-
Question 1
Correct
-
Which of the given medical conditions does NOT produce adrenal insufficiency?
Your Answer: Hypoparathyroidism
Explanation:Adrenal insufficiency is a serious medical condition that leads to inadequate secretion of corticosteroids. There are three main types of adrenal insufficiency: primary, secondary, and tertiary, based on the location of the abnormality. Primary adrenal insufficiency is caused by any pathology located inside the adrenal glands. The most common cause of primary adrenal insufficiency is Addison’s disease, which is an autoimmune condition. Adrenoleukodystrophy is an X-linked neurodegenerative disease that also causes primary adrenal insufficiency. Secondary adrenal insufficiency is caused by any pathological impairment of the pituitary gland or the hypothalamus. The important causes of secondary adrenal insufficiency include iatrogenic (steroid use), pituitary tumours like craniopharyngioma, and conditions leading to panhypopituitarism like Sheehan’s syndrome. Tertiary adrenal insufficiency is caused by the deficiency of the corticotropin-releasing hormone. Hypoparathyroidism does not cause adrenal insufficiency.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
A 10-year-old boy presents to the hospital with an 18-month history of intermittent eye blinking, facial grimacing, grunting, and sniffing. He has enough control to suppress them at times, but not always. They are happening at school, and his classmates are starting to notice.Which among the following would be the best initial step in the treatment of the child?
Your Answer: Haloperidol
Correct Answer: Reassure and observe
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for the above clinical scenario, of a child presenting with motor and vocal tics for more than a year is highly suggestive of a diagnosis of Tourette syndrome. The symptoms often wax and wane, and although several different drugs are available, none are entirely useful, and side-effects are relatively common. With these considerations in mind, it is essential to try and avoid treatment initially as the tics can spontaneously improve with time. Informing the teacher and class about the nature of the condition and allowing the child ‘time out’ to tic might help to avoid the need for medication.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
Tall stature is NOT a characteristic finding in which of the following conditions?
Your Answer: Beckwith-Weidman syndrome
Correct Answer: Laurence-Moon Syndrome
Explanation:A height that is above the 97th percentile for age and sex is described as a tall stature. The most common cause of tall stature is constitutional or familial, followed by nutritional causes. Hormonal causes of tall stature include hyperthyroidism, growth hormone excess, and precocious puberty. Some important chromosomal and syndromic causes of tall stature are Klinefelter’s syndrome, homocystinuria, Marfan’s syndrome, Sotos syndrome, Beckwith-Weidman syndrome, and Weaver syndrome. Laurence-Moon syndrome is an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by short stature, retinitis pigmentosa, and spastic paraplegia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 16 year old previously well male presents with a 4 day history of fever, lethargy and a generalized macular rash. There is no significant previous medical history and the patient has not travelled abroad either. Vitals are as follows: Temp: 38.5BP: 125/75mmHgPulse: 100/min On auscultation the chest was clear and no heart murmur was heard. Examination also reveals a non blanching widespread macular rash over the chest and abdomen. There is swelling of interphalangeal joints of both hands and feet associated with mild tenderness. Lymph nodes are palpable over the supraclavicular, axillary and inguinal areas. Abdominal examination reveals palpable mass on both right and left hypochondrium. Lab results are given below:Haemoglobin (Hb) 13.5 g/dlWhite cell count (WCC) 14.0 x 109/lPlatelets 380 x 109/lSodium 145 mmol/lPotassium 4.8 mmol/lCreatinine 89 ÎĽmol/lRheumatoid factor NegativeAntinuclear antibody NegativeAnti-dsDNA NegativeASO titre Not detectedElectrocardiogram (ECG) Sinus rhythmWhat is the most likely underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Systemic Still's disease
Explanation:People with Systemic Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (also known as Stills disease) can have recurrent fevers, a macular rash, joint pain, joint deformities, an enlarged liver and/or spleen, and can occasionally have polyserositis, lung involvement or pericardial effusions. Rheumatoid factor and antinuclear antibodies are usually negative. Treatment is with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and the prognosis is better than for adult rheumatoid arthritis.In pauciarticular Still’s disease, antinuclear antibodies are present. Large joints are affected and most patients develop classic features of seronegative spondylarthritis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
There is a measure of dispersion of a set of data from its mean. Which of following is the best term which can describe the above?
