin analogue (PGA) eyedrop, followed by a beta-blocker, carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, or sympathomimetic eyedrop as a second line of treatment. Surgery or laser treatment can be tried in more advanced cases. Reassessment is important to exclude progression and visual field loss and needs to be done more frequently if IOP is uncontrolled, the patient is high risk, or there

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      78.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 35 year old male patient comes to you with complaints of headache,...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old male patient comes to you with complaints of headache, myalgia, and a worsening cough for the past 5 days. He has a non-productive cough. During the examination, you observe a rash consisting of target lesions all over his trunk. On auscultation, bronchial breathing is heard at his right base. He has recently started working as a primary school teacher. Which organism is the most probable cause of this presentation?

      Your Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      Mycoplasma pneumonia is commonly linked to erythema multiforme, which is evident in this patient who experienced flu-like symptoms before developing pneumonia and a rash. The presence of a prodrome and erythema multiforme are typical features of Mycoplasma pneumonia. Staphylococcus aureus is another possible cause of pneumonia with a viral prodrome, but the distinguishing factor in this case is the presence of erythema multiforme.

      Comparison of Legionella and Mycoplasma pneumonia

      Legionella and Mycoplasma pneumonia are both causes of atypical pneumonia, but they have some differences. Legionella is associated with outbreaks in buildings with contaminated water systems, while Mycoplasma pneumonia is more common in younger patients and is associated with epidemics every 4 years. Both diseases have flu-like symptoms, but Mycoplasma pneumonia has a more gradual onset and a dry cough. On x-ray, both diseases show bilateral consolidation. However, it is important to recognize Mycoplasma pneumonia as it may not respond to penicillins or cephalosporins due to it lacking a peptidoglycan cell wall.

      Complications of Mycoplasma pneumonia include cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, erythema multiforme, meningoencephalitis, and other immune-mediated neurological diseases. In contrast, Legionella can cause Legionnaires’ disease, which is a severe form of pneumonia that can lead to respiratory failure and death.

      Diagnosis of Legionella is generally by urinary antigen testing, while diagnosis of Mycoplasma pneumonia is generally by serology. Treatment for Legionella includes fluoroquinolones or macrolides, while treatment for Mycoplasma pneumonia includes doxycycline or a macrolide. Overall, while both diseases are causes of atypical pneumonia, they have some distinct differences in their epidemiology, symptoms, and complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      111.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 31-year-old patient presents to you seeking help with quitting smoking. He currently...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old patient presents to you seeking help with quitting smoking. He currently smokes 20-30 cigarettes per day. After counseling him on his options, you decide to prescribe bupropion. As per NICE guidelines, what is the recommended duration for the initial prescription of bupropion?

      Your Answer: 14 days

      Correct Answer: 84 days

      Explanation:

      Duration of Nicotine Replacement Therapy and Other Medications for Smoking Cessation

      The recommended duration for prescribing nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), varenicline, or bupropion is until two weeks after the target stop date. For NRT, this typically means two weeks of therapy, while varenicline and bupropion may require three to four weeks. It is important to adhere to this timeline to ensure the effectiveness of the medication and to avoid potential side effects from prolonged use. By following this guideline, individuals can increase their chances of successfully quitting smoking and improving their overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      103.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 35-year-old female is initiated on haloperidol for treatment-resistant schizophrenia. She visits her...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old female is initiated on haloperidol for treatment-resistant schizophrenia. She visits her primary care physician complaining of neck pain and limited neck movement for the past 24 hours. Upon examination, she displays normal vital signs except for a mild tachycardia of 105 and neck stiffness with restricted range of motion. Her neck is involuntarily flexed to the right, but her facial movements are normal. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Torticollis

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing acute dystonia, which is a sustained muscle contraction resulting in torticollis or oculogyric crisis. This is likely due to the recent initiation of a typical antipsychotic medication, specifically haloperidol. Torticollis, or a wry neck, is diagnosed when there is unilateral pain and deviation of the neck, restricted range of motion, and pain upon palpation.

      While neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a medical emergency that can occur in patients taking antipsychotics, this patient’s mild tachycardia is likely due to pain rather than altered mental state, generalised rigidity, fever, fluctuating blood pressure, and high temperature, which are the hallmark symptoms of this condition. However, it should still be considered in patients taking antipsychotics.

      Another example of acute dystonia is an oculogyric crisis, which involves sustained upward deviation of the eyes, clenched jaw, and hyperextension of the back/neck with torticollis. However, since the patient doesn’t exhibit any facial signs or symptoms, torticollis alone is the more appropriate diagnosis.

      Tardive dyskinesia is a condition that occurs in patients on long-term typical antipsychotics and is characterised by uncontrolled facial movements, such as lip-smacking.

      Antipsychotics are a type of medication used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. However, they are known to cause extrapyramidal side-effects such as Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. These side-effects can be managed with procyclidine. Other side-effects of typical antipsychotics include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients due to an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      105.3
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 35-year-old woman visits her doctor for a check-up. She is worried about...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her doctor for a check-up. She is worried about her risk of developing cardiovascular disease after hearing about a family member's recent diagnosis.
      Which of the following factors would most significantly increase her risk of cardiovascular disease?

      Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Explanation:

      Patients with rheumatoid arthritis may have an increased risk of developing accelerated atherosclerosis, which is believed to be linked to the inflammatory process. The QRisk2 calculator, used to predict the 10-year risk of developing cardiovascular disease, includes rheumatoid arthritis as a risk factor. However, a blood pressure reading of 130/80 mmHg and a BMI of 24 kg/m2 are within the normal range and not a cause for concern. Additionally, the HbA1c level of 41 mmol/mol is normal and doesn’t indicate an increased risk of diabetes. While a family history of myocardial infarction is significant, it is only considered a risk factor if the relative was diagnosed before the age of 60, not at 65.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      104.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 38-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with an infected wound on...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with an infected wound on his hand after being bitten by a dog outside his home yesterday. He has a history of rheumatoid arthritis. What is the most appropriate management in addition to copious irrigation?

      Your Answer: Remove any foreign body, close the wound, administer co-amoxiclav.

      Correct Answer: Remove any foreign body and leave the wound open, administer co-amoxiclav.

      Explanation:

      Management of Dog Bites: A Clinical Review

      Dog bites can cause serious injuries and infections. Therefore, it is important to know how to manage them properly. According to a clinical review published in the British Medical Journal in 2007, the following steps should be taken:

      1. Copious irrigation with tap water or normal saline is essential.
      2. Any foreign body (e.g. teeth) should be removed, with debridement where necessary.
      3. Closure of the wound should be delayed where possible.
      4. Antibiotics should be administered according to the risk of infection.
      5. Prophylactic antibiotics are indicated for all high-risk wounds and patients.
      6. Bites to the hands, wrists, and genitalia are considered high-risk as are patients with rheumatoid arthritis.
      7. Co-amoxiclav is the antibiotic of choice as it covers all commonly expected organisms.
      8. For those with a true penicillin allergy, tetracycline or doxycycline plus metronidazole or a combination with clindamycin should be used.
      9. Flucloxacillin or erythromycin alone should not be used for prophylaxis as they do not cover the virulent Pasteurella multocida, commonly found in dog bites.
      10. Tetanus immunoglobulin and toxoid should be given to all patients with a history of two or fewer immunisations.

      It is important to note that if the patient was not bitten abroad, there is no risk of rabies.

      Proper Management of Dog Bites: A Clinical Review

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      110.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A young patient suffers a traumatic left ear perforation. Which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • A young patient suffers a traumatic left ear perforation. Which of the following sets of findings is the most likely to be noted on tuning fork testing?
      Rinne left ear Rinne right ear Weber
      Patient A Air conduction better than bone conduction Air conduction better than bone conduction Central
      Patient B Bone conduction better than air conduction Air conduction better than bone conduction Lateralises to the left
      Patient C Bone conduction better than air conduction Air conduction better than bone conduction Lateralises to the right
      Patient D Air conduction better than bone conduction Bone conduction better than air conduction Lateralises to the right
      Patient E Bone conduction better than air conduction Bone conduction better than air conduction Central

      Your Answer: Patient A

      Correct Answer: Patient B

      Explanation:

      Hearing Tests and Their Interpretation

      Hearing tests are essential in diagnosing hearing problems. Two common tests are Rinne’s test and Weber’s test. Rinne’s test uses tuning forks of 512 Hz, but those of 256 Hz may be more accurate. A heavy tuning fork is preferable because a light fork produces a sound that fades too rapidly. To test air conduction, hold the tuning fork directly in line with the external auditory canal. When testing bone conduction, place the flat end of the stem of the tuning fork against bone immediately superior and posterior to the external canal. When air conduction is louder than bone conduction, it is reported as Rinne-positive.

      In interpreting the results, normal findings are expected in patient A, while patient C has anomalous findings that suggest a non-organic problem. Patient D suggests a right conductive loss, and patient E suggests a bilateral conductive loss, although in this case, the Weber test can lateralize to one side or the other.

      Weber’s test involves placing a 512 Hz tuning fork in the midline of the patient’s forehead. If the sound is louder on one side than the other, the patient may have either an ipsilateral conductive hearing loss or a contralateral sensorineural hearing loss. These tests are crucial in diagnosing hearing problems and should be conducted accurately to ensure proper interpretation of the results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      342.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 6-month-old boy is scheduled for his routine immunisations. He has received all...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old boy is scheduled for his routine immunisations. He has received all previous immunisations according to the routine schedule and has no medical history. What vaccinations should he receive during this visit?

      Your Answer: DTaP + Hib + PCV + Men C

      Correct Answer: '6-1 vaccine' (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) + Men B

      Explanation:

      PCV in addition to the 6-1 vaccine (which includes protection against diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib, and hepatitis B).

      The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at specific intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, PCV, and Men B vaccines are given. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 Preschool booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.

      It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine is also offered to new students up to the age of 25 years at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine, while students going to university or college for the first time should contact their GP to have the vaccine before the start of the academic year.

      The Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued as there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      63.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 79-year-old man comes in for the results of his recent blood tests....

    Correct

    • A 79-year-old man comes in for the results of his recent blood tests. He had visited the clinic yesterday due to jaundice and urgent blood tests were conducted. He denies any abdominal discomfort and feels fine. His heart rate is 82 beats per minute and he has a slight fever of 37.5 oC. The results of his liver function tests are as follows:

      - Bilirubin 150 µmol/L (3 - 17)
      - ALP 110 u/L (30 - 100)
      - ALT 20 u/L (3 - 40)
      - γGT 15 u/L (8 - 60)
      - Albumin 40 g/L (35 - 50)

      As per the current NICE CKS guidelines, what would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Arrange same day admission to secondary care

      Explanation:

      The patient with jaundice and a bilirubin level exceeding 100 micromol/L requires same day admission. Additionally, the patient is feverish, which further supports the need for immediate hospitalization.

      Hepatobiliary disease and related disorders can present with a variety of symptoms and exam findings. Viral hepatitis may cause nausea, vomiting, anorexia, myalgia, lethargy, and RUQ pain, and risk factors such as foreign travel or intravenous drug use may be highlighted in exam questions. Congestive hepatomegaly can occur as a result of congestive heart failure and may cause pain due to liver stretching. Biliary colic is characterized by intermittent RUQ pain that often occurs after eating, and attacks may be accompanied by nausea. Acute cholecystitis presents with severe and persistent pain that may radiate to the back or right shoulder, and the patient may be pyrexial and have a positive Murphy’s sign. Ascending cholangitis is an infection of the bile ducts that presents with fever, RUQ pain, and jaundice. Gallstone ileus can cause small bowel obstruction and is associated with abdominal pain, distension, and vomiting. Cholangiocarcinoma may cause persistent biliary colic symptoms, anorexia, jaundice, weight loss, and exam findings such as a palpable mass in the RUQ and lymphadenopathy. Acute pancreatitis may be due to alcohol or gallstones and presents with severe epigastric pain, vomiting, tenderness, ileus, and low-grade fever. Pancreatic cancer may present with painless jaundice, anorexia, weight loss, and pain. Amoebic liver abscess may cause malaise, anorexia, weight loss, and mild RUQ pain, but jaundice is uncommon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      136.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A clinical trial is designed to investigate a new treatment for elderly patients...

    Correct

    • A clinical trial is designed to investigate a new treatment for elderly patients with acute myocardial infarction. Two groups of elderly patients are randomly assigned to either the current protocol for management or the new treatment protocol. The patients are unaware of their treatment group, but the treating clinician is aware of which group each patient belongs to. What is the best description of this experimental study?

      Your Answer: Single-blind

      Explanation:

      Types of Experimental Studies

      Experimental studies can take on different forms, each with its own purpose and methodology. One important aspect of experimental studies is blinding or masking, which aims to prevent bias from influencing the results. Double-blind studies involve neither the patient nor the person performing the intervention knowing which treatment the patient has been assigned to receive. Single-blind studies, on the other hand, involve either the patient or the clinician not knowing which treatment has been randomly allocated. In a placebo-controlled study, the control group takes an inert substance (a placebo) instead of receiving no treatment.

      It is important to note that case-control studies are not a type of experimental study, but rather a type of observational study. In a case-control study, a group of individuals with a specific disease or study parameter are matched to a group of controls, and the two groups are analyzed to see if any important differences exist relating to their past. Triple-blind studies are also possible, where the patients, clinicians, and statisticians do not know which treatment patients had. Understanding the different types of experimental studies can help researchers design studies that are appropriate for their research questions and goals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      51.6
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A receptionist at your practice is asked to help out in clearing a...

    Incorrect

    • A receptionist at your practice is asked to help out in clearing a storage room of old records to make way for a new treatment room. During the course of her duties, whilst lifting a heavy box, she hurts her back. The resulting incapacitation from this injury leads to time off sick from work.
      According to Health & Safety law, for what length of time would she need to be incapacitated for you to REPORT the incident in your RIDDOR records?

      If the receptionist was injured and incapacitated for how many days would you need to report the incident in your RIDDOR records?

      Your Answer: 14 days

      Correct Answer: 7 days

      Explanation:

      Understanding RIDDOR Reporting Thresholds

      Health and safety questions in AKT exams often catch candidates off guard, as they may not be familiar with the information being tested. One area that frequently causes confusion is the reporting threshold for incidents under RIDDOR, the law that requires employers and others in control of work premises to report and keep records of work-related accidents, certain serious injuries, diagnosed industrial diseases, and dangerous occurrences.

