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  • Question 1 - A 67-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and ischaemic...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and ischaemic heart disease is experiencing erectile dysfunction. The decision is made to try sildenafil therapy. Is there any existing medication that can be continued without requiring adjustments?

      Your Answer: Nateglinide

      Explanation:

      The BNF advises against using alpha-blockers within 4 hours of taking sildenafil.

      Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. They work by increasing cGMP, which leads to relaxation of smooth muscles in blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which is taken about an hour before sexual activity. Other examples include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra), which have longer-lasting effects and can be taken regularly. However, these medications have contraindications, such as not being safe for patients taking nitrates or those with hypotension. They can also cause side effects such as visual disturbances, blue discolouration, and headaches. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking PDE5 inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      81
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old female presents for preconception counseling. She was recently released from the...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female presents for preconception counseling. She was recently released from the Gynaecology department after receiving one dose of methotrexate for the medical management of an ectopic pregnancy. She presents you with a discharge letter indicating that her ßHCG level is now undetectable. She is interested in conceiving again and wants to know when it is safe to do so.

      Your Answer: 3 months

      Correct Answer: 2 months

      Explanation:

      Systemic Methotrexate for Tubal Ectopic Pregnancy

      According to RCOG Green top guideline No. 21, systemic methotrexate is a viable option for treating tubal ectopic pregnancy. This drug has been found to be equally successful as laparoscopic surgery in certain cases. However, it is crucial to first rule out an intrauterine pregnancy before administering methotrexate.

      One advantage of using methotrexate is that it doesn’t affect ovarian reserve. However, women undergoing treatment should avoid alcohol and folate-containing vitamins. Additionally, it is recommended that women avoid pregnancy for at least three months after receiving methotrexate due to its teratogenic potential. This is because the drug may remain present in some organs for an extended period of time, which could potentially harm fetal development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      104.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with a complaint of pain in...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with a complaint of pain in her right ankle. She twisted her ankle while stepping off a curb, resulting in an inversion injury to the right ankle. What is the most significant feature that would require an ankle X-ray to check for a fracture?

      Your Answer: Tenderness of the lateral malleolus

      Explanation:

      Assessing the Need for X-rays in Ankle Injuries

      The Ottawa ankle rules are a reliable tool for determining whether an ankle injury requires an X-ray. If there is pain in the medial or lateral malleolus, an X-ray is necessary if there is bone tenderness along the distal 6 cm of the posterior edge of the tibia or fibula, or an inability to bear weight for four steps. Bruising and swelling of the ankle joint do not necessarily indicate the need for an X-ray, as they can occur in both bony and soft-tissue injuries. Ankle joint instability may suggest a ligamental injury, but an X-ray is not always necessary unless there are other indications. Pain on walking may occur with both types of injuries, but an inability to walk for four steps immediately after the injury or at the time of assessment would warrant an X-ray. The initial management of soft-tissue injuries is rest, ice, compression, and elevation, with physiotherapy or surgery as needed for more severe cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      62.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - An 80-year-old man presents with a three-week history of increasing fatigue and palpitations...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man presents with a three-week history of increasing fatigue and palpitations on exertion. He has a medical history of myocardial infarction and biventricular heart failure and is currently taking ramipril 5mg, bisoprolol 5mg, aspirin 75 mg, and atorvastatin 80 mg. During examination, his heart rate is irregularly irregular at 98/min, and his blood pressure is 172/85 mmHg. An ECG confirms the diagnosis of new atrial fibrillation. What medication should be avoided in this patient?

      Your Answer: Verapamil

      Explanation:

      Verapamil is more likely to worsen heart failure compared to dihydropyridines such as amlodipine.

      Calcium channel blockers are a class of drugs commonly used to treat cardiovascular disease. These drugs target voltage-gated calcium channels found in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these areas, making it important to differentiate their uses and actions.

      Verapamil is used to treat angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. It is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Side effects include heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.