Your Answer: Standard deviation (root mean square deviation)
Explanation:Standard deviation is defined as the measure of dispersion of a set of data from its mean. It measures the absolute variability of a distribution; the higher the dispersion or variability, the greater is the standard deviation and greater will be the magnitude of the deviation of the value from their mean.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A child presents with lymphoedema. Clinical examination reveals she has widely spaced nipples and a systolic murmur. Her femoral pulses are absent. Her mother admits she did not have any scans during gestation. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Williams syndrome
Correct Answer: Turner syndrome
Explanation:Turner syndrome is a genetic disease that affects females. It presents with wide-spread nipples, low hairline, lymphoedema, short 4th metacarpals, high-arched palate, cardiac problems, and horseshoe kidneys.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A healthy 12-month-old infant should be able to do which of the following?
Your Answer: Wave bye -bye
Explanation:Milestones of 12-month-old child are as follows:Social and Emotional- Is shy or nervous with strangers- Cries when mom or dad leaves- Has favourite things and people camera- Shows fear in some situations- Hands you a book when he wants to hear a story- Repeats sounds or actions to get attention- Puts out arm or leg to help with dressing – Plays games such as peek-a-booÅ¥ and pat-a-cakeÅ¥ Language/Communication- Responds to simple spoken requests- Uses simple gestures, like shaking head noÅ¥ or waving bye-byeÅ¥- Makes sounds with changes in tone (sounds more like speech)- Says mamaÅ¥ and dadaÅ¥ and exclamations like uh-oh!Å¥- Tries to say words you sayCognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving)- Explores things in different ways, like shaking, banging, throwing- Finds hidden things easily- Looks at the right picture or thing when it’s named- Copies gestures- Starts to use things correctly; for example, drinks from a cup, brushes hair- Bangs two things together- Puts things in a container, takes things out of a container- Lets things go without help- Pokes with index (pointer) finger – Follows simple directions like pick up the toyÅ¥Movement/Physical Development- Gets to a sitting position without help – Pulls up to stand, walks holding on to furniture (cruisingÅ¥)- May take a few steps without holding on- May stand alone
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
A 14-year-old girl presents with primary amenorrhoea. She is an athlete who is currently training for a national athletics championship.What is the best treatment option for her?
Your Answer: Adequate diet and observation
Explanation:Intensive physical training and participation in competitive sports during childhood and early adolescence may affect athletes’ pubertal development.Female athletes who do not begin secondary sexual development by the age of 14 or menstruation by the age of 16 warrant a comprehensive evaluation and treatment.Since she is still 14, adequate diet and observation are enough.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A lethargic 2-month child was brought in with symptoms of diarrhoea and vomiting for 6 days. What is the appropriate initial investigations?
Your Answer: Random blood sugar
Correct Answer: Urea and electrolytes
Explanation:The most commonly requested biochemistry tests for renal function are the urea and electrolytes. They supply important information when it comes to homeostasis and excretion. Glomerular filtration rate is also the essential standard marker of kidney health and is assessed by checking the creatinine levels. In this case as the child has lost fluids and electrolytes, this test will indicate the extent of the loss and allow for more appropriate replacement.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Fluid And Electrolytes
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
A 14-day-old baby presented in NICU with signs and symptoms of hydrocephaly, seizures and chorioretinitis. Which of the following infectious agents is most probably the cause in a case like this?