      It’s important to note that we’re specifically asking about the threshold for reporting, not just recording, an incident. Reportable injuries are those that cause an employee or self-employed person to be away from work or unable to perform their normal duties for more than seven consecutive days, not counting the day of the accident.

      To clarify, if an employee sustains a work-related injury and is incapacitated for three days, the incident should be recorded. However, if they are incapacitated for seven days or more, the incident must be reported. Understanding these thresholds is crucial for complying with RIDDOR and ensuring the safety of employees in the workplace.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      85.5
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - You are conducting an annual COPD review for Mrs. Patel. You quickly refer...

    Correct

    • You are conducting an annual COPD review for Mrs. Patel. You quickly refer to the latest NICE guidelines.

      Which of the following factors in her medical history would warrant the prescription of prophylactic antibiotics?

      Your Answer: He has had 5 exacerbations in the past year

      Explanation:

      Patients with COPD who experience frequent exacerbations and meet specific criteria are recommended to undergo azithromycin prophylaxis. According to NICE guidelines, this treatment should be considered for non-smokers, patients who have already undergone pulmonary rehabilitation and are on the maximum inhaled therapy, and those who have had more than four exacerbations resulting in hospitalization with sputum production. Before starting the antibiotics, patients should undergo a CT scan to eliminate other lung pathologies.

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in 2018. The guidelines recommend general management strategies such as smoking cessation advice, annual influenza vaccination, and one-off pneumococcal vaccination. Pulmonary rehabilitation is also recommended for patients who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD.

      Bronchodilator therapy is the first-line treatment for patients who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting bronchodilators. The next step is determined by whether the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness. NICE suggests several criteria to determine this, including a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher blood eosinophil count, substantial variation in FEV1 over time, and substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow.

      If the patient doesn’t have asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be added. If the patient is already taking a short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA), it should be discontinued and switched to a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA). If the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be added. If the patient remains breathless or has exacerbations, triple therapy (LAMA + LABA + ICS) should be offered.

      NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients who have optimised standard treatments and continue to have exacerbations. Mucolytics should be considered in patients with a chronic productive cough and continued if symptoms improve.

      Cor pulmonale features include peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, systolic parasternal heave, and loud P2. Loop diuretics should be used for oedema, and long-term oxygen therapy should be considered. Smoking cessation, long-term oxygen therapy in eligible patients, and lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients may improve survival in patients with stable COPD. NICE doesn’t recommend the use of ACE-inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, or alpha blockers

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      82.9
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 32-year-old woman who is 16 weeks pregnant has received the results of...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman who is 16 weeks pregnant has received the results of her combined screening test for Down syndrome. Her risk is 1:200, but she is unsure of what this means. What advice should be given to her?

      Your Answer: You should refer her to complete the integrated Down syndrome screening test

      Correct Answer: You should offer her referral for diagnostic testing

      Explanation:

      Screening tests for Down syndrome are not always accurate, as they can miss detecting the condition in a significant number of babies. If a patient receives a low-risk result, they will not be offered any further testing for Down syndrome.

      However, if a patient receives a higher risk result, meaning their baby has a risk greater than 1 in 150, they will be offered a diagnostic test to confirm whether or not their baby has Down syndrome. It is ultimately up to the patient to decide whether or not to undergo the diagnostic test.

      Diagnostic tests for Down syndrome include chorionic villus sampling and amniocentesis.

      NICE updated guidelines on antenatal care in 2021, recommending the combined test for screening for Down’s syndrome between 11-13+6 weeks. The quadruple test should be offered between 15-20 weeks for women who book later in pregnancy. Results of both tests return either a ‘lower chance’ or ‘higher chance’ result. If a woman receives a ‘higher chance’ result, she will be offered a second screening test (NIPT) or a diagnostic test. NIPT analyzes cell-free fetal DNA from placental cells in the mother’s blood and has high sensitivity and specificity for detecting chromosomal abnormalities, with private companies offering screening from 10 weeks gestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      75.6
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 35-year-old man has previously been diagnosed with distal colitis and proctitis. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man has previously been diagnosed with distal colitis and proctitis. He is not currently taking any medication. He has been symptom-free but now reports a recurrence of his diarrhea.
      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing his condition?

      Your Answer: Loperamide capsules

      Correct Answer: Mesalazine foam enema

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Mild-to-Moderate Ulcerative Colitis

      Ulcerative colitis is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that affects the colon and rectum. In mild-to-moderate cases, the recommended initial treatment is local application of an aminosalicylate, such as mesalazine foam enema. Corticosteroid enema or suppositories are alternatives but are less effective.

      If there is no response to local treatment, oral mesalazine can be added. However, oral therapy alone with mesalazine is less effective than topical treatment for milder acute exacerbations of inflammatory bowel disease (proctitis). More severe exacerbations require oral steroids.

      For adults with a mild to moderate first presentation or inflammatory exacerbation of left-sided or extensive ulcerative colitis, oral mesalazine is the first line choice to induce remission. Topical mesalazine or oral beclomethasone dipropionate may also be considered.

      Managing Mild-to-Moderate Ulcerative Colitis: Treatment Options and Recommendations

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      91.8
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 35-year-old woman is concerned about breast cancer. An older cousin on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is concerned about breast cancer. An older cousin on her mother’s side has been diagnosed with breast cancer and she knows of one other cousin on her mother’s side with the disease. Additionally, her paternal grandmother was diagnosed with breast cancer in her seventies. She has no knowledge of any unusual cancers or gene abnormalities in the family.
      What is the most suitable course of action for this woman?

      Your Answer: Annual mammography

      Correct Answer: Advice about breast awareness

      Explanation:

      Breast Awareness and Management for Women with a Family History of Breast Cancer

      Breast cancer is a common disease that affects many families. However, having a family history of breast cancer doesn’t necessarily mean that a woman is at substantial risk. The risk increases with the number and closeness of relatives affected and the age at which they were diagnosed. Other factors that increase the risk include the presence of certain other cancers or some gene patterns.

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has produced guidance for managing breast cancer in people with a family history of the disease. Women with only one second-degree relative with breast cancer, such as a grandmother, and who was diagnosed in her seventies, do not normally require referral. However, being breast aware is good advice for all women.

      For women considered to have a high risk, annual mammography and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) are secondary care options for screening and detecting breast cancer. Genetic testing is also available, and referral to a specialist genetic clinic is based on several factors, including the number of people involved, closeness of the relationship, age at diagnosis, and the presence of other cancers.

      In some cases, prophylactic bilateral mastectomy may be recommended for high-risk women. This involves breast removal before cancer develops and is recommended for women with a strong family history, the presence of certain genes, previous cancer in one breast, or when biopsies show certain conditions.

      In summary, breast awareness and management for women with a family history of breast cancer involve several options, including screening, genetic testing, and prophylactic mastectomy. Women should discuss their options with their healthcare provider to determine the best course of action for their individual situation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      100.5
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - Your health visitor wants to put up a sign in the child health...

    Correct

    • Your health visitor wants to put up a sign in the child health clinic drawing attention to vitamin D supplementation for infants, and she wants to check the recommendation with you.

      Advice from PHE is that infants under the age of one should consider taking a daily supplement containing how much vitamin D, during autumn and winter?

      Your Answer: 10 micrograms

      Explanation:

      New advice on vitamin D supplements

      The latest advice from Public Health England (PHE) recommends that adults and children over the age of one should consider taking a daily supplement containing 10mcg of vitamin D, especially during autumn and winter. Those who are at a higher risk of vitamin D deficiency, such as people who have little or no exposure to the sun, those who cover their skin when outside, and people with dark skin from African, African-Caribbean, and South Asian backgrounds, are advised to take a supplement all year round. This advice is based on a review by the Scientific Advisory Committee on Nutrition (SACN), which identified these groups as being at risk of vitamin D deficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      92.6
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - During a localised outbreak of measles your practice is inundated with requests for...

    Incorrect

    • During a localised outbreak of measles your practice is inundated with requests for MMR vaccine from worried parents of young children.

      In which of the following age groups is MMR vaccine contraindicated?

      Your Answer: Children who have received 2 MMR vaccinations

      Correct Answer: Pregnant women

      Explanation:

      Who Should Not Receive the MMR Vaccine?

      There are only a few circumstances where the MMR vaccine cannot be given. Firstly, pregnant women should not receive the vaccine. Secondly, those with a confirmed anaphylactic reaction to gelatin or neomycin should not receive the vaccine. Thirdly, those who are immunocompromised should not receive the vaccine. Lastly, those who have had a confirmed anaphylactic reaction to a previous dose of measles, mumps or rubella-containing vaccine should not receive the vaccine.

      Breastfeeding is not a contraindication to MMR immunisation, and MMR can be given to breastfeeding mothers without any risk to the baby. While two MMR vaccinations are needed for 99% protection, there is no limit to the number of MMR vaccinations an individual can receive. The risk of adverse reactions becomes less with increasing doses of MMR. Additionally, there is no upper age limit to receiving the MMR vaccine, and a 1-year-old child could theoretically receive the vaccine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      89.7
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 7-year-old boy comes to the GP with his father complaining of bedwetting...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old boy comes to the GP with his father complaining of bedwetting at night. He is wetting the bed almost every night. Despite trying to use the toilet before bedtime, limiting fluid intake before bedtime, and implementing a reward system for dry nights, there has been no improvement. What should be the next course of action for treatment?

      Your Answer: Enuresis alarm

      Explanation:

      If lifestyle measures and a reward chart have not helped with nocturnal enuresis in a child over the age of 5, the next step would be to consider an enuresis alarm or desmopressin. As the child in this scenario is 6 years-old, the first-line treatment would be to try an enuresis alarm before considering other options. Desmopressin may be used first-line for children over the age of 7 who do not wish to use an enuresis alarm or if a short term solution is needed.

      Managing Nocturnal Enuresis in Children

      Nocturnal enuresis, also known as bedwetting, is a common condition in children. It is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine during sleep in children aged 5 years or older who have not yet achieved continence. There are two types of nocturnal enuresis: primary and secondary. Primary enuresis occurs when a child has never achieved continence, while secondary enuresis occurs when a child has been dry for at least 6 months before.

      When managing nocturnal enuresis, it is important to look for possible underlying causes or triggers such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset urinary tract infections. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Lifting and waking techniques and reward systems, such as star charts, can also be effective.

      The first-line treatment for nocturnal enuresis is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up when they start to wet the bed. If an enuresis alarm is not effective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin can be used for short-term control, such as for sleepovers. It is important to note that reward systems should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights, such as using the toilet to pass urine before sleep. By following these management strategies, children with nocturnal enuresis can achieve continence and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      52.5
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A patient with type 1 diabetes who is 16 years old presents with...

    Correct

    • A patient with type 1 diabetes who is 16 years old presents with diarrhoea and vomiting, along with reduced oral intake. In the past day, she has experienced increased thirst and urination. Her capillary blood glucose level is 19 mmol/L, and her blood ketones are 3.6 mmol/L.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Admit to hospital

      Explanation:

      Diabetic ketoacidosis is a condition that can affect both Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes patients. It is identified by blood ketone levels of ≥3 mmol/L (or urine ketones of ++ or greater) in individuals with a blood glucose level of ≥11 mmol/L or a known history of diabetes. It is important to check ketones in all diabetic patients who are unwell and admit them to the hospital if their ketone levels are ≥3 mmol/L. Blood ketones are preferred over urine ketones as they provide a more accurate representation of the true blood ketone level. Patients should never discontinue their insulin treatment, even if they are unwell and eating less. During intercurrent illness, they may require higher insulin doses and should have a ‘sick day’ management plan from their diabetes team.

      Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and breath that smells like acetone. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 11 mmol/l or known diabetes mellitus, pH below 7.3, bicarbonate below 15 mmol/l, and ketones above 3 mmol/l or urine ketones ++ on dipstick.

      Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Fluid replacement is necessary as most patients with DKA are deplete around 5-8 litres. Isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral edema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral edema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations, headache, irritability, visual disturbance, focal neurology, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      66.2
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 50-year-old female has a history of aggressive, erosive rheumatoid arthritis over three...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old female has a history of aggressive, erosive rheumatoid arthritis over three years.

      It remains poorly controlled despite good compliance with therapy (NSAIDs and methotrexate). She is now complaining of severe fatigue.

      FBC shows:

      Haemoglobin 72 g/L (120-160)

      White cell count 1.4 ×109/L (4-11)

      Platelet count 44 ×109/L (150-400)

      What is the most likely cause of her pancytopenia?

      Your Answer: Hypersplenism

      Correct Answer: Methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Pancytopenia in a Patient with Erosive Rheumatoid Arthritis

      This patient is presenting with pancytopenia, which can be attributed to her history of erosive rheumatoid arthritis over the past three years. It is likely that she has been on immunosuppressive therapy, which can lead to this type of hematological condition.

      There are several medications used in immunosuppressive therapy that can cause pancytopenia, including methotrexate, sulfasalazine, penicillamine, and gold. It is important to monitor patients on these medications for any signs of hematological abnormalities and adjust treatment accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      102.7
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 28-year-old man who is known to be an intravenous heroin user presents...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man who is known to be an intravenous heroin user presents as an emergency with a persistent fever, blood in his urine and shortness of breath. On further questioning he admits to recent weight loss and night sweats. On examination he has splinter haemorrhages, microscopic haematuria and a systolic heart murmur.
      What is most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Infective endocarditis

      Explanation:

      Infective Endocarditis: Symptoms, Risk Factors, and Diagnosis

      Infective endocarditis is a serious infection of the heart’s inner lining and valves. The classic diagnostic triad of this condition includes fever, new or changing murmurs, and embolic phenomena. Other symptoms may include fatigue, shortness of breath, and weight loss.

      Certain risk factors increase the likelihood of developing infective endocarditis. These include intravenous drug abuse, having artificial heart valves, congenital heart defects such as ventricular septal defects, and undergoing invasive surgical procedures, especially dental work.

