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  • Question 1 - Mrs. Jane is a 55-year-old woman who visits her GP with a complaint...

    Incorrect

    • Mrs. Jane is a 55-year-old woman who visits her GP with a complaint of frank haematuria that has been present for a week. She also reports a persistent dry cough and dyspnoea that has been bothering her for the past 3 months, along with a long-standing history of sinusitis and nosebleeds. During the examination, the patient is found to have a saddle-shaped nasal deformity and bilateral crepitations on auscultation. What is the specific antibody that is most closely associated with this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Antimitochondrial antibody (AMA)

      Correct Answer: Cytoplasmic antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (cANCA)

      Explanation:

      ANCA Associated Vasculitis: Common Findings and Management

      Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA) are associated with small-vessel vasculitides such as granulomatosis with polyangiitis, eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis, and microscopic polyangiitis. ANCA associated vasculitis is more common in older individuals and presents with renal impairment, respiratory symptoms, systemic symptoms, and sometimes a vasculitic rash or ear, nose, and throat symptoms. First-line investigations include urinalysis, blood tests for renal function and inflammation, ANCA testing, and chest x-ray. There are two main types of ANCA – cytoplasmic (cANCA) and perinuclear (pANCA) – with varying levels found in different conditions. ANCA associated vasculitis should be managed by specialist teams and the mainstay of treatment is immunosuppressive therapy.

      ANCA associated vasculitis is a group of small-vessel vasculitides that are associated with ANCA. These conditions are more common in older individuals and present with renal impairment, respiratory symptoms, systemic symptoms, and sometimes a vasculitic rash or ear, nose, and throat symptoms. To diagnose ANCA associated vasculitis, first-line investigations include urinalysis, blood tests for renal function and inflammation, ANCA testing, and chest x-ray. There are two main types of ANCA – cytoplasmic (cANCA) and perinuclear (pANCA) – with varying levels found in different conditions. ANCA associated vasculitis should be managed by specialist teams and the mainstay of treatment is immunosuppressive therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 72-year-old patient comes to see the General Practitioner with his daughter. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old patient comes to see the General Practitioner with his daughter. She expresses concern that her father has been acting differently lately. Once the daughter leaves the room, he confides in the doctor that the woman who came with him is not his daughter, but an imposter. He firmly believes this and cannot be convinced otherwise.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cotard syndrome

      Correct Answer: Capgras syndrome

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Delusional Disorders

      Delusional disorders are a group of mental illnesses characterized by false beliefs that persist despite evidence to the contrary. Here are some of the different types of delusional disorders:

      1. Capgras syndrome: Patients believe that a loved one has been replaced by an exact double.

      2. Cotard syndrome: Patients have nihilistic delusions, such as believing that they or parts of their body are dead or decaying.

      3. Othello syndrome: Patients believe that their partner is cheating on them, despite no proof.

      4. De Clerambault syndrome: Patients believe that someone famous is deeply in love with them.

      It is important to note that these disorders are rare and require professional diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - An 80-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with a Pretibial laceration and...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with a Pretibial laceration and skin flap after injuring her leg on furniture at home. She is currently taking prednisolone for polymyalgia rheumatica. What is the optimal approach to managing this injury?

      Your Answer: Clean the laceration and apply a non adherent dressing

      Correct Answer: Clean then steristrip the laceration

      Explanation:

      Management of Pretibial Lacerations in Different Patient Populations

      In managing Pretibial lacerations, the approach may vary depending on the patient’s age and skin condition. For young patients with good skin, suturing with non-absorbable sutures is usually done and removed after seven to 10 days. However, for elderly patients with thin skin or those taking warfarin or steroids, suturing may not be possible due to fragile skin. In this case, the wound is cleaned thoroughly and steristripped meticulously to promote skin healing. A non-adherent dressing and light bandage are applied, and the patient is advised to elevate the leg.

      After a week, patients should be reviewed to monitor the wound’s progress. It is important to note that Pretibial lacerations may take several months to heal, and some may require skin grafting procedures. By tailoring the management approach to the patient’s specific needs, optimal wound healing can be achieved.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 42-year-old man with advanced lung disease due to cystic fibrosis (CF) is...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man with advanced lung disease due to cystic fibrosis (CF) is being evaluated for a possible lung transplant. What respiratory pathogen commonly found in CF patients would make him ineligible for transplantation if present?