Your Answer: Toxoplasmosis
Explanation:Maternal and fetal toxoplasma infection may be avoided by advising pregnant women to wear gloves when gardening or handling cat litter and to cook meat thoroughly. Affected babies are treated with pyrimethamine, sulfadiazine, and folic acid.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
What is the risk of an affected mother's son inheriting the disease condition in an X-liked dominant condition?
Your Answer: 50%
Explanation:In the pattern of mendelian inheritance, X- linked dominant inheritance means that all who inherit the X chromosome will present with the condition. In the case of maternal x-linked inheritance, sons and daughters have an equal chance of inheriting the condition as there is a 50% chance of inheriting the defective X chromosome from their mother as opposed to a non affected X chromosome from their father. However, in paternal X-linked dominant inheritance, sons will be unaffected as they inherit a Y chromosome from their father while daughters are sure to inherit the defective X-chromosome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 6 year old boy has a family history of familial adenomatous polyposis. What ocular manifestation in this boy would indicate that he has inherited the condition?
Your Answer: Posterior embryotoxon
Correct Answer: Congenital hypertrophy of the retinal pigment epithelium
Explanation:Congenital hypertrophy of the retinal pigment epithelium is one of FAP’s extra-intestinal manifestations. It appears in early childhood and affects an estimated 90% of those with FAP.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
-
-
Question 13
Correct
-
Today was Jacob's birthday. This morning he woke up very excited and picked out a pair of shorts and t-shirt in his favourite colour, blue, with matching blue sandals. He brushed his teeth with supervision, and used the toilet by himself. He greeted each of his friends at the door with an excited jump. At the party he ran around and jumped on the small trampoline in the backyard with his friends. He tried to skip like some if his friends, but he wasn't able to do it as evenly. How old is Jacob likely to be?
Your Answer: 4 years of age
Explanation:Jacob is likely to be four years old as demonstrated by his activities throughout the day. Most 4 year olds are able to run well, jump and hop, but find skipping a little more difficult. They are able to brush their teeth and dress themselves with supervision, and go to the toilet alone.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
An 11-year-old boy presents to the emergency department after being assaulted with a baseball bat. The soft tissue around his left eye shows significant swelling that obstructs the child's vision. A CT scan shows a fracture at the floor of the left orbit. This injury will most likely lead to an abnormal communication between the orbit and which of the following areas of the face?
Your Answer: Sphenoid sinus
Correct Answer: Maxillary sinus
Explanation:The injury described in question leads to an abnormal communication between the orbit and the ipsilateral maxillary sinus – this is termed as a blow-out fracture of the orbit.The maxillary sinuses are found in the maxillary bone, inferior to the orbit. They are the largest of the paranasal air sinuses. The maxillary bone forms the floor of the orbit. This layer of bone separates the orbit from the maxillary sinus. As such, fractures of the floor of the orbit can be associated with herniation of the orbital contents into the maxillary sinus. Other options:- The ethmoidal air cells are a collection of smaller air cells in the ethmoid bone. They lie lateral to the anterior superior nasal cavity. They are separated from the orbit by a very thin plate of ethmoid bone called the lamina papyracea, which is found on the medial wall of the orbit. The thin nature of this bone means it is commonly fractured in orbital trauma. However, this is the incorrect answer to the above question as a communication between the ethmoidal air cells, and the orbit is associated with fractures of the medial wall of the orbit, not the floor. – The frontal sinuses are found in the frontal bones, above the orbits on each side of the head. A large portion of the roof of the orbit is composed of the frontal bone and separates the orbit from the frontal sinus. Fractures of the roof of the orbit can be associated with communication between the frontal sinus and orbit. The frontal bones are strong, and so fracture is associated with high-impact anterior trauma, such as a road traffic accident. – The sphenoid sinuses are found in the posterior portion of the roof of the nasal cavity. The pituitary gland lies nestled within the hypophyseal fossa, with only a thin wall of bone separating it from the sphenoid sinus below. As such, neurosurgeons can gain access to the pituitary gland via the sphenoid sinus, in a procedure called transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. – The nasal cavity extends from the nares to the nasopharynx. It is found more medial and inferior than the orbits. It does not lie adjacent to the orbit at any point and so is unlikely to be involved in an orbital fracture.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A 16-year-old girl is brought to the emergency by her parents who report that she has had multiple collapsing episodes over the past week. Each time she would collapse with the eyes shut and regain consciousness after 2 to 5 min with general weakness. The collapse is not followed by a post ictal state. The patient feels well and normal between these episodes. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cardiogenic syncope