      Diagnosis of infective endocarditis typically involves a combination of physical examination, blood tests, and imaging studies such as echocardiography. Treatment may involve antibiotics and, in some cases, surgery to repair or replace damaged heart valves. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial for a successful outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      89.1
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of perineal and lower back...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of perineal and lower back pain that has been bothering him for the past 3 months. He also reports urinary frequency, dysuria, and poor urinary flow. He decided to seek medical attention now because he has been experiencing some discomfort during ejaculation over the last week. During rectal examination, the physician notes a tender, normal sized prostate gland. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chronic prostatitis

      Explanation:

      The individual in question is suffering from chronic prostatitis, which is characterized by symptoms lasting for at least three months. These symptoms may include pain in various areas such as the perineum, abdomen, lower back, inguinal region, scrotum, testis, or penis. Additionally, the patient may experience lower urinary tract symptoms or sexual dysfunction, such as erectile dysfunction, premature ejaculation, discomfort during ejaculation, or decreased libido. It is important to note that urethritis would not cause perineal pain or lower urinary tract symptoms, while benign prostatic hyperplasia is typically painless and presents with a smooth, enlarged prostate on examination in conjunction with lower urinary tract symptoms. In cases where patients experience persistent perineal pain and recurrent urinary tract infections despite antibiotic therapy, a prostatic abscess may be suspected, often accompanied by an enlarged prostate upon examination.

      Treatment for Chronic Prostatitis

      Chronic prostatitis is a condition that requires a prolonged course of treatment. One of the recommended treatments is a quinolone, which is a type of antibiotic. However, there is some debate about the effectiveness of prostatic massage in improving outcomes. Despite this, there is no conclusive data published to date. It is important to note that treatment for chronic prostatitis should be tailored to the individual patient and their specific symptoms. Additionally, patients should follow up with their healthcare provider regularly to monitor their progress and adjust treatment as needed. Proper treatment can help manage symptoms and improve quality of life for those with chronic prostatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      83.3
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - An 82-year-old man with advanced pancreatic cancer is experiencing widespread pruritus and has...

    Correct

    • An 82-year-old man with advanced pancreatic cancer is experiencing widespread pruritus and has tried several emollients, including one with menthol. He is jaundiced and has declined a biliary stent. What is the next most suitable medication to try for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Hydroxyzine

      Explanation:

      Management of Pruritus in Palliative Care Patients with Advanced Pancreatic Cancer

      When treating a patient with advanced pancreatic cancer who has declined stenting for relief of cholestasis, the focus should be on palliative symptom management. The underlying cause of widespread pruritus should be treated if possible, but in this case, emollients have been tried and a sedating antihistamine such as hydroxyzine or chlorphenamine is the next appropriate medication. While pregabalin and gabapentin may be considered, they should only be used after discussion with a specialist/dermatologist. Topical calamine lotion is not recommended by NICE for pruritus treatment. Hydralazine, a vasodilator antihypertensive drug, has no indication for use in pruritus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      133
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A 6-year-old girl is brought in for a follow-up appointment regarding her asthma....

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought in for a follow-up appointment regarding her asthma. She has been using inhaled treatment for the past 12 months and is currently taking salbutamol as needed and a very low dose of inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) daily. She has been using the very low dose ICS at the current dose for the past six months. Her parents report that she still needs to use her salbutamol on most days of the week, but never more than once a day. On clinical examination, her chest is clear and there are no focal cardiorespiratory findings. Her inhaler technique is good and there are no issues with compliance. Based on BTS/SIGN guidelines, what is the most appropriate plan for her current management?

      Your Answer: Increase the inhaled corticosteroids to a low daily dose

      Explanation:

      Treatment Ladder for Asthma in Children

      Here we have a 7-year-old child who is currently on a regular inhaled very low dose corticosteroid and salbutamol PRN for asthma. However, despite the regular inhaled steroid, the child still requires salbutamol most days, indicating suboptimal control and the need for treatment escalation.

      To guide treatment titration, the British Thoracic Society treatment ladder is the most well-recognized guideline in the UK. Based on this, the next step should be to add in an inhaled long-acting beta2 agonist or an LTRA (Leukotriene receptor antagonist) if over 5 years old. If the child was under 5 years old, then an LTRA alone would be added.

      It is important to note that higher inhaled corticosteroid doses are treatment options further up the ladder, and theophylline would not normally feature in the primary care setting. Continuing the same treatment with review in 12 months is not appropriate as the child’s current disease control is suboptimal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      131
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A 67-year-old African American male comes to his doctor complaining of muscle weakness...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old African American male comes to his doctor complaining of muscle weakness and bone pain all over his body. Upon conducting tests, the following results are obtained:

      Calcium 2.05 mmol/l
      Phosphate 0.68 mmol/l
      ALP 270 U/l

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteomalacia

      Explanation:

      Osteomalacia may be indicated by bone pain, tenderness, and proximal myopathy (resulting in a waddling gait), as evidenced by low levels of calcium and phosphate and elevated alkaline phosphatase.

      Understanding Osteomalacia: Causes, Features, Investigation, and Treatment

      Osteomalacia is a condition characterized by the softening of bones due to low levels of vitamin D, which leads to a decrease in bone mineral content. While rickets is the term used for this condition in growing children, osteomalacia is the preferred term for adults. The causes of osteomalacia include vitamin D deficiency, malabsorption, lack of sunlight, diet, chronic kidney disease, drug-induced factors, inherited factors, liver disease, and coeliac disease.

      The features of osteomalacia include bone pain, bone/muscle tenderness, fractures (especially femoral neck), proximal myopathy, and a waddling gait. To investigate this condition, blood tests are conducted to check for low vitamin D levels, low calcium and phosphate levels (in around 30% of patients), and raised alkaline phosphatase (in 95-100% of patients). X-rays may also show translucent bands known as Looser’s zones or pseudofractures.

      The treatment for osteomalacia involves vitamin D supplementation, with a loading dose often needed initially. Calcium supplementation may also be necessary if dietary calcium is inadequate. By understanding the causes, features, investigation, and treatment of osteomalacia, individuals can take steps to prevent and manage this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      137.4
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 68-year-old man presents to the clinic with complaints of fatigue and widespread...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents to the clinic with complaints of fatigue and widespread body aches. He reports experiencing stiffness and difficulty reaching items above eye level, particularly in the morning. His ESR is elevated at 72.

      What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Correct Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica

      Explanation:

      Elevated ESR and its association with inflammatory diseases and malignancy

      ESR, or erythrocyte sedimentation rate, is a blood test that measures the rate at which red blood cells settle in a tube over a period of time. Elevated ESR levels are commonly seen in inflammatory disease processes such as rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, and polymyalgia rheumatica, which are associated with other raised inflammatory markers like fibrinogen. It is also seen in malignancy, particularly myeloma.

      Apart from these conditions, ESR tends to increase with age, with the normal ESR being roughly half of the age. Females also tend to have higher ESR levels.

      When a patient presents with vague bony aches, a markedly elevated ESR may suggest myeloma or polymyalgia rheumatica. Polymyalgia rheumatica predominantly affects the shoulder girdle, while systemic lupus erythematosus has a higher incidence in women. Rheumatoid arthritis, on the other hand, usually presents with swollen joints in the hands and feet and morning stiffness.

      In summary, elevated ESR levels can be indicative of various inflammatory diseases and malignancy, and should be interpreted in conjunction with other clinical findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      80.5
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A 42-year-old woman comes to see the GP with symptoms of stress and...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman comes to see the GP with symptoms of stress and anxiety. She is a single mother of three children and is struggling with financial debt. She works part-time as a cleaner at a local cafe for 15 hours a week on minimum wage and is receiving Jobseeker's Allowance. Considering her financial concerns, you contemplate whether she may be eligible for Universal Credit.

      What advice would you give her regarding Universal Credit based on the given information?

      Your Answer: She is not eligible for Universal Credit as she is already receiving Jobseeker's Allowance

      Correct Answer: She may be eligible for Universal Credit as she is on a low income

      Explanation:

      Universal Credit is not only available to those who are unemployed, but also to individuals with a low income. To qualify for Universal Credit, you must be 18 years or older (with some exceptions for 16-17 year olds), under State Pension age (or have a partner who is), have savings of £16,000 or less between you and your partner, and reside in the UK. Your relationship status and number of children do not impact your eligibility, but they may affect the amount of payment you receive. It is possible to receive both Universal Credit and Jobseeker’s Allowance if you meet the requirements for both, but you cannot receive Employment Support Allowance and Jobseeker’s Allowance simultaneously. If you have a disability or health condition that affects your ability to work, and you are under State Pension age, you may be eligible for Employment and Support Allowance.

      Understanding Universal Credit: Benefits, Eligibility, and Controversies

      Universal Credit is a new benefit system in the UK that aims to simplify the welfare system by combining six benefits into one payment. It is designed to help people meet the cost of living and encourage them to work. To be eligible for Universal Credit, a person and their partner must live in the UK, be 18 years old or over, earn a low income or be out of work, have less than £16,000 in savings, and be below the age of receiving the state pension.

      The amount of money a person receives from Universal Credit depends on their circumstances. It includes a standard allowance and extra payments for up to two children, disability, or housing costs. However, there is a benefit cap that limits the total amount one can receive. The payment reduces as people earn money, but they have a work allowance of how much they can earn before their payment is decreased.

      Universal Credit is supposed to help people learn to budget their money and prepare them for having a job. It also allows people to work and still receive support through a ‘work allowance.’ Applying for Universal Credit is done online, which cuts down the cost of managing benefits to the government.

      Despite its supposed benefits, Universal Credit is controversial. Some people take issue with the fact that people have to wait five weeks to receive their first payment and then struggle due to only receiving payments every month. Childcare must be paid by parents upfront and is then refunded by Universal Credit. Many disabled people and households receive less than they did with the old benefits system. Universal Credit will only pay for the first two children for children born after April 2017, whereas the old benefits paid benefits for each child per year. Private tenants find it harder to rent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      92.6
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - You receive a letter explaining that one of your patients, Mrs. Smith has...

    Incorrect

    • You receive a letter explaining that one of your patients, Mrs. Smith has recently been diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) 5 and is due to commence haemodialysis. It outlines the vaccines that she now requires. Which diseases does she need protection against?

      Your Answer: Pneumococcal, influenza, Hepatitis B and C

      Correct Answer: Pneumococcal, influenza and Hepatitis B

      Explanation:

      Haemodialysis units must remain vigilant against blood-borne viruses, despite following standard infection control measures, in order to safeguard both patients and healthcare staff. Fortunately, the occurrence of hepatitis B outbreaks associated with dialysis units has significantly decreased over the past three decades. The Department of Health recommends immunisation against Pneumococcus, influenza, and Hepatitis B for individuals with chronic kidney disease, including those undergoing haemodialysis. While vaccination schedules for both children and adults are rapidly evolving, healthcare professionals must stay informed of these changes and be aware of recommendations for special groups. Although the administration of vaccinations is often delegated, general practitioners must be knowledgeable about contraindications and schedules to provide guidance to patients and parents. Conducting audits of specific target groups may reveal a need for catch-up immunisation in light of changing recommendations.

      The Department of Health recommends that people over the age of 65 and those with certain medical conditions receive an annual influenza vaccination. These medical conditions include chronic respiratory disease, chronic heart disease, chronic kidney disease, chronic liver disease, chronic neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, and pregnancy. Additionally, health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled may also be considered for vaccination at the discretion of their GP.

      The pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine is recommended for all adults over the age of 65 and those with certain medical conditions. These medical conditions include asplenia or splenic dysfunction, chronic respiratory disease, chronic heart disease, chronic kidney disease, chronic liver disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, cochlear implants, and patients with cerebrospinal fluid leaks. Asthma is only included if it requires the use of oral steroids at a dose sufficient to act as a significant immunosuppressant. Controlled hypertension is not an indication for vaccination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      145.9
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A previously healthy 68-year-old man reports experiencing intermittent flashes and a curtain-like loss...

    Correct

    • A previously healthy 68-year-old man reports experiencing intermittent flashes and a curtain-like loss of lateral vision in his right eye upon waking up this morning. The symptoms have since worsened. What is the most probable cause of his condition?

      Your Answer: Retinal detachment

      Explanation:

      Retinal Detachment: A Time-Critical Eye Emergency

      Retinal detachment is a serious eye emergency that occurs when the retina’s sensory and pigment layers separate. This condition can be associated with various factors such as congenital malformations, metabolic disorders, trauma, vascular disease, high myopia, vitreous disease, and degeneration. It is important to note that retinal detachment is one of the most time-critical eye emergencies that require immediate medical attention.

      Symptoms of retinal detachment include floaters, a grey curtain or veil moving across the field of vision, and sudden decrease of vision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      88.2
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A 68-year-old man is undergoing treatment for prostate cancer with goserelin. What medication...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man is undergoing treatment for prostate cancer with goserelin. What medication can be prescribed alongside goserelin to prevent a tumour flare during the initial period of treatment?

      Your Answer: Cyproterone acetate

      Correct Answer: Tamoxifen

      Explanation:

      Management of Prostate Cancer with Goserelin

      Goserelin is a medication used in the management of prostate cancer. As a luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone (LHRH) agonist, it works by lowering testosterone levels. However, in some men, it can cause a temporary worsening of symptoms known as a ‘tumour flare’ during the initial stages of treatment. To prevent this, bicalutamide, an anti-androgen, can be used concurrently with the LHRH agonist for 4-6 weeks.

      In addition to managing tumour flare, medroxyprogesterone acetate and cyproterone acetate can be used to treat hot flashes associated with LHRH agonist use. Tamoxifen is another treatment option for gynaecomastia, a side effect of long-term bicalutamide treatment for prostate cancer. Finally, tamsulosin is a medication used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia. By understanding the various treatment options available, healthcare providers can better manage prostate cancer and its associated symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - You encounter a 50-year-old woman during your afternoon clinic. She reports experiencing sudden...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 50-year-old woman during your afternoon clinic. She reports experiencing sudden episodes where the room spins uncontrollably, accompanied by nausea and occasional vomiting. Additionally, she feels as though her hearing is impaired on the right side and experiences a ringing sound and a feeling of fullness on that side. Based on these symptoms, you suspect that she may have Meniere's disease. What is a true statement about this condition?

      Your Answer: Conductive hearing loss is a symptom of Meniere's disease

      Correct Answer: Sensorineural hearing loss is a symptom of Meniere's disease

      Explanation:

      Meniere’s disease is characterized by sensorineural hearing loss, which can worsen over time and eventually result in profound bilateral hearing loss.

      Meniere’s disease is a condition that affects the inner ear and its cause is unknown. It is more commonly seen in middle-aged adults but can occur at any age and affects both men and women equally. The condition is characterized by the excessive pressure and progressive dilation of the endolymphatic system. The main symptoms of Meniere’s disease are recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and sensorineural hearing loss. Vertigo is usually the most prominent symptom, but patients may also experience a sensation of aural fullness or pressure, nystagmus, and a positive Romberg test. These episodes can last from minutes to hours and are typically unilateral, but bilateral symptoms may develop over time.