      Diltiazem is used to treat angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Side effects include hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.

      Nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are dihydropyridines used to treat hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. They affect peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, which means they do not worsen heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter acting dihydropyridines like nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia. Side effects include flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.

      According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves a flow chart that takes into account various factors such as age, ethnicity, and comorbidities. Calcium channel blockers may be used as part of the treatment plan depending on the individual patient’s needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      79.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 42-year-old man who is a smoker presents with a 6-week history of...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man who is a smoker presents with a 6-week history of hoarseness of voice. He is otherwise well with no weight loss or sore throat, and has a normal-looking oropharynx and oral cavity.
      What is the MOST APPROPRIATE management option?

      Your Answer: Urgent referral to the local hospital ENT department under the 2-week-wait criteria

      Explanation:

      Importance of Prompt Referral for Laryngeal Carcinoma

      Laryngeal carcinoma is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. If left untreated, it can lead to severe complications and even death. One of the most common symptoms of laryngeal carcinoma is persistent hoarseness, which is why it is important to seek medical attention if you experience this symptom.

      In addition to hoarseness, an unexplained lump in the neck is another sign that you may be at risk of laryngeal carcinoma. If you experience either of these symptoms, it is important to seek a 2-week-wait cancer referral as soon as possible.

      The priority in diagnosing laryngeal carcinoma is to exclude it by direct visualisation of the larynx, which can only be done in an ENT department. Therefore, it is crucial to seek medical attention and get referred to an ENT department for further evaluation and treatment. Early detection and treatment can greatly improve the chances of a successful outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      109.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 85-year-old gentleman with advanced dementia was found to have bradycardia during a...

    Correct

    • A 85-year-old gentleman with advanced dementia was found to have bradycardia during a routine medical check-up. The patient did not show any symptoms and his general examination was unremarkable. He is currently taking atorvastatin and galantamine. An ECG taken at rest showed sinus bradycardia with a rate of 56 beats per minute. Blood tests, including electrolytes, calcium, magnesium, and thyroid function, were all within normal limits.

      What is the MOST APPROPRIATE NEXT step in management? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Stop galantamine and inform memory clinic

      Explanation:

      Sinus Bradycardia and its Management

      Sinus bradycardia is a condition where the heart rate is slower than normal. If the cause of sinus bradycardia is unknown and it doesn’t cause any symptoms, no intervention may be required. However, more information is needed before making a decision. A 24-hour ECG can be useful in characterizing the heart rhythm, but it may take several days to organize as an outpatient.

      There is no need to discuss sinus bradycardia with the on-call team unless the patient experiences symptoms such as dizziness, shortness of breath, or chest pain, or if there is evidence of heart failure. It is important to note that statins are not associated with bradycardia, but all AChEs are associated with it, and withholding the drug is necessary if bradycardia occurs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      101.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 30-year-old man who is typically healthy comes in with a cough that...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man who is typically healthy comes in with a cough that produces clear sputum and feeling generally unwell for the past three days. The physician provides him with a prescription for antibiotics to be filled at a later time. What is the estimated percentage of patients who will ultimately take antibiotics using this approach?

      Your Answer: 50%

      Correct Answer: 33%

      Explanation:

      The Debate on Delayed Prescribing for Antibiotics

      Delayed prescribing has been a topic of debate for many years, particularly in relation to reducing antibiotic prescriptions for respiratory tract infections. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) currently advocates for this strategy, but its effectiveness and acceptability among patients remain in question.

      In 2013, Cochrane conducted a review of 10 studies on the delayed prescription of antibiotics for acute respiratory tract infections. The review found that delayed prescribing reduced antibiotic use from 93% to 32%, regardless of the method used (e.g. post-dated script, same-day script with advice to use after 48 hours). However, patient satisfaction levels were not significantly affected by delayed prescribing.