Correct Answer: Vasovagal syncope
Explanation:A vasovagal episode or vasovagal syncope is the most common form of reflex syncope. Reflex syncope is a general term used to describe types of syncope resulting from a failure in autoregulation of blood pressure, and ultimately, in cerebral perfusion pressure resulting in transient loss of consciousness. The mechanisms responsible for this are complex and involve both depression of cardiac output as well as a decrease in vascular tone. Other types of reflex syncope include carotid sinus syncope and situational syncope, for instance, cough or micturition syncope. Vasovagal syncope may be triggered by pain or emotional upset, although frequently a specific trigger cannot be identified.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
-
-
Question 16
Correct
-
Which of the given electrolyte imbalances is a clinical feature of adrenal insufficiency?
Your Answer: Hyponatraemia
Explanation:Adrenal insufficiency is a serious medical condition that leads to inadequate secretion of corticosteroids. The consequences of this deficiency are numerous electrolyte and acid-base imbalances, which include hyponatremia, hyperkalaemia, hypercalcemia, hypoglycaemia, metabolic alkalosis, and dehydration.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 17
Correct
-
An infant born at term presents with low blood sugar and a history of poor feeding. She was born with exomphalos and a large left arm. What is the most probable condition that the baby is going to develop?
Your Answer: Wilms' tumour
Explanation:The clinical picture suggests that the baby has Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome, which predisposes the individual to cancer. The most common childhood tumour that a person with Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome may develop is Wilms’ tumour. Typical features include: macrosomia, asymmetric limb growth, macroglossia, neonatal hypoglycaemia, umbilical hernias or other abdominal wall deformities.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 6 week old girl presents with back arching and crying. She regurgitates milk after a feed, especially when laying on her back. Doctors suspect gastro-oesophageal reflux (GOR). What is the next most appropriate step?
Your Answer: Trial of Omeprazole
Correct Answer: Reassure the parents
Explanation:Most experts suggest that parents reassurance in case of infantile gastro-oesophageal reflux (GOR) is a sufficient initial measure that involves education about regurgitation and lifestyle changes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 19
Correct
-
The severity of psoriasis can be assessed using which of the following tools?
Your Answer: Psoriasis Area and Severity Index- PASI
Explanation:Psoriasis is a chronic inflammatory skin disease that is mainly due to the interplay between keratinocytes, dermal vascular cells, and antigen-presenting cells. There are five main types of psoriasis based on the type and severity of the lesions it produces. A useful tool to determine the extent and severity of psoriasis is the Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) score, which takes into account the percentage of a specific area affected by psoriasis in combination with severity, which in turn is assessed by the presence of desquamation, induration, and erythema.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
An 8 year old male child of Afro-Caribbean descent complains of acute abdominal pain. Clinical examination reveals a soft abdomen. The boy is tachycardic and has an Hb of 6 g/dl. His mother says she noticed fresh rectal bleeding. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Sickle Cell Crisis
Correct Answer: Meckel's Diverticulum
Explanation:Compared to the rest of the options, Meckel’s diverticulum with ectopic gastric mucosa seems to be the most probable diagnosis, as it can lead to fresh bleeding.Fresh red bleeding can be caused by haemorrhoids, polyps or a massive GI bleed.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
-
-
Question 21
Correct
-
A 16-year-old boy is being treated with ADH for diabetes insipidus. His blood results show:fasting plasma glucose level: 6 mmol/l (3-6)sodium 148 mmol/l (137-144)potassium 4.5 mmol/l (3.5-4.9)calcium 2.8 mmol/l (2.2-2.6). However, he still complains of polyuria, polydipsia and nocturia.What could be the most probable cause?