      Your Answer: Haemophilus influenzae

      Correct Answer: Burkholderia cenocepacia

      Explanation:

      Common Respiratory Pathogens in Cystic Fibrosis and Their Impact on Lung Transplantation

      Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a genetic disorder that affects the respiratory and digestive systems. Patients with CF are prone to chronic respiratory infections, which can lead to accelerated lung function decline and poor outcomes following lung transplantation. Here are some common respiratory pathogens in CF and their impact on lung transplantation:

      Burkholderia cenocepacia: This Gram-negative bacterium is associated with poor outcomes following lung transplantation and renders a patient ineligible for transplantation in the UK.

      Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA): This Gram-positive bacterium is resistant to many antibiotics but is not usually a contraindication to lung transplantation. Attempts at eradicating the organism from the airways should be made.

      Pseudomonas aeruginosa: This Gram-negative bacterium is the dominant respiratory pathogen in adults with CF and can cause accelerated lung function decline. However, it is not a contraindication to transplantation.

      Aspergillus fumigatus: This fungus is commonly isolated from sputum cultures of CF patients and may be associated with allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis. Its presence does not necessarily mandate treatment and is not a contraindication to transplantation.

      Haemophilus influenzae: This Gram-negative bacterium is commonly seen in CF, particularly in children. It is not associated with accelerated lung function decline and is not a contraindication to transplantation.

      In summary, respiratory infections are a common complication of CF and can impact the success of lung transplantation. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor and manage these infections to optimize patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      8.2
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  • Question 5 - A 67-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of sudden and severe pain...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of sudden and severe pain in his right knee. He has never experienced this before. Upon examination, the joint fluid is extracted and sent to the lab for analysis. The rheumatology team suspects pseudogout. What characteristics can help differentiate this condition from gout?

      Your Answer: Chondrocalcinosis

      Explanation:

      Chondrocalcinosis is a useful factor in distinguishing between pseudogout and gout. Linear calcifications of the meniscus and articular cartilage seen on a knee x-ray are indicative of pseudogout, but not particularly associated with gout. Therefore, the presence of chondrocalcinosis can be used to differentiate between the two conditions.

      Age is not a determining factor in the diagnosis of gout or pseudogout. In this case, the patient’s age of 64 years does not provide any significant information to sway the diagnosis in either direction.

      The presence of crystals is not a distinguishing factor between gout and pseudogout, as both conditions involve crystals. However, the type of crystals differs between the two. Pseudogout crystals are weakly-positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped, while gout crystals are negatively birefringent.

      Both gout and pseudogout typically respond well to colchicine for acute pain management, so this is not a useful factor in distinguishing between the two conditions.

      Increased warmth of the affected joint is not a reliable factor in distinguishing between gout and pseudogout, as it may be present in both conditions.

      Pseudogout, also known as acute calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition disease, is a type of microcrystal synovitis that occurs when calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals are deposited in the synovium. This condition is more common in older individuals, but those under 60 years of age may develop it if they have underlying risk factors such as haemochromatosis, hyperparathyroidism, low magnesium or phosphate levels, acromegaly, or Wilson’s disease. The knee, wrist, and shoulders are the most commonly affected joints, and joint aspiration may reveal weakly-positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals. X-rays may show chondrocalcinosis, which appears as linear calcifications of the meniscus and articular cartilage in the knee. Treatment involves joint fluid aspiration to rule out septic arthritis, as well as the use of NSAIDs or steroids, as with gout.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 15-year-old girl presents to your clinic with worries about delayed menarche. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl presents to your clinic with worries about delayed menarche. Upon taking her medical history, you find no developmental issues. She is currently at the 65th percentile for weight and 5th percentile for height. During the physical examination, you observe a short webbed neck and broad chest. After conducting a karyotype analysis, you discover an abnormality. What is the most prevalent heart condition linked to this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer: Atrioventricular septal defect

      Correct Answer: Bicuspid aortic valve

      Explanation:

      The most frequently observed cardiac defect in individuals with Turner’s syndrome (45 XO) is a bicuspid aortic valve, which is more prevalent than coarctation of the aorta. Additionally, aortic root dilation and coarctation of the aorta are also associated with this condition.

      Understanding Turner’s Syndrome

      Turner’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects approximately 1 in 2,500 females. It is caused by the absence of one sex chromosome (X) or a deletion of the short arm of one of the X chromosomes. This condition is denoted as 45,XO or 45,X.

      The features of Turner’s syndrome include short stature, a shield chest with widely spaced nipples, a webbed neck, a bicuspid aortic valve (15%), coarctation of the aorta (5-10%), primary amenorrhea, cystic hygroma (often diagnosed prenatally), a high-arched palate, a short fourth metacarpal, multiple pigmented naevi, lymphoedema in neonates (especially feet), and elevated gonadotrophin levels. Hypothyroidism is much more common in Turner’s syndrome, and there is also an increased incidence of autoimmune disease (especially autoimmune thyroiditis) and Crohn’s disease.