      Critics of delayed prescribing argue that patient satisfaction levels were just as high for patients who were refused antibiotics. Despite the ongoing debate, delayed prescribing remains a potential strategy for reducing unnecessary antibiotic use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      69.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old female presents with similar symptoms as the previous case, including irritability,...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old female presents with similar symptoms as the previous case, including irritability, tremors, unexplained weight loss, diarrhoea, palpitations and fatigue. On examination, her pulse rate is 120/min and regular. Her thyroid gland is also noted to be symmetrically enlarged but non-tender.

      Blood tests reveal the following:

      Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 0.1 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
      Free thyroxine (T4) 26 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
      TSH receptor antibodies (TRAb) 16 IU/L (<1.7)

      What medication can be prescribed to manage the patient's symptoms quickly while she awaits her appointment with the endocrinologist?

      Your Answer: Carbimazole

      Correct Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      Propranolol is an effective non-selective beta-blocker that can be used to control the symptoms of hyperthyroidism in new cases of Graves’ disease. While carbimazole is also an anti-thyroid medication that can improve thyroid levels in the long-term, it may not provide rapid symptom relief compared to beta-blockers. Metoprolol, a selective beta-blocker for beta-1 adrenergic receptors, is not as effective as propranolol in this situation. Propylthiouracil is another anti-thyroid medication that can be used instead of carbimazole, but may not provide quick symptom relief. Radioactive iodine is a specialist treatment option used by endocrinologists for patients who do not respond to anti-thyroid medications, but it doesn’t provide short-term symptom relief.

      Management of Graves’ Disease

      Despite numerous trials, there is no clear consensus on the optimal management of Graves’ disease. Treatment options include anti-thyroid drugs (ATDs), radioiodine treatment, and surgery. In recent years, ATDs have become the most popular first-line therapy for Graves’ disease. This is particularly true for patients with significant symptoms of thyrotoxicosis or those at risk of hyperthyroid complications, such as elderly patients or those with cardiovascular disease.

      To control symptoms, propranolol is often used to block the adrenergic effects. NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend that patients with Graves’ disease be referred to secondary care for ongoing treatment. If symptoms are not controlled with propranolol, carbimazole should be considered in primary care.

      ATD therapy involves starting carbimazole at 40 mg and gradually reducing it to maintain euthyroidism. This treatment is typically continued for 12-18 months. The major complication of carbimazole therapy is agranulocytosis. An alternative regime, called block-and-replace, involves starting carbimazole at 40 mg and adding thyroxine when the patient is euthyroid. This treatment typically lasts for 6-9 months. Patients following an ATD titration regime have been shown to suffer fewer side-effects than those on a block-and-replace regime.

      Radioiodine treatment is often used in patients who relapse following ATD therapy or are resistant to primary ATD treatment. Contraindications include pregnancy (should be avoided for 4-6 months following treatment) and age < 16 years. Thyroid eye disease is a relative contraindication, as it may worsen the condition. The proportion of patients who become hypothyroid depends on the dose given, but as a rule, the majority of patients will require thyroxine supplementation after 5 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      200.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - An 80-year-old man presents with tiredness and increasing back pain over the last...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man presents with tiredness and increasing back pain over the last few months. A routine blood test shows he is anaemic with a haemoglobin of 98 g/L (130-180). He has also lost half a stone in weight over the past two months. Further blood tests reveal a deterioration in his renal function, with his eGFR dropping from 86 to 59 ml/min. His ESR is elevated at 74 mm/hr and his corrected calcium is 2.8 mmol/L (2.2-2.6). All other blood tests are normal and on examination, he appears systemically well with no signs of spinal cord compression, lymphadenopathy or organomegaly. What is the most appropriate next step in determining a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Send a urine sample for Bence Jones protein

      Explanation:

      Suspected Myeloma Diagnosis

      This patient is presenting with common symptoms of myeloma, including back pain and malaise. However, the early constitutional symptoms can be vague, making it an easy diagnosis to overlook. Further examination reveals anemia, renal impairment, and elevated ESR and calcium levels, all of which point towards myeloma. Despite normal serum protein electrophoresis, it is important to note that one-third of myeloma patients have positive urine Bence Jones protein. Therefore, the next step in establishing a diagnosis is to test the patient’s urine for Bence Jones protein. According to NICE guidelines, protein electrophoresis and a Bence-Jones protein urine test should be considered urgently within 48 hours if the presentation is consistent with possible myeloma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      140.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 48-year-old man presents to the hypertension clinic with a recent diagnosis of...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man presents to the hypertension clinic with a recent diagnosis of high blood pressure. He has been on ramipril for three months, but despite titration up to 10 mg od, his blood pressure remains elevated at 156/92 mmHg.

      What would be the most suitable course of action for further management?

      Your Answer: Switch ramipril to losartan

      Correct Answer: Add amlodipine OR indapamide

      Explanation:

      To improve control of hypertension in patients who are already taking an ACE inhibitor or an angiotensin receptor blocker, the 2019 NICE guidelines recommend adding either a calcium channel blocker (such as amlodipine) or a thiazide-like diuretic (such as indapamide). This is a change from previous guidelines, which only recommended adding a calcium channel blocker in this situation.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      90
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - You diagnosed a 12-year-old patient with scabies recently. She reports finishing the treatment...

    Incorrect

    • You diagnosed a 12-year-old patient with scabies recently. She reports finishing the treatment course of permethrin 5% cream 1 week ago but is still itching. She has not noticed new burrows. On further questioning, she appears to have followed the full two-week course as prescribed.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: No intervention, watchful waiting

      Correct Answer: Oral ivermectin 20 mg

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Scabies

      The itch of scabies can persist for up to 4 weeks after treatment. If no new burrows appear, monitoring the symptoms is reasonable. Malathion aqueous 0.5% is an alternative treatment for patients who cannot use permethrin or if the permethrin treatment fails. Oral ivermectin is a potential option for crusted scabies that doesn’t respond to topical treatment alone. It is important to note that there is no need to repeat permethrin treatment in this case, and there is no 10% formulation available. Remember to consult with a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      80.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 35-year-old female who saw the nurse a few days ago complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female who saw the nurse a few days ago complaining of longstanding lethargy and vague abdominal pains comes to see you. She has lost a little weight and has also been feeling tearful and 'not herself'. The nurse arranged some blood tests and booked her in with you for review.

      She has a past medical history of asthma, migraine and vitiligo. She doesn't take any regular medications and her only recent prescription is for a salbutamol inhaler which she uses infrequently.

      On examination, you notice that her palmar creases are pigmented as is her buccal mucosa. Her blood pressure is 108/88 mmHg sitting and 88/62 mmHg standing. Otherwise you cannot elicit any other focal findings.

      The blood tests show:
      Sodium 131 mmol/L (137-144)
      Potassium 5.6 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      Urea 11.1 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      Creatinine 96 µmol/L (60-110)
      Random glucose 3.1

      What is the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Addison's disease

      Correct Answer: Cushing's syndrome

      Explanation:

      A 45-year-old patient with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is currently taking sulfasalazine, paracetamol, and ibuprofen for their condition. They have been experiencing low mood and have tried non-pharmaceutical interventions with little success. The patient now reports that their depressive symptoms are worsening, prompting the GP to consider starting them on an antidepressant.

      Which antidepressant would pose the highest risk of causing a GI bleed in this patient, necessitating the use of a protein pump inhibitor as a precautionary measure?

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      96.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 68-year-old man with type 2 diabetic attends annual review at the GP...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man with type 2 diabetic attends annual review at the GP practice.

      His current treatment consists of: aspirin 75 mg OD, ramipril 10 mg OD, simvastatin 40 mg ON, metformin 1g BD, pioglitazone 45 mg OD and glibenclamide 15 mg OD.