Your Answer: Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
Explanation:Diabetes insipidus (DI) is defined as the passage of large volumes (>3 L/24 hr) of dilute urine (< 300 mOsm/kg). It has the following 2 major forms:Central (neurogenic, pituitary, or neurohypophyseal) DI, characterized by decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH; also referred to as arginine vasopressin [AVP])Nephrogenic DI, characterized by decreased ability to concentrate urine because of resistance to ADH action in the kidney.The boy most probably has nephrogenic diabetes insidious (DI) not central DI so he is not responding to the ADH treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 22
Correct
-
Which of the following dermatological conditions is not recognised to be associated with Crohn's disease?
Your Answer: Xanthomas
Explanation:CUTANEOUS DISORDERS OR DERMATOSIS ASSOCIATED WITH IBD- Psoriasis- Secondary amyloidosis- Vitiligo- Acquired epidermolysis bullosaIn some cases, non-granulomatous skin disorders occur as a reaction to the intestinal disease. These include:- Pyoderma gangrenosum- Neutrophilic dermatosis / Sweet syndrome, typically with pustules- Pyodermatitis-pyostomatitis vegetans, a purulent erosive dermatosis characterised by snail-track ulcers- Erythema multiforme- Erythema nodosum- Acneiform eruptions including nodulocystic acne, hidradenitis suppurativa and folliculitis- Palisaded neutrophilic and granulomatous dermatitis- Necrotizing and granulomatous small vessel vasculitis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
Which of the following conditions is rarely associated with hyposplenism?
Your Answer: Sickle cell disease
Correct Answer: Myxoedema
Explanation:Hyposplenism usually occurs after the surgical removal of the spleen or in pathological processes where the splenic tissue is replaced with abnormal tissue. It is often associated with diseases such as sickle cell disease, Coeliac disease, SLE and Dermatitis Herpetiformis. Myxoedema however bears no known association with hyposplenism. Patients with hyposplenism are at risk of fulminant bacterial infection.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
-
-
Question 24
Correct
-
A 12-year-old boy is brought to the hospital following a road traffic accident. A diagnosis of splenic laceration was made, and a splenectomy was performed. Which among the following blood film findings is not a feature associated with hyposplenism?
Your Answer: Thrombocytopenia
Explanation:Hyposplenism is associated with thrombocytosis. Other features of hyposplenism are: – Howell-Jolly bodies and acanthocytosis, occurring secondary to haemolysis.- Pappenheimer bodies: These are granular deposits of iron found within the RBCs.- Lymphocytosis and monocytosis.Causes for hyposplenism include:- Congenital asplenia- Iatrogenic splenectomy: Following trauma or treatment for ITP, thalassemia or spherocytosis).- Autosplenectomy: Secondary to sickle cell anaemia, coeliac disease, dermatitis herpetiformis, essential thrombocythemia or splenic arterial thrombosis).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
-
-
Question 25
Correct
-
Baby Jasmine is 3 months old. At this age she should be exhibiting which of the following hearing and speech milestones?
Your Answer: Crying when uncomfortable and annoyed
Explanation:By the age of 3 months Jasmine should startle to loud noises, recognise her parents voices and turn to them when they are speaking, and should quiet down or smile at the sound of a familiar voice when crying. She should also cry when she is uncomfortable or irritated. By the time Jasmine is 9 months old she would begin to understand and respond to the word ‘no’ as well as other easy commands. She would be able vocalise and babble with repetitive sounds, and imitate adults’ playful sounds. She would be much less likely startled by loud noises.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 10-year-old girl was brought to the emergency department following profuse vomiting. Further investigations revealed a diagnosis of pyloric stenosis. About a month ago, she was admitted after she took an overdose of her mother's medication. Which of the following drugs can lead to her current presentation?