      The natural history of Meniere’s disease is that symptoms usually resolve in the majority of patients after 5-10 years. However, most patients will be left with some degree of hearing loss, and psychological distress is common. ENT assessment is required to confirm the diagnosis, and patients should inform the DVLA as the current advice is to cease driving until satisfactory control of symptoms is achieved. Acute attacks can be managed with buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine, and admission to the hospital may be required. Prevention strategies include the use of betahistine and vestibular rehabilitation exercises, which may be beneficial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      86.8
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - A 43-year-old former beef farmer is currently being looked after in a care...

    Correct

    • A 43-year-old former beef farmer is currently being looked after in a care home after a severe deterioration in his memory and ability to care for himself.

      You examine him and note that he has nystagmus, bilateral lateral rectus palsy, ataxia, a broad based gait and peripheral neuropathy with sensory loss in his feet. You understand that his father died at an early age, apparently from Alzheimer's disease.

      He is known to drink alcohol.

      Which one of the following is most likely to be the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Wernicke's encephalopathy

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s Encephalopathy and Korsakoff’s Syndrome

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a condition that occurs in patients with thiamine deficiency, often associated with chronic alcohol abuse or other malnutrition states. It is characterized by haemorrhage into the mamillary bodies of the brain. If left untreated, it can progress to Korsakoff’s syndrome, which is a chronic stage of the same condition.

      Early stages of Wernicke’s encephalopathy can be reversible, especially the eye signs. However, if left untreated, it can lead to memory loss and other irreversible symptoms of Korsakoff’s syndrome. This highlights the importance of early thiamine replacement in patients admitted to the hospital with symptoms of alcohol withdrawal. By recognizing and treating Wernicke’s encephalopathy early, we can prevent the progression to Korsakoff’s syndrome and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      120
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - A 55-year-old man with a long history of type 2 diabetes associated with...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with a long history of type 2 diabetes associated with obesity would like to participate in an exercise program.

      Which of the following would be a relative contraindication to him exercising?

      Your Answer: Peripheral vascular disease

      Correct Answer: Proliferative diabetic retinopathy

      Explanation:

      Exercise Recommendations for Different Diabetic Complications

      Untreated diabetic proliferative retinopathy can lead to haemorrhage, which is why patients with this condition should avoid strenuous exercise until they have received photocoagulation therapy. On the other hand, exercise is actually encouraged for patients with peripheral vascular disease and ischaemic heart disease. It is important to understand the different exercise recommendations for various diabetic complications in order to promote optimal health and prevent further complications. By following these guidelines, patients can improve their overall well-being and reduce their risk of developing additional health issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      74.3
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - A 35-year-old man comes to you with a widespread rash. Upon examination, you...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man comes to you with a widespread rash. Upon examination, you notice numerous umbilicated papules all over his face, neck, trunk, and genitals. When squeezed, the lesions release a cheesy substance. Your diagnosis is molluscum contagiosum. What is the most crucial aspect of managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Flucloxacillin orally

      Correct Answer: Topical steroid application

      Explanation:

      Molluscum Contagiosum: Symptoms, Treatment, and Underlying Causes

      Molluscum contagiosum is a viral skin infection caused by a DNA pox virus. It is characterized by small, dome-shaped papules with a central punctum that may appear umbilicated. Squeezing the lesions can release a cheesy material. While the infection usually resolves on its own within 12-18 months, patients may opt for treatment if they find the rash unsightly. Squeezing the lesions can speed up resolution.

      However, if a patient presents with hundreds of widespread lesions, it is important to investigate any underlying immunodeficiency problems. This may include conditions such as HIV/AIDS. Further investigation is necessary to determine the cause of the extensive rash.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      51.2
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - A 20-year-old woman presents to the clinic with complaints of breakthrough bleeding while...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman presents to the clinic with complaints of breakthrough bleeding while taking her combined oral contraceptive pill containing 30 mcg ethinylestradiol with levonorgestrel. She started the pill two cycles ago and takes 21 active pills with a seven day pill-free interval. Although she is not currently sexually active, she plans to be in the near future. She reports no missed pills, recent illnesses, or other medication use. What is the probable cause of her breakthrough bleeding?

      Your Answer: Cervical polyp

      Correct Answer: Chlamydia infection

      Explanation:

      Breakthrough Bleeding and the Combined Pill

      Breakthrough bleeding is a common issue that can occur when taking the combined pill. It is important to first check compliance with pill usage, as missed pills or erratic usage can lead to bleeding problems. Other factors such as intercurrent illness or the use of other medications should also be considered. Pregnancy should be ruled out with a test, especially if any pills have been missed or pill efficacy has been compromised. Additionally, sexually transmitted infections should be considered and appropriate tests performed.

      For women who have recently started using the combined pill, breakthrough bleeding is a common occurrence in the first few months of use. It is important to discuss this with a healthcare provider and be reassured that it usually settles with time. If breakthrough bleeding persists, a change in approach may be necessary. Lower dose pills (20 mcg ethinyloestradiol) are more likely to cause breakthrough bleeding, and switching to a higher dose pill (30 mcg) may be an option. Overall, it is important to address breakthrough bleeding promptly to ensure the effectiveness and safety of the combined pill.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      108.3
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - A 16-year-old girl comes to see you and requests the contraceptive pill. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl comes to see you and requests the contraceptive pill. She has come to the surgery alone. You attempt to discuss the request in more detail but she seems nervous and fidgety, not making eye contact with you. You ask her if she would like someone else present for the discussion.
      She says she wants to start taking the pill as she is in a relationship and wants to be safe. She appears to be listening but is not asking any questions.
      You explain to her that you need to make a thorough assessment if you are to prescribe, and you need to make sure she understands the implications of using contraception and becoming sexually active. You ask her if she has any questions or concerns, and she asks a few questions but seems hesitant to discuss further.
      What is the most appropriate approach?

      Your Answer: Prescribe the contraceptive pill as there is a risk she will become sexually active and arrange follow-up

      Correct Answer: Arrange to review her or refer her to a specialist young person's clinic

      Explanation:

      Fraser Guidelines and Young People’s Competence to Consent to Contraceptive Advice or Treatment

      The Fraser guidelines provide a framework for assessing young people’s competence to consent to contraceptive advice or treatment. According to these guidelines, a young person is considered competent if they understand the doctor’s advice, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents, are likely to start or continue having sexual intercourse with or without contraceptive treatment, are at risk of physical or mental harm without treatment, and require advice or treatment in their best interests without parental consent.

      However, there can be considerable differences in the maturity of teenagers seeking contraception, and it is important to consider whether the failure of the consultation is due to the doctor’s communication skills or the young person’s anxiety. For instance, a young person who is not sexually active may not understand the importance of contraception and may need education or counselling to help them make informed decisions about their sexual health.

      In such cases, a specialist young people’s service may be able to provide the necessary support, such as counselling, education, or youth work interventions, to help the young person understand the risks and benefits of contraception and make an informed decision about their sexual health. By providing young people with the information and support they need, healthcare professionals can help them make responsible choices about their sexual health and reduce the risk of physical and mental harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      139.6
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - Which one of the following consultation modes may be summarised as a 'meeting...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following consultation modes may be summarised as a 'meeting between two experts'?

      Your Answer: Calgary-Cambridge

      Correct Answer: Tuckett

      Explanation:

      Consultation Models

      The following are various consultation models that healthcare professionals can use to guide their interactions with patients. Each model has its own unique approach and set of steps to follow. The Calgary-Cambridge observation guide focuses on initiating the session, gathering information, building the relationship, giving information, explaining and planning, and closing the session. The Stewart patient-centered clinical method emphasizes exploring both the disease and the illness experience, understanding the whole person, finding common ground, incorporating prevention and health promotion, enhancing the doctor-patient relationship, and being realistic with time and resources. The Pendleton model involves defining the reason for the patient’s attendance, considering other problems, choosing an appropriate action for each problem, achieving a shared understanding of the problems with the patient, involving the patient in the management and encouraging them to accept appropriate responsibility, using time and resources appropriately, and establishing or maintaining a relationship with the patient. The Fraser model includes interviewing and history-taking, physical examination, diagnosis and problem-solving, patient management, relating to patients, anticipatory care, and record-keeping. The Neighbour model, called the Inner Consultation, includes connecting, summarizing, handing over, safety netting, and housekeeping. Finally, the Tuckett model emphasizes that the consultation is a meeting between two experts, doctors are experts in medicine, patients are experts in their own illnesses, shared understanding is the aim, doctors should seek to understand the patient’s beliefs, and doctors should address explanations in terms of the patient’s belief system. By using these models, healthcare professionals can provide effective and patient-centered care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      25.2
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - A 42-year-old woman presents after a severe panic attack when she was about...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman presents after a severe panic attack when she was about to board a plane. She reports general uneasiness about travelling in any form of transport and has started avoiding it if possible. Six months earlier, she sustained minor injuries in a fatal plane crash. She has also become irritable and intolerant to noise, has been awoken by dreams about accidents and admits to being depressed.
      Which of the following is the most suitable management option?

      Your Answer: Trauma-focused cognitive behaviour therapy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a condition that requires appropriate treatment. Trauma-focused cognitive behavioural therapy is the recommended first-line treatment for those with severe symptoms or persistent symptoms beyond the first month after the event. This therapy includes exposure therapy, cognitive therapy, and stress management. Eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing is an alternative therapy for prolonged symptoms. Antidepressants may be used as an adjunct to psychological therapy or if patients decline or fail to respond to psychological therapy.

      Hypnotics such as temazepam may be considered for short-term use, but they are not first-line treatment for PTSD. Mirtazapine is a suitable second-line treatment if cognitive therapy is unsuitable or ineffective. Relaxation and non-directive therapy should not be routinely offered as they do not address traumatic memories.

      For mild symptoms present for less than four weeks after the event, watchful waiting should be considered, with follow-up within one month. It is important to seek appropriate treatment for PTSD to improve symptoms and overall quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      60.9
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - A 28-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a history of weight loss of 8 kg, frothy stools and general malaise. Her haemoglobin level is 102 g/l, with a mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 98 fl. The GP is considering a diagnosis of coeliac disease.
      What is the single feature that best supports this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Neutrophil infiltration on rectal mucosal biopsy

      Correct Answer: Dermatitis herpetiformis

      Explanation:

      Dermatitis herpetiformis is a skin disease that causes blisters and is linked to coeliac disease. Both conditions are thought to be caused by autoantibodies that attack transglutaminase enzymes. DH is often seen in patients with coeliac disease, with around 80% of DH patients also showing signs of coeliac disease on small intestine biopsy. A rectal biopsy showing neutrophil infiltration would not be enough to diagnose coeliac disease, as a biopsy from the small intestine is needed to confirm the condition. Coeliac disease is a genetic disorder, and if one family member has it, there is a chance that their first-degree relatives may also be affected. Metronidazole would not help with coeliac disease symptoms, but may be used to treat other gastrointestinal conditions. Hydrogen breath testing is used to diagnose bacterial overgrowth and carbohydrate malabsorption, as bacteria in the intestine produce hydrogen during carbohydrate breakdown.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      73.3
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - A 25-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with complaints that on waking...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with complaints that on waking that morning, the right side of his neck was very painful. On examination, his neck is deviated to the right side where there is palpable muscle spasm and local tenderness. He is otherwise well and there is no history of trauma or drug-taking.
      What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute torticollis

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Neck Pain: An Overview

      Neck pain is a common complaint that can be caused by various conditions. Here are some possible causes of neck pain and their characteristics:

      Acute Torticollis
      Acute torticollis is a condition that results from local musculoskeletal irritation, causing pain and spasm in neck muscles. It usually resolves within 24-48 hours, but recurrence is common.

      Acute Cervical Disc Prolapse
      Acute cervical disc prolapse occurs when the inner gelatinous substance breaks through the annulus of the disc, causing compression of the spinal cord or surrounding nerve. Patients may experience neck pain with associated numbness or paraesthesiae.

      Cervical Spondylosis
      Cervical spondylosis is a degenerative disease that affects the neck and becomes more common with advancing age. It usually presents with neck pain or stiffness, muscle spasms, and grinding or clicking noises with neck movements.

      Multiple Sclerosis
      Multiple sclerosis is an autoimmune condition that causes repeated episodes of inflammation of the nervous tissue, resulting in the loss of the insulating myelin sheath. It presents with neurological symptoms and not neck pain.

      Retropharyngeal Abscess
      Retropharyngeal abscess is an abscess that forms in the space between the prevertebral fascia and the constrictor muscles. Patients with this condition may be unwell and often present with fever and dysphagia and may have secondary torticollis.

      In conclusion, neck pain can be caused by various conditions, and it is important to seek medical attention if the pain persists or is accompanied by other symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      52.3
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - A 27-year-old male visits his general practitioner (GP) complaining of swelling in his...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old male visits his general practitioner (GP) complaining of swelling in his testicles. He reports a soft sensation on the top of his left testicle but denies any pain or issues with urination or erections. The GP orders an ultrasound, and the results show a mild varicocele on the left side with no other abnormalities detected in the right testis. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Reassure and observe

      Explanation:

      Scrotal Problems: Epididymal Cysts, Hydrocele, and Varicocele

      Epididymal cysts are the most frequent cause of scrotal swellings seen in primary care. They are usually found posterior to the testicle and separate from the body of the testicle. Epididymal cysts may be associated with polycystic kidney disease, cystic fibrosis, or von Hippel-Lindau syndrome. Diagnosis is usually confirmed by ultrasound, and management is typically supportive. However, surgical removal or sclerotherapy may be attempted for larger or symptomatic cysts.

      Hydrocele refers to the accumulation of fluid within the tunica vaginalis. They can be communicating or non-communicating. Communicating hydroceles are common in newborn males and usually resolve within the first few months of life. Non-communicating hydroceles are caused by excessive fluid production within the tunica vaginalis. Hydroceles may develop secondary to epididymo-orchitis, testicular torsion, or testicular tumors. Diagnosis may be clinical, but ultrasound is required if there is any doubt about the diagnosis or if the underlying testis cannot be palpated. Management depends on the severity of the presentation, and further investigation, such as ultrasound, is usually warranted to exclude any underlying cause such as a tumor.