      He complains of episodes of blurred vision and feeling lightheaded. He has taken his blood sugar during one of these episodes and it was 2.3.

      Which one of his medicines is the most likely cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Glibenclamide

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hypoglycaemic Episodes and Sulphonylureas

      This gentleman is experiencing hypoglycaemic episodes that are causing symptoms of blurred vision and lightheadedness. The most likely cause of these episodes is the sulphonylurea he is taking. Sulphonylureas stimulate insulin secretion, which can cause significant problems with hypoglycaemia. On the other hand, metformin increases insulin sensitivity and reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis, while pioglitazone reduces insulin resistance. Hypoglycaemia is uncommon with pioglitazone, and metformin doesn’t cause it.

      Glibenclamide is a long-acting sulphonylurea that is associated with a greater risk of hypoglycaemia. It should be avoided in the elderly, and shorter-acting alternatives, such as gliclazide, are more appropriate. The above patient is also on the maximum dose, which increases the risk of hypoglycaemia further. Therefore, glibenclamide is the correct answer. Understanding the relationship between hypoglycaemic episodes and sulphonylureas is crucial in managing diabetes and preventing complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      100.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - The School Nurse requests your evaluation of a leg ulcer she has been...

    Incorrect

    • The School Nurse requests your evaluation of a leg ulcer she has been treating, as it is not improving. The ulcer is situated on the lower leg, has an irregular shape, and a purple border that is undermined. The student reports that it began as a tiny red bump on the skin and that the ulcer is causing discomfort. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Malignant melanoma

      Correct Answer: Pyoderma gangrenosum

      Explanation:

      When faced with a skin ulcer that doesn’t heal, it is important to consider pyoderma gangrenosum as a possible diagnosis. This condition typically begins as a red bump that eventually turns into a painful ulcer with a purple, indented border. It is often linked to autoimmune disorders in approximately 50% of cases.

      Understanding Pyoderma Gangrenosum

      Pyoderma gangrenosum is a rare inflammatory disorder that causes painful skin ulceration. While it can affect any part of the skin, it is most commonly found on the lower legs. This condition is classified as a neutrophilic dermatosis, which means that it is characterized by the infiltration of neutrophils in the affected tissue. The exact cause of pyoderma gangrenosum is unknown in 50% of cases, but it can be associated with inflammatory bowel disease, rheumatological conditions, haematological disorders, and other conditions.

      The initial symptoms of pyoderma gangrenosum may start suddenly with a small pustule, red bump, or blood-blister. The skin then breaks down, resulting in an ulcer that is often painful. The edge of the ulcer is typically described as purple, violaceous, and undermined. The ulcer itself may be deep and necrotic and may be accompanied by systemic symptoms such as fever and myalgia. Diagnosis is often made by the characteristic appearance, associations with other diseases, the presence of pathergy, histology results, and ruling out other causes of an ulcer.

      Treatment for pyoderma gangrenosum typically involves oral steroids as first-line therapy due to the potential for rapid progression. Other immunosuppressive therapies, such as ciclosporin and infliximab, may be used in difficult cases. It is important to note that any surgery should be postponed until the disease process is controlled on immunosuppression to avoid worsening the condition. Understanding pyoderma gangrenosum and its potential causes and treatments can help patients and healthcare providers manage this rare and painful condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      101.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 15-year-old girl comes to the clinic complaining of breast pain that has...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old girl comes to the clinic complaining of breast pain that has been ongoing for 4 months. She reports a dull ache in both breasts that occurs 1-2 weeks before her period. She has no other medical issues and is not sexually active.

      Upon examination, there are no palpable breast lumps or skin changes.

      What is the next best course of action in managing this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Advice on a supportive bra and simple analgesia

      Explanation:

      The initial treatment for cyclical mastalgia is a supportive bra and basic pain relief.