Your Answer: Citalopram
Correct Answer: Iron
Explanation:Based on the history and clinical presentation, she most likely has iron toxicity.Iron can cause scarring of the gut mucosa. This explains her pyloric stenosis. This typically occurs at the pylorus as this is where iron tablets tend to pool and cause maximal tissue damage.Other options:- Citalopram: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) ingestion rarely causes serious consequences. It can rarely lead to serotonin syndrome (autonomic instability, mental status change, and increased neuromuscular tone).- Ibuprofen: While it may cause gastritis, ibuprofen does not cause pyloric/intestinal stenosis.- Thyroxine: An overdose of thyroxine will cause features of hyperthyroidism which are not present in the patient in question.- Zinc: High doses of zinc can cause abdominal cramps, nausea, vomiting and diarrhoea.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
Advanced paternal age is a risk factor for which of the following diseases?
Your Answer: Duplex kidney
Correct Answer: Retinoblastoma
Explanation:Advancing paternal age has been linked with lower quality sperm leading to a reduction in overall fertility and an increase in the occurrence of various medical disorders in the fetus. Advanced paternal age has been implicated as a risk factor for diseases like retinoblastoma, achondroplasia, autism spectrum disorders, schizophrenia, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. Down’s syndrome is mostly considered a consequence of advanced maternal age, but advanced paternal age has also been implicated as a risk factor.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
Mature human milk contains how many calories?
Your Answer: 60kcal/100ml
Correct Answer: 70kcal/100ml
Explanation:Human breast milk composition changes with the progressive age of the infant. Breastmilk produced for a preterm baby often has a higher caloric content than breastmilk for a term baby. After the production of colostrum in the first days of life, the milk continues to mature. by week 4-6 milk can be considered fully mature. The average calories found in mature breastmilk are about 70kcal/100ml
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nutrition
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
Which of the following congenital diseases is NOT associated with raised alpha-fetoprotein levels?
Your Answer: Congenital nephrotic syndrome
Correct Answer: Down's syndrome
Explanation:Alpha-fetoprotein has significance primarily as a tumour marker, but maternal levels are frequently measured to detect some of the congenital abnormalities, in which the levels of alpha-fetoprotein are either increased or decreased. The conditions associated with raised alpha-fetoprotein levels are: spina bifida, anencephaly, myelomeningocele, oesophageal atresia, congenital nephrotic syndrome, and turner’s syndrome. Down’s syndrome or trisomy 21 is associated with low levels of maternal alpha-fetoprotein.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 14-year-old girl presents with short stature, webbed neck and primary amenorrhoea.Given the likely clinical diagnosis, which hormone replacement is most crucial over the longer term?
Your Answer: Progesterone
Correct Answer: Oestrogen
Explanation:This girl most likely has Turner syndrome (TS) also known as 45,X, a condition in which a female is partly or completely missing an X chromosome. Signs and symptoms vary among those affected. Often, a short and webbed neck, low-set ears, low hairline at the back of the neck, short stature, and swollen hands and feet are seen at birth. Typically, they are without menstrual periods, do not develop breasts, and are unable to have children. Heart defects, diabetes, and low thyroid hormone occur more frequently. Most people with TS have normal intelligence. Many, however, have troubles with spatial visualization such as that needed for mathematics. Vision and hearing problems occur more often. Turner syndrome is not usually inherited from a person’s parents. No environmental risks are known and the mother’s age does not play a role. As a chromosomal condition, there is no cure for Turner syndrome. However, much can be done to minimize the symptoms including prescribing growth hormone, either alone or with a low dose of androgen, and oestrogen replacement therapy which is crucial long term for maintaining good bone integrity, cardiovascular health and tissue health
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)