      Varicocele is an abnormal enlargement of the testicular veins. They are usually asymptomatic but may be important as they are associated with infertility. Varicoceles are much more common on the left side and are classically described as a bag of worms. Diagnosis is made through ultrasound with Doppler studies. Management is usually conservative, but occasionally surgery is required if the patient is troubled by pain. There is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery to treat infertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      52
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - A 32-year-old woman is pregnant for the first time. She presents with a...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman is pregnant for the first time. She presents with a diffuse dark pigmentation over both cheeks.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chloasma

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Pigmentation Disorders and Their Characteristics

      Chloasma, also known as melasma, is a skin condition characterized by hyperpigmentation in sun-exposed areas, particularly the face. The exact cause of chloasma is unknown, but it is believed to be related to hormonal activity, as it occurs more frequently in women and can worsen during pregnancy or with the use of oral contraceptives. Treatment options include avoiding prolonged sun exposure and using a sunblock, as well as topical depigmenting agents like hydroxyquinone.

      Acanthosis nigricans is a skin condition characterized by thickening and pigmentation of the major flexures, and is commonly seen in patients with stomach cancer, insulin-resistant diabetes, and obesity.

      Pityriasis alba is a skin condition characterized by white dry patches on the cheeks of dark-skinned atopic individuals.

      Pityriasis versicolor is a skin condition characterized by brown or white scaly patches on the trunk, and is caused by a yeast infection.

      Post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation can occur after any inflammatory condition and is most common in dark-skinned individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      46.2
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - During an injury involving valgus displacement and external rotation of the knee, which...

    Correct

    • During an injury involving valgus displacement and external rotation of the knee, which ligament is most commonly torn?

      Your Answer: Medial collateral

      Explanation:

      Common Knee Injuries and Diagnostic Tests

      Knee injuries are common among young athletes participating in sports that involve aggressive knee flexion. Of all knee injuries, those to the medial side are the most frequent. Symptoms include pain and swelling over the medial aspect of the knee joint, instability with side-to-side movement, and tenderness along the course of the medial collateral ligament. Medial collateral ligament injuries often occur in association with cruciate and meniscal injuries, which should be excluded.

      The valgus stress test is a diagnostic test used to measure the amount of joint-line opening of the medial compartment of the knee when a valgus stress is applied at the ankle. A proficient tester may be able to quantify the amount of joint-line opening to determine the severity of the tear of the medial collateral complex of ligaments.

      Other knee injuries include anterior cruciate, lateral collateral, patellar, and posterior cruciate injuries. Anterior cruciate ligament injuries are most often a result of low-velocity, non-contact deceleration injuries and contact injuries with a rotational component. Lateral collateral ligament injuries may be due to a direct blow to the medial aspect of the knee or a varus stress. Patellar tendon ruptures are relatively infrequent and often the result of chronic tendon degeneration or sudden contraction of the quadriceps. Posterior cruciate injuries are most often due to hyperflexion, such as from a fall on a flexed knee or a car accident.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      59.5
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - A 6-year-old boy is brought to the General Practitioner by his parents for...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old boy is brought to the General Practitioner by his parents for a consultation. The child has been diagnosed with Prader-Willi syndrome, and his parents wish to better understand what this means.
      Which of the following options is most likely to be problematic in this boy?

      Your Answer: Obesity

      Explanation:

      Understanding Prader-Willi Syndrome: A Genetic Disorder with Developmental and Behavioral Challenges

      Prader-Willi syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects many aspects of an individual’s life. It is characterized by hypotonia and developmental delay in infancy, followed by obesity, learning disability, and behavior problems in adolescence and adulthood. The disorder is relatively common, with a prevalence of 1 in 15,000 to 1 in 30,000, and most cases are inherited sporadically.

      One of the most notable symptoms of Prader-Willi syndrome is an exceptional interest in food that becomes apparent during the second year of life. Individuals with the disorder may exhibit extreme food-seeking behaviors, such as eating garbage, frozen food, or stealing to obtain food. This hyperphagia can be dangerous, causing massive stomach dilation.

      As individuals with Prader-Willi syndrome age, they are at risk for obesity-related complications such as sleep apnea, cor pulmonale, diabetes mellitus, and atherosclerosis. Hypogonadism can also occur, leading to osteoporosis. Additionally, behavioral issues are common in adults with the disorder.

      Overall, Prader-Willi syndrome presents a range of challenges for individuals and their families. Understanding the disorder and its symptoms is crucial for managing its effects and providing appropriate care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
      35.6
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - Mrs. Johnson is a type 2 diabetic who is scheduled to see the...

    Correct

    • Mrs. Johnson is a type 2 diabetic who is scheduled to see the Community Diabetes Nurse because of poorly controlled HbA1c despite taking three different oral medications for her diabetes. The nurse discusses the options of starting either a GLP-1 mimetic like exenatide or starting insulin therapy. As she is an active senior citizen, she chooses to start a GLP-1 mimetic. The nurse advises her that this class of drug may cause some gastrointestinal side effects, but if she experiences severe abdominal pain, she should seek immediate medical attention.

      What acute abdominal issue can arise from taking a GLP-1 mimetic?

      Your Answer: Acute pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      GLP-1 mimetics have been linked with an increased risk of severe pancreatitis, according to an alert issued by the MHRA in 2014. It is important to suspend GLP-1 mimetics immediately if pancreatitis is suspected. However, they do not cause appendicitis, drug-induced hepatitis, or acute mesenteric ischaemia.

      Diabetes mellitus is a condition that has seen the development of several drugs in recent years. One hormone that has been the focus of much research is glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), which is released by the small intestine in response to an oral glucose load. In type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), insulin resistance and insufficient B-cell compensation occur, and the incretin effect, which is largely mediated by GLP-1, is decreased. GLP-1 mimetics, such as exenatide and liraglutide, increase insulin secretion and inhibit glucagon secretion, resulting in weight loss, unlike other medications. They are sometimes used in combination with insulin in T2DM to minimize weight gain. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors, such as vildagliptin and sitagliptin, increase levels of incretins by decreasing their peripheral breakdown, are taken orally, and do not cause weight gain. Nausea and vomiting are the major adverse effects of GLP-1 mimetics, and the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings on the use of exenatide, reporting that it has been linked to severe pancreatitis in some patients. NICE guidelines suggest that a DPP-4 inhibitor might be preferable to a thiazolidinedione if further weight gain would cause significant problems, a thiazolidinedione is contraindicated, or the person has had a poor response to a thiazolidinedione.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      58.6
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - A man in his 40s presents with very severe and widespread seborrhoeic dermatitis....

    Incorrect

    • A man in his 40s presents with very severe and widespread seborrhoeic dermatitis.

      It has been present for over three months and is not responding well to treatment. He has only had very mild episodes in the past.

      He has a history of heroin addiction in his twenties but has been off drugs for more than five years.

      Which of the following conditions is most likely to be present?

      Your Answer: Chronic renal failure

      Correct Answer: HIV infection

      Explanation:

      Skin Conditions and HIV

      Skin conditions are a common occurrence in individuals with HIV, affecting over 90% of those infected. These conditions can either exacerbate pre-existing conditions or lead to new skin problems. One such condition is seborrhoeic dermatitis, which can be particularly severe or difficult to treat in those with HIV. It is important for individuals with HIV to be aware of the potential for skin conditions and to seek medical attention if any issues arise. Proper management and treatment can help alleviate symptoms and improve overall quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      71.5
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - A 50-year-old woman is known to have diverticular disease. She has experienced pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman is known to have diverticular disease. She has experienced pain in the left iliac fossa intermittently in the past put now the pain is more persistent and more severe. She is tender in the left iliac fossa but there is no guarding or rebound tenderness and a mass is not felt. Her temperature is 38oC.
      Select from the list the single most useful drug in these circumstances.

      Your Answer: Mebeverine

      Correct Answer: Co-amoxiclav

      Explanation:

      Management of Diverticulitis in Primary Care

      Diverticulitis is a common condition that can be managed in primary care, provided there are no complications. If the patient is not dehydrated, experiencing severe bleeding, or showing signs of perforation, abscess or fistula formation, or significant comorbidity, they can be treated at home.

      The first step in treatment is to prescribe broad-spectrum antibiotics that cover anaerobes and Gram-negative rods. Co-amoxiclav or a combination of ciprofloxacin and metronidazole (if allergic to penicillin) are good options. The course of antibiotics should last for at least 7 days.

      If the patient’s symptoms worsen or persist beyond 48 hours, hospital admission may be necessary. However, with proper management and monitoring, most cases of diverticulitis can be successfully treated in primary care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      80.2
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - A 25-year-old patient with psoriasis presents with thick adherent scale on their torso....

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old patient with psoriasis presents with thick adherent scale on their torso.

      You decide to treat with topical therapy.

      Which of the following formulations would be most appropriate for treating this?

      Your Answer: Ointment

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Topical Treatment in Psoriasis

      Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that affects millions of people worldwide. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has issued guidelines on topical treatment for psoriasis. These guidelines take into account the patient’s preference and recommend the following:

      – For widespread psoriasis, use cream, lotion, or gel.
      – For scalp or hair-bearing areas, use a solution, lotion, or gel.
      – For thick adherent scale, use an ointment.

      It is important to note that these recommendations are not set in stone and may vary depending on the severity of the condition and the patient’s individual needs. Therefore, it is essential to consult with a healthcare professional before starting any treatment. By following these guidelines, patients can effectively manage their psoriasis symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      29.9
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - A 58-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of unsteadiness when walking....

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of unsteadiness when walking. On examination, she has pyramidal weakness of her left lower limb and reduced pinprick sensation of her right leg and the right side of her trunk up to the level of the umbilicus.
      Joint position sense is impaired at her left big toe but is normal elsewhere. She has a definite left extensor plantar response, and the right plantar response is equivocal. Upper limb neurological examination is normal.
      What is the most likely site of the lesion?

      Your Answer: Left lumbosacral plexus

      Correct Answer: Left mid-thoracic cord

      Explanation:

      Understanding Brown-Séquard Syndrome: Identifying the Location of the Spinal Cord Lesion

      Brown-Séquard Syndrome is a rare condition that results from a lesion in one-half of the spinal cord. This can be caused by various factors such as trauma, neoplasia, cysts, multiple sclerosis, haemorrhage, and infections. The syndrome is characterized by ipsilateral hemiplegia and dorsal column sensory loss, with contralateral pain and temperature sensation deficits due to the crossing of the fibres of the spinothalamic tract.

      To identify the location of the spinal cord lesion, a thorough neurological examination is necessary. If the sensory level is around T10, the lesion is likely to be above this, ruling out the left lumbosacral plexus. A cervical spine lesion is unlikely if the upper limb neurological examination is normal. A midline mid-thoracic cord lesion is less likely as a hemicord lesion is more consistent with the combination of one-sided hemiplegia and loss of proprioception, with contralateral pain and temperature sensation deficits.

      Therefore, a right mid-thoracic cord lesion is the most probable cause of Brown-Séquard Syndrome in this scenario. The left-sided hemiplegia and loss of proprioception, with right-sided loss of pinprick sensation, indicate a left-sided hemicord lesion. Understanding the location of the spinal cord lesion is crucial in diagnosing and managing Brown-Séquard Syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      52.5
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - A new drug is being developed to treat chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)....

    Incorrect

    • A new drug is being developed to treat chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). It has been found to be safe in elderly volunteers and seems effective in small-scale trials in elderly patients. The therapeutic effects of the drug do not persist for long after it has been stopped.
      What is the most appropriate study design for the next phase of trials?

      Your Answer: Double-blind parallel groups RCT

      Correct Answer: Double-blind crossover randomised controlled trial (RCT)

      Explanation:

      Different Study Designs for Evaluating a New Drug Intervention

      When evaluating a new drug intervention, there are several study designs to consider. Each design has its own strengths and weaknesses, and the choice of design depends on the research question and the characteristics of the disease and population being studied.

      Double-blind Crossover Randomised Controlled Trial (RCT)
      This design is considered the gold standard for evaluating a new intervention. It involves randomly assigning participants to receive either the new drug or a placebo, and then switching the groups after a certain period of time. This design reduces the potential for bias and is more powerful than a parallel group design if the disease is chronic and stable.

      Cohort Study
      In a cohort study, a group of people who share a defining characteristic are sampled and followed over time to study incidences, causes, and prognosis. No intervention or treatment is administered to participants. This design is useful for studying long-term outcomes and identifying risk factors.

      Case-control Study
      A case-control study compares groups of people with an illness to control subjects to identify a causal factor. However, this design is unsuitable for evaluating a new drug intervention as it requires an existing group of patients who have potentially been exposed to the drug.

      Double-blind Parallel Groups RCT
      This design involves randomly assigning participants to receive either the new drug or a placebo, and then comparing the outcomes between the two groups. It is a suitable design for evaluating a new drug intervention, but a crossover trial may be more powerful.

      Open-label Parallel Groups RCT
      In an open-label study, both the health providers and the patients are aware of the drug or treatment being given. This design may increase the potential for bias and is not recommended for evaluating a new drug intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      36.2
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - What symptom is most indicative of anorexia nervosa? ...

    Incorrect

    • What symptom is most indicative of anorexia nervosa?

      Your Answer: Intensive fear of gaining weight (even if underweight)

      Correct Answer: Weighing oneself every few days

      Explanation:

      Anorexia Nervosa: Key Features

      Anorexia nervosa is a serious eating disorder characterized by an intense fear of gaining weight, even if the individual is already underweight. The following are key features of anorexia nervosa, as summarized from Clinical Pharmacist:

      – Body weight maintained at least 15% below that expected
      – Weight loss is self-induced through avoidance of fattening foods and one or more of the following: self-induced vomiting, self-induced purging, excessive exercise, use of appetite suppressants and/or diuretics
      – Body image distortion whereby dread of becoming fat persists as an intrusive, overvalued idea, with self-imposed low weight threshold
      – Widespread endocrine disorder involving hypothalamic pituitary gonadal axis
      – If onset before puberty, normal development is delayed or ceased

      It is important to recognize these key features in order to diagnose and treat anorexia nervosa effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      41.3
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - A 25-year-old patient presents to you for a contraceptive pill review. She is...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old patient presents to you for a contraceptive pill review. She is considering discontinuing her pill to start a family and seeks your guidance on folic acid intake. She has no other medical conditions and is not taking any other medications.

      What recommendations would you make regarding the dosage and duration of folic acid supplementation?