      Cyclical breast pain is a common condition that affects up to two-thirds of women, typically beginning two weeks before their menstrual cycle. Breast pain, in the absence of other breast cancer symptoms such as a lump or changes in the nipple or skin, is not linked to breast cancer. Referral to a breast specialist may be considered if the pain is severe enough to impact quality of life or sleep and doesn’t respond to first-line treatment after three months, but there is no need for referral in this case.

      Antibiotics are not recommended for the treatment of cyclical breast pain, as there is no evidence to support their use.

      According to current NICE CKS guidelines, the combined oral contraceptive pill or progesterone-only pill should not be used to treat cyclical breast pain, as there is limited evidence of their effectiveness compared to a placebo.

      The first-line approach to managing cyclical breast pain involves advising patients to wear a supportive bra and take basic pain relief. This is based on expert consensus, which suggests that most cases of cyclical breast pain can be managed conservatively with a watchful-waiting approach, as long as malignancy has been ruled out as a cause.

      Cyclical mastalgia is a common cause of breast pain in younger females. It varies in intensity according to the phase of the menstrual cycle and is not usually associated with point tenderness of the chest wall. The underlying cause is difficult to identify, but focal lesions such as cysts may be treated to provide symptomatic relief. Women should be advised to wear a supportive bra and conservative treatments such as standard oral and topical analgesia may be used. Flaxseed oil and evening primrose oil are sometimes used, but neither are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. If the pain persists after 3 months and affects the quality of life or sleep, referral should be considered. Hormonal agents such as bromocriptine and danazol may be more effective, but many women discontinue these therapies due to adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      102.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 45-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue. Upon examination, his...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue. Upon examination, his blood pressure is found to be 190/110 mmHg. Routine blood tests show:

      - Sodium: 146 mmol/L
      - Potassium: 2.5 mmol/L
      - Bicarbonate: 34 mmol/L
      - Urea: 5.2 mmol/L
      - Creatinine: 78 µmol/L

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Phaeochromocytoma

      Correct Answer: Primary hyperaldosteronism

      Explanation:

      Primary hyperaldosteronism is a condition characterized by hypertension, hypokalaemia, and alkalosis. It was previously believed that adrenal adenoma, also known as Conn’s syndrome, was the most common cause of this condition. However, recent studies have shown that bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia is responsible for up to 70% of cases. It is important to differentiate between the two causes as it determines the appropriate treatment. Adrenal carcinoma is an extremely rare cause of primary hyperaldosteronism.

      To diagnose primary hyperaldosteronism, the 2016 Endocrine Society recommends a plasma aldosterone/renin ratio as the first-line investigation. This test should show high aldosterone levels alongside low renin levels due to negative feedback from sodium retention caused by aldosterone. If the results are positive, a high-resolution CT abdomen and adrenal vein sampling are used to differentiate between unilateral and bilateral sources of aldosterone excess. If the CT is normal, adrenal venous sampling (AVS) can be used to distinguish between unilateral adenoma and bilateral hyperplasia.

      The management of primary hyperaldosteronism depends on the underlying cause. Adrenal adenoma is treated with surgery, while bilateral adrenocortical hyperplasia is managed with an aldosterone antagonist such as spironolactone. It is important to accurately diagnose and manage primary hyperaldosteronism to prevent complications such as cardiovascular disease and stroke.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      44.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 68-year-old man presents to the clinic with complaints of fatigue and widespread...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents to the clinic with complaints of fatigue and widespread body aches. He reports experiencing stiffness and difficulty reaching items above eye level, particularly in the morning. His ESR is elevated at 72.

      What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Correct Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica

      Explanation:

      Elevated ESR and its association with inflammatory diseases and malignancy

      ESR, or erythrocyte sedimentation rate, is a blood test that measures the rate at which red blood cells settle in a tube over a period of time. Elevated ESR levels are commonly seen in inflammatory disease processes such as rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, and polymyalgia rheumatica, which are associated with other raised inflammatory markers like fibrinogen. It is also seen in malignancy, particularly myeloma.