      Your Answer: 5 mg daily, to be taken before conception and until week 12 of pregnancy

      Correct Answer: 400 micrograms daily, to be taken before conception and until week 12 of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Folic Acid Supplements for Women

      Taking folic acid supplements before conception can be beneficial for women. It is important to note that the correct dose for women without risk factors is 400mcg, not 5mg. While 400mcg tablets are available over the counter, 5mg tablets require a prescription. Women should continue taking the supplements until 12 weeks of pregnancy. It is important to start taking folic acid before becoming pregnant to reap the benefits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      95.4
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - A 42-year-old woman presents to you seeking advice. She had the Mirena coil...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents to you seeking advice. She had the Mirena coil inserted for contraception 3 years ago and has been amenorrhoeic since then. She wants to know how long she can leave the Mirena in place and when it will need to be replaced.

      Which of the following statements is true regarding the Mirena coil?

      Your Answer: If can be kept in for 7 years and until menopause if amenorrhoeic

      Correct Answer: It should be reviewed every 2 years

      Explanation:

      Annual Assessments for Women on Contraceptives

      Women who use the combined contraceptive pill or the progesterone only pill should undergo an annual medical assessment to check for any new health issues. For those using the Depo-Provera injection, a review should be conducted every two years to evaluate the risks and benefits of the treatment.

      The Mirena, an intrauterine device, can be used for up to seven years (off licence) if inserted when a woman is 45 years or older and if the patient is comfortable with their bleeding patterns. If a woman remains amenorrhoeic after seven years of use, the device can remain in place until menopause. Similarly, a copper coil inserted at the age of 40 years or over can be kept until menopause.

      Regular assessments and reviews are crucial to ensure that women are receiving the most appropriate and effective contraceptive treatment for their individual needs. By staying up-to-date with their health status and treatment options, women can make informed decisions about their reproductive health and overall well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      150.6
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - A 67-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis, ischaemic heart disease, hypertension,...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis, ischaemic heart disease, hypertension, type two diabetes mellitus, and chronic kidney disease stage three (CKD 3) presents with a unilateral red eye with purulent discharge. You diagnose her with bacterial conjunctivitis. Considering her medication history, which drug should you avoid prescribing as eye drops?

      Your Answer: Methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Patients who are taking bone marrow suppression drugs, particularly methotrexate, should steer clear of using chloramphenicol eye drops for treating bacterial conjunctivitis. Co-trimoxazole and trimethoprim should also be avoided as they can increase the risk of methotrexate toxicity and pancytopenia. Aspirin and lisinopril are unlikely to interact seriously with methotrexate. However, caution should be exercised when using gliclazide and metformin in patients with a history of CKD 3, although the concurrent use of chloramphenicol is not expected to pose any problems.

      Aplastic anaemia is a condition characterized by a decrease in the number of blood cells due to a poorly functioning bone marrow. It is most commonly seen in individuals around the age of 30 and is marked by a reduction in red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. While lymphocytes may be relatively spared, the overall effect is a condition known as pancytopenia. In some cases, aplastic anaemia may be the first sign of acute lymphoblastic or myeloid leukaemia. A small number of patients may later develop paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria or myelodysplasia.

      The causes of aplastic anaemia can be idiopathic, meaning that they are unknown, or they can be linked to congenital conditions such as Fanconi anaemia or dyskeratosis congenita. Certain drugs, such as cytotoxics, chloramphenicol, sulphonamides, phenytoin, and gold, as well as toxins like benzene, can also cause aplastic anaemia. Infections such as parvovirus and hepatitis, as well as exposure to radiation, can also contribute to the development of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      62.4
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - A 65-year-old man presents with a haemoglobin level of 185 g/l, raised serum...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man presents with a haemoglobin level of 185 g/l, raised serum vitamin B12 level, pruritus, neutrophilia, thrombocytosis, and splenomegaly.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polycythaemia rubra vera

      Explanation:

      Polycythaemia Rubra Vera: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis

      Polycythaemia rubra vera (PRV) is a myeloproliferative disorder characterized by excessive production of red blood cells, leukocytes, and platelets. This condition arises when a single clone of stem cells gains a proliferative advantage over other stem cells. PRV is often discovered through routine blood tests and may present with nonspecific symptoms such as headache, weakness, and joint pain. However, about one-third of patients may present with thrombosis. Physical examination may reveal ruddy cyanosis, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, and hypertension. The haemoglobin level is typically elevated in PRV.

      Differential diagnosis includes von Willebrand’s disease, which presents with mucosal bleeding, and haemochromatosis, which is characterized by iron accumulation in the liver and other organs. Secondary polycythaemia, on the other hand, is caused by an underlying condition and only affects red blood cells. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura is a rare disorder of the blood-coagulation system that causes extensive microscopic clots to form in small blood vessels throughout the body. It is a medical emergency and presents with symptoms such as purpura, fever, dyspnoea, confusion, and headache.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      39.4
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - A 65-year-old gentleman with knee osteoarthritis comes in for a check-up. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old gentleman with knee osteoarthritis comes in for a check-up. He has been taking paracetamol regularly to alleviate his symptoms, but he reports that it is not entirely effective. He experiences stiffness and significant discomfort in both knees after walking for extended periods. He inquires if there is another medication that can assist him in managing the pain flares. What is the most suitable next pharmacological approach in his treatment?

      Your Answer: Add in an oral 'traditional' NSAID (for example, ibuprofen)

      Correct Answer: Add in a topical NSAID

      Explanation:

      Topical NSAIDs for Osteoarthritis Treatment

      If you need further treatment for osteoarthritis after taking paracetamol, adding a topical NSAID is a good option, especially for knee or hand osteoarthritis. Topical NSAIDs have been proven effective in managing these conditions. Although they are relatively expensive, they can prevent or delay the need for oral NSAIDs, which can cause adverse effects such as gastrointestinal, cardiac, and renal problems. Therefore, in the long run, they are cost-effective.

      Topical treatments also encourage self-management and help modify health behavior positively. Patients often use a topical NSAID on top of their oral paracetamol to deal with osteoarthritis flare-ups. The NICE guidelines on Osteoarthritis (CG177) recommend topical NSAIDs and/or paracetamol as a safe initial pharmacological option for knee and hand osteoarthritis. They should be considered ahead of oral NSAIDs, COX-2 inhibitors, or opioids.

      However, topical rubefacients are not recommended for osteoarthritis treatment. It is essential to counsel patients on the correct way to use topical NSAIDs, including the amount to be applied. Systemic effects may still arise, particularly in the elderly, where skin integrity may be compromised, and absorption is less predictable. Patients should also be cautioned about the concomitant use of topical and oral NSAIDs, as it can lead to inadvertent overdose and increased potential for side-effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      65.7
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - A 6-year-old child is brought to see you by his parents. They have...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old child is brought to see you by his parents. They have noticed that he has developed a skin rash and bruising over last 24-36 hours.

      The parents report that he has previously been a well child with no serious past medical problems or hospital admissions. The only time they have sought medical attention in the past has been for the occasional upper respiratory tract infection but these have been infrequent.

      He last had a viral upper respiratory tract infection about 7-10 days ago. The parents managed this at home without the need for medical assessment as the symptoms were not severe.

      On examination he appears well in himself with no temperature, and is interacting and playful. However there is marked superficial bruising and purpura over his trunk and legs. You also note four blood blisters on his tongue. There is no lymphadenopathy or hepatosplenomegaly and the remainder of the clinical examination is unremarkable with normal urine on dipstick testing.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Immune-mediated thrombocytopenic purpura

      Explanation:

      Immune-Mediated Thrombocytopenic Purpura in Children

      This condition is the most common cause of low platelets in children and occurs due to immune-mediated platelet destruction. It typically affects children between 2 and 10 years of age, with onset occurring one to two weeks after a viral infection. Children with this condition develop purpura, bruising, nosebleeds, and mucosal bleeding. While intracranial hemorrhage is a rare complication, it is serious. However, in the vast majority of cases, ITP is an acute and self-limiting condition.

      While acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) can also present with abnormal bruising, the history and clinical features of this child are more suggestive of ITP. Other features of ALL include malaise, recurrent infections, pallor, hepatosplenomegaly, and lymphadenopathy, which are not present in this case.

      Haemolytic-uraemic syndrome is a triad of acute renal failure, thrombocytopenia, and microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia. Patients are typically very unwell. Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP) typically presents with a palpable purpura that affects the buttocks and extensor surfaces, along with arthralgia, abdominal pain, and renal problems. Meningococcal septicaemia can also cause purpura, but affected patients are seriously unwell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      128.2
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - A 45-year-old female patient presents with Raynaud's phenomenon. What is the most indicative...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old female patient presents with Raynaud's phenomenon. What is the most indicative factor of an underlying connective tissue disorder?

      Your Answer: Female patient

      Correct Answer: Recurrent miscarriages

      Explanation:

      Bilateral symptoms in young women may indicate primary Raynaud’s disease. Recurrent miscarriages may be a sign of systemic lupus erythematous or anti-phospholipid syndrome. Chilblains, which are painful and itchy purple swellings on the fingers and toes after exposure to cold, are sometimes linked to underlying connective tissue disease, although this is uncommon.

      Raynaud’s phenomenon is a condition where the arteries in the fingers and toes constrict excessively in response to cold or emotional stress. It can be classified as primary (Raynaud’s disease) or secondary (Raynaud’s phenomenon) depending on the underlying cause. Raynaud’s disease is more common in young women and typically affects both sides of the body. Secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon is often associated with connective tissue disorders such as scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis, or systemic lupus erythematosus. Other causes include leukaemia, cryoglobulinaemia, use of vibrating tools, and certain medications.

      If there is suspicion of secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon, patients should be referred to a specialist for further evaluation. Treatment options include calcium channel blockers such as nifedipine as a first-line therapy. In severe cases, intravenous prostacyclin (epoprostenol) infusions may be used, which can provide relief for several weeks or months. It is important to identify and treat any underlying conditions that may be contributing to the development of Raynaud’s phenomenon. Factors that suggest an underlying connective tissue disease include onset after 40 years, unilateral symptoms, rashes, presence of autoantibodies, and digital ulcers or calcinosis. In rare cases, chilblains may also be present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      28.7
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - A 20-year-old woman has been experiencing recurrent painful mouth ulceration for several years....

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman has been experiencing recurrent painful mouth ulceration for several years. The ulcers typically heal in just over a week, and she remains symptom-free until the next recurrence. She denies any associated symptoms or rash, and her father had a similar history as a teenager. She doesn't smoke and denies excessive alcohol use or drug use. Although there is no dental or periodontal disease, she has three discrete, 4-mm-round ulcers with inflammatory haloes on the buccal mucosa.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Herpes simplex stomatitis

      Correct Answer: Apthous ulcers

      Explanation:

      There are several types of oral ulcers that can occur. Recurrent aphthous ulcers are the most common, affecting up to 66% of people at some point in their life. These ulcers appear on movable oral tissue and can recur frequently. Treatment options include topical corticosteroids, antimicrobial mouthwash, and topical analgesics. Herpes simplex stomatitis is another type of oral ulcer that mostly affects children and is caused by the herpes simplex virus. Symptoms include fever, malaise, and painful intraoral vesicles that can lead to ulcers. Oral candidiasis, or thrush, presents as white patches on the oral mucosa and tongue that can be wiped off to reveal a raw, erythematous base. Oral hairy leukoplakia is a white patch on the side of the tongue with a hairy appearance that is caused by Epstein-Barr virus and usually occurs in immunocompromised individuals. Oral lichen planus presents as a symmetrical, white, lace-like pattern on the buccal mucosa, tongue, and gums, and may be accompanied by erosions and ulcers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      71.2
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - A 25-year-old man presents with flu-like symptoms and subsequently develops haematuria. His urine...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man presents with flu-like symptoms and subsequently develops haematuria. His urine dipstick is positive for blood and protein, and a urine culture is sent. He is prescribed trimethoprim but later reports feeling ill and coughing up blood. Urine microscopy reveals red cell casts. What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Goodpasture syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Goodpasture Syndrome: A Rare Autoimmune Disease with Pulmonary and Renal Complications

      Goodpasture syndrome is a rare autoimmune disease that typically occurs after an influenza infection. It is caused by a type II antigen-antibody reaction, resulting in circulating anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies. This disease primarily affects young men, and smokers are at a higher risk of developing severe pulmonary complications. Pulmonary haemorrhage can be massive and lead to respiratory failure. Additionally, it causes rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis, which has a poor prognosis if left untreated. Urine microscopy shows casts, and blood testing is positive for anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies. Chest X-ray typically shows blotchy shadowing. Treatment involves steroids and plasmapheresis.

      While other diseases can cause pulmonary and renal symptoms, they are unlikely to present in combination. Collagen diseases like systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), rheumatoid arthritis, idiopathic rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis, microscopic polyarteritis, granulomatosis with polyangiitis, and essential mixed cryoglobulinaemia can also cause pulmonary haemorrhage with renal failure. However, acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis, resulting from an antecedent infection of the skin or throat caused by nephritogenic strains of group A beta-hemolytic streptococci, doesn’t present with pulmonary haemorrhage. Symptoms of this disease include odema, gross haematuria, malaise, lethargy, anorexia, fever, abdominal pain, and headache. Red blood cell casts are commonly found in the urine.

      In conclusion, understanding Goodpasture syndrome is crucial for early diagnosis and treatment. This rare autoimmune disease can cause severe pulmonary and renal complications, and prompt intervention is necessary to improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      33
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - A 45-year-old male reports experiencing shoulder pain following a day of intense labor...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male reports experiencing shoulder pain following a day of intense labor painting a garage. The pain radiates to the anterior upper arm and is exacerbated by shoulder flexion beyond 90 degrees. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Frozen shoulder

      Correct Answer: Biceps tendonitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Biceps Tendonitis

      The biceps muscle is located in the front part of the upper arm and attaches at the elbow and in two places at the shoulder. Biceps tendonitis, also known as bicipital tendonitis, is a condition that causes inflammation and pain in the front part of the shoulder or upper arm. This condition is usually caused by overuse of the arm and shoulder or an injury to the biceps tendon.

      Symptoms of biceps tendonitis include pain when moving the arm and shoulder, especially during forward arm movement over shoulder height. Patients may also experience pain when touching the front of the shoulder. To diagnose biceps tendonitis, doctors may perform a Speed’s test, which involves testing the strength and pain in the biceps tendon.

      It’s important to note that while lateral epicondylitis can also cause arm pain, it is typically caused by activities such as painting or repetitive use of a screwdriver, and is not worsened by shoulder flexion alone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      38.8
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - Tom is a 45-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis who works as a sales...

    Incorrect

    • Tom is a 45-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis who works as a sales representative for a company, he earns 500 pounds a week. He has been off sick from work due to a flare in his arthritis and asks you for advice on Statutory Sick Pay. Which of the following regarding 'Statutory Sick Pay' (SSP) is true?

      Your Answer: The claimant must have a GP letter to support their application

      Correct Answer: The claimant must be off sick for 4 days in a row to be eligible for SSP

      Explanation:

      To be eligible for SSP, the claimant must have been off sick for a minimum of 4 consecutive days.

      Understanding the UK Benefits System

      The UK benefits system can be complex and overwhelming, but it is important to have a basic understanding of the available benefits. One major change to the system is the introduction of Universal Credit, which replaces several benefits including Child Tax Credit, Housing Benefit, and Income Support. All claims for Universal Credit must be made online and it is paid monthly or twice a month for some individuals in Scotland.

      Other benefits include Income Support for those on a low income and working less than 16 hours per week, and Job Seekers Allowance for those capable of working and actively seeking employment. Personal Independence Payment (PIP) is a tax-free benefit for adults aged 16-64 who need help with personal care or have walking difficulties due to physical or mental disabilities. Statutory Sick Pay is available for employees unable to work due to illness for up to 28 weeks.

      Retirement pension can be claimed from 60 years for women and 65 years for men, and is taxable even if the claimant is still working. Bereavement Support Payment has replaced Bereavement payment and Bereavement allowance, and is a lump sum followed by 18 monthly payments. It is dependent on national insurance contributions and must be claimed within 3 months of the partner’s death to receive the full amount.

      It is important to note that the State Pension age is gradually increasing for both men and women, with proposals to increase it to 68 in the future. Whilst GPs are not expected to be experts on claimable benefits, having a rough understanding can be helpful in supporting patients who may be struggling financially.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - You are investigating a 70-year-old patient with suspected heart failure. The NT-proBNP result...

    Correct

    • You are investigating a 70-year-old patient with suspected heart failure. The NT-proBNP result arrived today as 2200 ng/litre.

      Which of the following would be the most appropriate management step?

      Your Answer: Refer to on-call cardiologist

      Explanation:

      NT-proBNP Guidelines for Heart Failure Diagnosis

      NICE guidelines provide clear instructions for the interpretation of NT-proBNP levels in the diagnosis of heart failure. An NT-proBNP level above 2000ng/litre indicates a poor prognosis and requires urgent referral for specialist assessment and echocardiography within 2 weeks. For levels between 400 and 2000 ng/litre, referral should be made within 6 weeks. However, an NT-proBNP level less than 400 ng/litre makes a diagnosis of heart failure less likely. It is important to keep in mind that certain factors such as obesity, Afro-Caribbean family origin, and medication use can reduce the reading. Therefore, careful consideration of these factors is necessary when interpreting NT-proBNP levels. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure timely and accurate diagnosis of heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
      39.3
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - You are seeing a 65-year-old lady with oestrogen-receptor-positive breast cancer.
    She has been prescribed...

    Correct

    • You are seeing a 65-year-old lady with oestrogen-receptor-positive breast cancer.
      She has been prescribed exemestane 25 mg daily by her oncologist and has been taking this for four months.
      Which of the following is the most common side effect that this patient may experience?

      Your Answer: Gastrointestinal discomfort

      Explanation:

      BNF and AKT: Common Side Effects of Medications

      The British National Formulary (BNF) is often used as a reference for setting questions in the AKT exam. One common topic is the side effects of medications. The BNF categorizes side effects based on their frequency, ranging from very common to very rare. Gastrointestinal discomfort and dyspepsia are the most common side effects, while drowsiness and peripheral oedema are less common. Thrombocytopenia and leucopenia are considered common side effects, but sarcopenia is not listed. It is important for candidates to be familiar with the BNF and the frequency of side effects to perform well in the AKT exam.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      71.3
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - A 35-year-old accountant presents with persistent anxiety symptoms that are significantly impacting his...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old accountant presents with persistent anxiety symptoms that are significantly impacting his daily functioning. Despite completing a self-help program and undergoing CBT, he has not experienced any significant improvement after taking Sertraline for 6 months. What is the recommended next step in treatment?

      Your Answer: Trial of an alternative SSRI such as Escitalopram or a SNRI such as Venlafaxine

      Explanation:

      If non-pharmacological treatments have not effectively managed symptoms of Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD), the first line of medication recommended is an SSRI such as Sertraline or Escitalopram. If this proves to be ineffective or not well-tolerated, an alternative SSRI or SNRI like Venlafaxine should be tried. It is important to allow 12 weeks to see the full effects of the medication. Benzodiazepines, Propranolol, and low dose Amitriptyline are not recommended in this situation. If the patient cannot tolerate or has contraindications to the aforementioned medications, a trial of Pregabalin is recommended. Referral to a mental health team is not necessary at this time as the patient has not yet tried the different management options.

      Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing psychiatric disorders such as anxiety. Hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety are important alternative causes. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.

      NICE recommends a stepwise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). The first step is education about GAD and active monitoring. The second step involves low-intensity psychological interventions such as individual non-facilitated self-help, individual guided self-help, or psychoeducational groups. The third step includes high-intensity psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioural therapy or applied relaxation, or drug treatment. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI recommended by NICE. If sertraline is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin–noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the person cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under the age of 30 years, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.

      The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach. The first step is recognition and diagnosis, followed by treatment in primary care. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment. SSRIs are the first-line treatment. If contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered. The third step involves reviewing and considering alternative treatments, followed by review and referral to specialist mental health services in the fourth and fifth steps, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      52.5
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - An 8-year-old boy comes to the General Practitioner with his father complaining of...

    Correct

    • An 8-year-old boy comes to the General Practitioner with his father complaining of bed-wetting, thirst and increasing lethargy for the past 2 weeks. The father reports that his son has lost some weight. The patient appears healthy and the examination is normal. Urinalysis reveals 4+ glucose and moderate ketones. His capillary blood glucose level is 16 mmol/l.
      What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Acute Paediatric referral to be seen today

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Management of Suspected Diabetes Mellitus in a Paediatric Patient

      When a paediatric patient presents with symptoms of polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss, along with a raised capillary blood glucose, diabetes mellitus is a likely diagnosis. This insidious onset over several weeks can make it difficult to detect, and children may appear well despite being in diabetic ketoacidosis. Therefore, it is crucial to confirm the diagnosis and initiate appropriate treatment on the same day to prevent any life-threatening complications.

      While urine culture may be appropriate for suspected urinary tract infections, elevated blood glucose makes diabetes mellitus a more likely diagnosis. Therefore, arranging for fasting blood sugar, haemoglobin A1c, and paediatric outpatient review within two weeks is necessary.

      Initiating insulin therapy in primary care is essential, but the patient will also need urgent secondary care investigation, such as blood gas analysis, to rule out ketoacidosis. The patient may require fluid resuscitation and extensive education regarding diabetes, which can be best accessed in secondary care.

      Although measuring C-peptide may distinguish between different types of diabetes, it is usually unnecessary in patients with features suggestive of type I diabetes, as seen in this patient. Therefore, appropriate management of suspected diabetes mellitus in a paediatric patient involves prompt diagnosis, initiation of insulin therapy, and urgent secondary care investigation to prevent any life-threatening complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      45
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - A 25-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner in her 28th week of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner in her 28th week of pregnancy. After an uneventful first and second trimester to date, she has developed widespread itching over the last three weeks and she now has mild jaundice. Her bilirubin is 80 μmol/l (normal <21 μmol/l), alanine aminotransferase (ALT) at 82 IU/l (normal <40 IU/l), and the alkaline phosphatase is markedly raised.
      Which of the following is the diagnosis that fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Primary biliary cholangitis

      Correct Answer: Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Liver Disorders in Pregnancy: Differential Diagnosis

      During pregnancy, various liver disorders can occur, leading to abnormal liver function tests. Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy is the most common pregnancy-related liver disorder, affecting 0.1-1.5% of pregnancies. It typically presents in the late second or early third trimester with generalized itching, starting on the palms and soles. An elevated alanine aminotransferase (ALT) is a more sensitive marker than aspartate aminotransferase (AST), and a fasting serum bile acid concentration of greater than 10 mmol/l is the key diagnostic test. Primary biliary cholangitis and acute fatty liver of pregnancy are less likely diagnoses, while cholelithiasis and hyperemesis gravidarum have different clinical presentations. Early diagnosis and management of liver disorders in pregnancy are crucial to prevent adverse outcomes such as prematurity and stillbirth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      39.8
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - A teenager asks you for dietary advice about foods rich in vitamin D.

    Which...

    Incorrect

    • A teenager asks you for dietary advice about foods rich in vitamin D.

      Which one of the following foods is the richest dietary source of vitamin D?

      Your Answer: Cow's milk

      Correct Answer: Oily fish

      Explanation:

      Sources of Vitamin D

      Bread and vegetables are not reliable sources of vitamin D. While some breakfast cereals are fortified with vitamin D, not all of them are. Infant formula milk contains vitamin D, but ordinary cow’s milk is not a rich source.

      The best sources of dietary vitamin D are oily fish and eggs. Some margarine type spreads are also fortified with vitamin D. However, even a diet rich in vitamin D may not provide sufficient amounts. The main source of vitamin D is sunlight acting on the skin. Therefore, it is important to spend time outdoors and expose the skin to sunlight to maintain adequate levels of vitamin D.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - A 12-year-old girl is brought to the operating room by her mother due...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl is brought to the operating room by her mother due to experiencing headaches for the past few months. These headaches occur approximately once a week and are described as a 'pulsing' feeling in the right temple region. The pain is severe and accompanied by nausea and sensitivity to light. Her neurological examination is unremarkable. What is the most probable treatment to alleviate her symptoms during a headache episode?

      Your Answer: Head massage

      Correct Answer: Ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      Headache in Children: Migraine and Tension-Type Headache

      Headaches are a common complaint in children, with up to 50% of 7-year-olds and 80% of 15-year-olds experiencing at least one headache. Migraine without aura is the most common cause of primary headache in children, with a strong female preponderance after puberty. The International Headache Society has produced criteria for diagnosing paediatric migraine without aura, which includes headache lasting 4-72 hours, with at least two of four specific features and accompanied by nausea/vomiting and/or photophobia/phonophobia. Acute management of paediatric migraine involves ibuprofen, which is more effective than paracetamol, and triptans, which may be used in children over 12 years old but require follow-up. Prophylaxis for migraine is limited, with pizotifen and propranolol recommended as first-line preventatives, followed by valproate, topiramate, and amitriptyline as second-line options.

      Tension-type headache is the second most common cause of headache in children. The IHS diagnostic criteria for TTH in children include headache lasting from 30 minutes to 7 days, with at least two of three specific pain characteristics and no nausea/vomiting but with photophobia/phonophobia present. Treatment for TTH involves identifying and addressing triggers, as well as using non-pharmacological interventions such as relaxation techniques and cognitive-behavioural therapy. Overall, headache in children requires careful diagnosis and management to improve quality of life and prevent long-term complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      70.6
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - A 42-year-old female presents for contraception advice. She had the intrauterine device inserted...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old female presents for contraception advice. She had the intrauterine device inserted after being diagnosed with breast cancer seven years ago, which was treated successfully. However, she has noticed that her periods have become heavier since having the device and is interested in exploring other contraceptive options. What advice should be given regarding her contraception?

      Your Answer: She should be advised that she could use any hormonal contraception that doesn't contain oestrogen

      Correct Answer: She should be advised to use barrier contraception or the intrauterine device only

      Explanation:

      Contraception Options for Patients with Past Breast Cancer

      Patients with a past history of breast cancer should be advised to use barrier contraception or the intrauterine device (IUD) only. Hormonal containing contraception, including progestogens, are UKMEC 3 in these patients. This means that the benefits of using hormonal contraception may outweigh the risks, but caution should be taken and alternative options should be considered.

      The IUD and implant are also UKMEC 3 in patients with past breast cancer, while the IUD and progesterone-only pill are also considered UKMEC 3. It is important for patients to discuss their options with their healthcare provider and weigh the potential benefits and risks of each method before making a decision. By considering all options and taking precautions, patients with past breast cancer can still have access to effective contraception while minimizing potential risks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      92.5
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - The collusion of anonymity is a phrase used to describe a patient's experience...

    Incorrect

    • The collusion of anonymity is a phrase used to describe a patient's experience of medical care, often in hospital.

      Which of the following statements best describes this concept?

      Your Answer: In studies, names must be made anonymous to protect the patients

      Correct Answer: Patients' care is fractionated, so that no-one is directly responsible for decision-making

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Collusion of Anonymity in Healthcare

      The collusion of anonymity is a significant issue in healthcare, particularly in hospitals where multiple professionals from different departments are involved in a patient’s care. This can lead to a breakdown in communication and compromised care, as the patient becomes an anonymous entity rather than an individual with specific needs.

      One example of how collusion of anonymity can occur is between primary and secondary care. Medications issued by secondary care often require strict monitoring, and without clear communication between primary and secondary care, issues can arise. To combat this, shared care protocols have been implemented to outline exactly who will be monitoring and acting on abnormal results.

      Multidisciplinary meetings involving various healthcare professionals are also common practice, but it is crucial to clarify each person’s role to avoid collusion of anonymity. This can be achieved through open communication and a clear understanding of each individual’s responsibilities.

      In summary, understanding the collusion of anonymity is essential in providing effective healthcare. By implementing clear communication and protocols, healthcare professionals can work together to ensure that patients receive the best possible care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      46.8
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - A 28-year-old woman presents as an emergency to her GP with acute vomiting...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents as an emergency to her GP with acute vomiting which began some 3-4 h after attending an afternoon meeting. Cream cakes were served during the coffee break.
      Select from the list the most likely causative organism of this acute attack of vomiting.

      Your Answer: Bacillus cereus

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Bacterial Food Poisoning: Causes and Symptoms

      Bacterial food poisoning is a common problem that can result from consuming contaminated food or water. Among the different types of bacteria that can cause food poisoning, Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, Yersinia, Campylobacter, and Salmonella are the most common. Each of these bacteria has its own unique characteristics and symptoms.

      Staphylococcus aureus is known to multiply rapidly in foods that are rich in carbohydrates and salt, such as dairy products, ice cream, cold meats, or mayonnaise. It produces a heat-stable endotoxin that causes nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea within 1-6 hours of ingestion.

      Bacillus cereus infection is associated with slow-cooked food and reheated rice. The bacterium produces an emetic toxin that leads to vomiting within 1-5 hours. It can be difficult to distinguish from other short-term bacterial foodborne intoxications such as by Staphylococcus aureus.