      Apart from these conditions, ESR tends to increase with age, with the normal ESR being roughly half of the age. Females also tend to have higher ESR levels.

      When a patient presents with vague bony aches, a markedly elevated ESR may suggest myeloma or polymyalgia rheumatica. Polymyalgia rheumatica predominantly affects the shoulder girdle, while systemic lupus erythematosus has a higher incidence in women. Rheumatoid arthritis, on the other hand, usually presents with swollen joints in the hands and feet and morning stiffness.

      In summary, elevated ESR levels can be indicative of various inflammatory diseases and malignancy, and should be interpreted in conjunction with other clinical findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      44
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - The father of a 2-year-old visits the pediatrician's office to inquire about the...

    Incorrect

    • The father of a 2-year-old visits the pediatrician's office to inquire about the latest childhood immunisation schedule in the UK. He expresses apprehension about the 4-in-1 vaccine and its potential to overwhelm his child. Can you provide information on the vaccines included in this shot?

      Your Answer: Diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio, MenACWY and hepatitis B

      Correct Answer: Diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio, haemophilus influenza type b and hepatitis B

      Explanation:

      Starting from 2017, the hepatitis B vaccination has been incorporated into the standard immunisation schedule in the UK, which now includes the 6-in-1 vaccine. Previously, the 5-in-1 vaccine comprised diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio and haemophilus influenza type b. The hepatitis B vaccine is now administered alongside these at 8, 12 and 16 weeks after birth.

      The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at specific intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, PCV, and Men B vaccines are given. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 Preschool booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.

      It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine is also offered to new students up to the age of 25 years at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine, while students going to university or college for the first time should contact their GP to have the vaccine before the start of the academic year.

      The Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued as there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 19 - A 25-year-old factory worker is brought in by her boyfriend. He says that...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old factory worker is brought in by her boyfriend. He says that she was suicidal when they argued after she accidentally scratched his car while parking.

      There have been no recent major life events and there is no mention of any suicide attempt in her past medical history. She drinks six cans of beer over the weekend and is a former smoker.

      In her free time, she enjoys singing karaoke at the local bar with her friends. She still lives with her parents, but she and her boyfriend are considering moving in together.

      Which of the following is a risk factor for suicide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Employed

      Explanation:

      Enquiring about Suicide Risk Factors in Depressed Patients

      When speaking with patients who are experiencing depression, it is important to always ask about suicide. Even if depression is not explicitly mentioned, it is helpful to identify any potential risk factors for suicide in the patient’s history. One example of a risk factor listed in this case is the patient’s low socio-economic status. Other risk factors include advancing age, male gender, recent major life events, unemployment, living alone, previous suicide attempts, and concurrent mental disorders.

      To identify high-risk patients, clinicians may use formal assessments such as the PATHOS self-harm assessment. This tool is used after an overdose attempt to identify patients who are at a higher risk for suicide. By enquiring about suicide risk factors and using appropriate assessments, clinicians can better identify and support patients who may be at risk for self-harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 20 - A 17-year-old male with uncontrolled asthma on beta agonist therapy is started on...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old male with uncontrolled asthma on beta agonist therapy is started on a steroid inhaler.

      What is the most probable side effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dental abscess

      Explanation:

      Inhaled Corticosteroids vs Oral Corticosteroids

      Inhaled corticosteroids are a preferred treatment option for respiratory conditions such as asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) due to their fewer systemic effects. Unlike oral corticosteroids, inhaled corticosteroids do not cause ulceration and glucose intolerance. However, they may cause local adverse effects such as dysphonia, which is a hoarse or raspy voice. It is important to weigh the benefits and risks of each type of corticosteroid and work with a healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for individual needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular Health (3/4) 75%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal Health (1/2) 50%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (1/1) 100%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (0/1) 0%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (1/4) 25%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (0/2) 0%
Gynaecology And Breast (1/1) 100%
Children And Young People (0/1) 0%
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