      Yersinia infection results in diarrhea some 3-10 days after contact and presents with bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and fever. The organism is acquired usually by insufficiently cooked pork or contaminated water, meat, or milk.

      Campylobacter infection has an incubation period of 2-5 days and results in flu-like symptoms, abdominal pain, and diarrhea. It is the most common bacterium that causes food poisoning in the UK.

      Salmonella infection normally leads to a picture of acute gastroenteritis with fever, abdominal cramps, and diarrhea between 12-36 hours after the ingestion of infected food. Infection occurs from a wide variety of infected foods that usually look and smell normal.

      It is important for registered medical practitioners to notify the “proper officer” at their local council or local health protection team of suspected cases of food poisoning. By understanding the causes and symptoms of bacterial food poisoning, individuals can take steps to prevent infection and seek prompt medical attention if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      28.7
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - A 55-year-old man has recently been diagnosed with a duodenal ulcer at endoscopy....

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man has recently been diagnosed with a duodenal ulcer at endoscopy. He is not taking any medication that might have caused this. Testing for Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) returns positive.
      What is the most appropriate initial treatment regimen?

      Your Answer: PPI, clarithromycin, metronidazole

      Explanation:

      Comparison of Treatment Options for H. Pylori Infection

      When treating a patient with a positive H. Pylori test, it is important to choose the appropriate eradication therapy. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends a 7-day course of PPI twice daily, amoxicillin 1 g twice daily, and either clarithromycin 500 mg twice daily or metronidazole 400 mg twice daily. If the patient is allergic to penicillin, then a PPI with clarithromycin and metronidazole should be prescribed. If the infection is associated with NSAID use, two months of PPI should be prescribed before eradication therapy.

      It is important to note that H2-receptor antagonists should not be used as first-line treatment for H. Pylori. Instead, a PPI should be used. The recommended PPIs are lansoprazole, omeprazole, esomeprazole, pantoprazole, or rabeprazole.

      While antacids and dietary advice can be helpful in managing dyspepsia, they are not sufficient for treating H. Pylori. Eradication therapy with appropriate antibiotics is necessary.

      If the patient has an ulcer associated with NSAID use and a positive H. Pylori test, NICE recommends using a full-dose PPI for two months before prescribing eradication therapy. However, if the patient is not taking any medication, this step is not necessary.

      Sucralfate can protect the mucosa from acid, but it is not part of NICE guidance for H. Pylori treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      46.2
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - A 25-year-old patient with complex partial seizures controlled with carbamazepine is 32 weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old patient with complex partial seizures controlled with carbamazepine is 32 weeks pregnant.

      She has not had a seizure throughout pregnancy. She expresses a wish to breastfeed, but is concerned that the carbamazepine may affect her child.

      What advice should be given to her?

      Your Answer: Folic acid should be continued whilst Breastfeeding

      Correct Answer: Serum carbamazepine levels should be monitored whilst Breastfeeding

      Explanation:

      Epilepsy and Pregnancy: Considerations for Medication and Breastfeeding

      Carbamazepine (CBZ) is present in breast milk, but only in small amounts. Breastfeeding mothers should be encouraged to continue breastfeeding as the levels of CBZ in breast milk are too low to cause any harm to the baby.

      Prior to conception, it is recommended that women take folic acid at a dose of 5 mg daily to prevent neural tube defects in the fetus. However, it is not recommended for breastfeeding mothers.

      For patients with well-controlled epilepsy, there is no increased risk of seizures during pregnancy or the postpartum period. While there is no routine need to monitor serum anti-epileptic concentrations, the NICE guidelines suggest monitoring levels in certain circumstances such as adjusting phenytoin dose, poor concordance, and suspected toxicity.

      Overall, it is important for women with epilepsy to work closely with their healthcare provider to ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and baby during pregnancy and breastfeeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      62.9
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - A 31-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of recurrent burning and...

    Correct

    • A 31-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of recurrent burning and itching in his eyes. He frequently wakes up with red, sticky eyes and has received treatment for conjunctivitis multiple times, but with no lasting improvement. During the examination, the doctor observes red and inflamed lid margins and mild conjunctival injection.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Blepharitis

      Explanation:

      Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms

      Blepharitis: This condition is commonly seen in adults and can be divided into anterior and posterior blepharitis. Anterior blepharitis affects the skin and eyelashes, while posterior blepharitis involves the meibomian glands. Symptoms include red and swollen eyelids, crusts at the base of eyelashes, a gritty or burning sensation in the eyes, and excessive watering. Regular lid cleaning with baby shampoo is key to effective management, and topical antibiotics may be used if there is an infection.

      Viral Conjunctivitis: Those with viral conjunctivitis typically have a recent history of upper respiratory tract infection or contact with a sick individual. Symptoms include redness, watering, and discharge from the eyes. This condition usually settles in 1-2 weeks and is not chronic.

      Chlamydial Conjunctivitis: This condition is characterized by chronic low-grade conjunctivitis that may persist for 3-12 months if left untreated. Symptoms include a green stringy discharge in the morning. Recurrent conjunctivitis in sexually active patients should raise the possibility of chlamydia.

      Contact Dermatitis: Excessive eye makeup use can lead to contact dermatitis. Symptoms include redness, itching, and swelling in the periorbital area. A history of new cosmetics or makeup use should be explored.

      Meibomianitis: Symptoms of meibomianitis include dry and gritty eyes, skin flaking around the eyes, and crusty eyes after sleeping. This condition responds to long courses of systemic antibiotics. However, the symptoms described here are more consistent with blepharitis than meibomianitis.

      Understanding Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      31.8
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - A 48-year-old woman who was diagnosed with primary atrophic hypothyroidism 6 months ago...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old woman who was diagnosed with primary atrophic hypothyroidism 6 months ago has undergone recent thyroid function tests (TFTs):

      TSH 10.8 mU/l
      Free T4 15 pmol/l

      She is currently prescribed 50mcg of levothyroxine daily. What is the interpretation of these results?

      Your Answer: Poor compliance with medication

      Explanation:

      The high TSH level indicates a recent deficiency of thyroxine in her body. However, her free T4 level is normal. It is probable that she began taking thyroxine correctly just before the blood test, which would have restored the thyroxine level. Nevertheless, it takes longer for the TSH level to return to normal.

      Understanding Thyroid Function Tests

      Thyroid function tests are used to diagnose thyroid disorders such as hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism. The interpretation of these tests is usually straightforward. In cases of thyrotoxicosis, such as Graves’ disease, the TSH level will be low and the free T4 level will be high. In primary hypothyroidism, the TSH level will be high and the free T4 level will be low. In cases of secondary hypothyroidism, both TSH and free T4 levels will be low, and replacement steroid therapy is required prior to thyroxine.

      Sick euthyroid syndrome, now referred to as non-thyroidal illness, is common in hospital inpatients and is characterized by low levels of both TSH and free T4. T3 levels are particularly low in these patients. Subclinical hypothyroidism is characterized by high TSH levels and normal free T4 levels. Poor compliance with thyroxine can also result in high TSH levels and normal free T4 levels. Steroid therapy can result in low TSH levels and normal free T4 levels.

      It is important to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase. Understanding the results of thyroid function tests can help diagnose and manage thyroid disorders effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      51.2
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - In your afternoon clinic, you come across a 45-year-old male patient complaining of...

    Correct

    • In your afternoon clinic, you come across a 45-year-old male patient complaining of vertigo. He had a recent upper respiratory tract infection and has been experiencing vertigo since then. He also reports a ringing sound in his right ear and decreased hearing. Along with vertigo, he is experiencing nausea and vomiting. On examination, he has fine horizontal nystagmus but no focal neurological signs. Which symptom or sign is unique to labyrinthitis and not vestibular neuronitis?

      Your Answer: Hearing loss

      Explanation:

      Viral labyrinthitis may cause hearing loss, while vestibular neuronitis doesn’t typically result in hearing loss. However, both conditions can cause symptoms such as nausea and vomiting, vertigo, and nystagmus. Therefore, the options stating that these symptoms are exclusive to one condition or the other are incorrect.

      Vertigo is a condition characterized by a false sensation of movement in the body or environment. There are various causes of vertigo, each with its own unique characteristics. Viral labyrinthitis, for example, is typically associated with a recent viral infection, sudden onset, nausea and vomiting, and possible hearing loss. Vestibular neuronitis, on the other hand, is characterized by recurrent vertigo attacks lasting hours or days, but with no hearing loss. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo is triggered by changes in head position and lasts for only a few seconds. Meniere’s disease, meanwhile, is associated with hearing loss, tinnitus, and a feeling of fullness or pressure in the ears. Elderly patients with vertigo may be experiencing vertebrobasilar ischaemia, which is accompanied by dizziness upon neck extension. Acoustic neuroma, which is associated with hearing loss, vertigo, and tinnitus, is also a possible cause of vertigo. Other causes include posterior circulation stroke, trauma, multiple sclerosis, and ototoxicity from medications like gentamicin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      58
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - A 30-year-old builder presents with a two week history of deteriorating pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old builder presents with a two week history of deteriorating pain in both feet that feels as though he is walking on gravel, and a sore lower back.

      He returned from a holiday in Spain two months ago and had been aware of a transient urethral discharge for which he has received no treatment.

      Your Answer: Gonococcal arthritis

      Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Reactive Arthritis

      Reactive arthritis, previously known as Reiter’s syndrome, is a condition characterized by a triad of symptoms. These include sero-negative arthritis, urethritis, and conjunctivitis. The painful feet reflect a plantar fasciitis, while sacroiliitis is often present.

      Reactive arthritis is known to occur after gastrointestinal infections with Shigella or Salmonella. It can also occur following a nonspecific urethritis. On the other hand, gonococcal arthritis tends to occur in patients who are systemically unwell and have features of septic arthritis.

      In summary, understanding the symptoms and causes of reactive arthritis is crucial in its diagnosis and management. Proper identification and treatment of the underlying infection can help alleviate the symptoms and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      57.1
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - You are reviewing a 4-week old baby girl who is brought in by...

    Correct

    • You are reviewing a 4-week old baby girl who is brought in by her parents. Lily was born vaginally at term at the local hospital. She became unwell straight after birth and was treated for neonatal sepsis in the neonatal intensive care unit. Thankfully, she recovered well and was discharged after 7 days.

      What is the most common cause of sepsis in newborns?

      Your Answer: Group B Streptococcus

      Explanation:

      Neonatal sepsis is primarily caused by GBS, with preterm and very low birthweight infants being at a higher risk. Coagulase-negative Staphylococci, Staphylococcus aureus, and Escherichia coli are also frequently identified as causative agents. Listeria monocytogenes and Streptococcus pneumoniae are also significant pathogens.

      Understanding Group B Streptococcus (GBS) Infection in Neonates

      Group B Streptococcus (GBS) is a common cause of severe infection in newborns during the early stages of life. It is estimated that 20-40% of mothers carry GBS in their bowel flora, making them potential carriers of the bacteria. Infants can be exposed to GBS during labor and delivery, which can lead to serious infections. Prematurity, prolonged rupture of the membranes, previous sibling GBS infection, and maternal pyrexia are all risk factors for GBS infection.

      The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has published guidelines on GBS management. The guidelines state that universal screening for GBS should not be offered to all women, and a maternal request is not an indication for screening. Women who have had GBS detected in a previous pregnancy should be informed that their risk of maternal GBS carriage in this pregnancy is 50%. They should be offered intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis (IAP) or testing in late pregnancy and then antibiotics if still positive. If women are to have swabs for GBS, this should be offered at 35-37 weeks or 3-5 weeks prior to the anticipated delivery date. IAP should be offered to women with a previous baby with early- or late-onset GBS disease, women in preterm labor regardless of their GBS status, and women with a pyrexia during labor (>38ºC). Benzylpenicillin is the antibiotic of choice for GBS prophylaxis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      39.5
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - A 55-year-old woman presents with a complaint of right elbow pain. The pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents with a complaint of right elbow pain. The pain has been persistent for the last four weeks and is most severe approximately 4-5cm distal to the lateral aspect of the elbow joint. The pain is exacerbated by extending the elbow and pronating the forearm. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lateral epicondylitis

      Correct Answer: Radial tunnel syndrome

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Elbow Pain

      Elbow pain can be caused by a variety of conditions, each with their own characteristic features. Lateral epicondylitis, also known as tennis elbow, is characterized by pain and tenderness localized to the lateral epicondyle. Pain is worsened by resisted wrist extension with the elbow extended or supination of the forearm with the elbow extended. Episodes typically last between 6 months and 2 years, with acute pain lasting for 6-12 weeks.

      Medial epicondylitis, or golfer’s elbow, is characterized by pain and tenderness localized to the medial epicondyle. Pain is aggravated by wrist flexion and pronation, and symptoms may be accompanied by numbness or tingling in the 4th and 5th finger due to ulnar nerve involvement.

      Radial tunnel syndrome is most commonly due to compression of the posterior interosseous branch of the radial nerve, and is thought to be a result of overuse. Symptoms are similar to lateral epicondylitis, but the pain tends to be around 4-5 cm distal to the lateral epicondyle. Symptoms may be worsened by extending the elbow and pronating the forearm.

      Cubital tunnel syndrome is due to the compression of the ulnar nerve. Initially, patients may experience intermittent tingling in the 4th and 5th finger, which may be worse when the elbow is resting on a firm surface or flexed for extended periods. Later, numbness in the 4th and 5th finger with associated weakness may occur.

      Olecranon bursitis is characterized by swelling over the posterior aspect of the elbow, with associated pain, warmth, and erythema. It typically affects middle-aged male patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      51.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (1/7) 14%
Mental Health (3/9) 33%
Gastroenterology (2/8) 25%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (4/6) 67%
Musculoskeletal Health (4/13) 31%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (1/2) 50%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (3/7) 43%
Haematology (3/3) 100%
Allergy And Immunology (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular Health (2/2) 100%
Dermatology (3/4) 75%
Children And Young People (5/10) 50%
Eyes And Vision (2/3) 67%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (2/3) 67%
Population Health (0/4) 0%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (0/2) 0%
Respiratory Health (1/1) 100%
Genomic Medicine (0/1) 0%
Kidney And Urology (3/4) 75%
End Of Life (1/1) 100%
Neurology (1/2) 50%
Gynaecology And Breast (0/2) 0%
Consulting In General Practice (0/2) 0%
Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability (1/1) 100%
Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse (0/1) 0%
Urgent And Unscheduled Care (1/1) 100%
Passmed