      In summary, Turner’s syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that affects females and can cause a range of physical features and health issues. Early diagnosis and management can help individuals with Turner’s syndrome lead healthy and fulfilling lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      65.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You encounter a 36-year-old woman during her antenatal check-up. She has recently undergone...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 36-year-old woman during her antenatal check-up. She has recently undergone an anomaly scan and is undergoing a routine review. During the consultation, she expresses her concern about not feeling any fetal movement yet, despite experiencing it by 18 weeks gestation in her previous pregnancies.
      At what point in her gestation would it be appropriate to refer her to the maternal fetal medicine unit for further evaluation?

      Your Answer: 22 weeks

      Correct Answer: 24 weeks

      Explanation:

      Referral to a maternal fetal medicine unit is recommended if fetal movements have not been felt by 24 weeks, as reduced movements can be a sign of fetal distress and hypoxia. While most women feel their babies move around 18-20 weeks, it can happen earlier in some cases. Although singular episodes of reduced movements may not be harmful, they can also indicate stillbirths and restricted growth. The absence of movements is particularly concerning and requires further investigation. The RCOG has set the 24 week cut off as a guideline.

      Understanding Reduced Fetal Movements

      Introduction:
      Reduced fetal movements can indicate fetal distress and are a response to chronic hypoxia in utero. This can lead to stillbirth and fetal growth restriction. It is believed that placental insufficiency may also be linked to reduced fetal movements.

      Physiology:
      Quickening is the first onset of fetal movements, which usually occurs between 18-20 weeks gestation and increases until 32 weeks gestation. Multiparous women may experience fetal movements sooner. Fetal movements should not reduce towards the end of pregnancy. There is no established definition for what constitutes reduced fetal movements, but less than 10 movements within 2 hours (in pregnancies past 28 weeks gestation) is an indication for further assessment.

      Epidemiology:
      Reduced fetal movements affect up to 15% of pregnancies, with 3-5% of pregnant women having recurrent presentations with RFM. Fetal movements should be established by 24 weeks gestation.

      Risk factors for reduced fetal movements:
      Posture, distraction, placental position, medication, fetal position, body habitus, amniotic fluid volume, and fetal size can all affect fetal movement awareness.

      Investigations:
      Fetal movements are usually based on maternal perception, but can also be objectively assessed using handheld Doppler or ultrasonography. Investigations are dependent on gestation at onset of RFM. If concern remains, despite normal CTG, urgent (within 24 hours) ultrasound can be used.

      Prognosis:
      Reduced fetal movements can represent fetal distress, but in 70% of pregnancies with a single episode of reduced fetal movement, there is no onward complication. However, between 40-55% of women who suffer from stillbirth experience reduced fetal movements prior to diagnosis. Recurrent RFM requires further investigations to consider structural or genetic fetal abnormalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      22.8
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  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old woman presents with a 1-month history of fatigue, aches, constipation, and...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with a 1-month history of fatigue, aches, constipation, and nausea. She reports increased thirst and waking at night to pass urine, and has been experiencing a low mood that has kept her from leaving the house frequently. The following investigations were performed:

      - Hb 140 g/L (115 - 160)
      - WBC 5.9 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      - Calcium 2.8 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
      - PTH 75 pg/mL (10 - 55)
      - ALP 130 µmol/L (30 - 100)
      - Phosphate 0.4 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
      - Urea 5.3 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      - Creatinine 68 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      - 25-hydroxycholecalciferol 48 nmol/L (>50)
      - eGFR 62 ml/min/1.73 m2

      What is the most likely underlying cause of her presentation?

      Your Answer: Parathyroid adenoma

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis of chronic kidney disease is incorrect in this case. An eGFR below 90 can still be considered normal if it is above 60 and there are no abnormalities in the U&Es. The patient’s eGFR is 62 and their urea and creatinine levels are within normal range, indicating that they do not have CKD. In cases of CKD, secondary hyperparathyroidism may occur, which would result in different blood test results. Since the kidneys are responsible for activating vitamin D, which is essential for the absorption of calcium in the intestines, low serum calcium levels would be expected in CKD. Additionally, due to kidney dysfunction, there would be inadequate excretion of phosphate, leading to increased serum phosphate levels. This increase in phosphate levels would cause calcium to be deposited in the insoluble calcium phosphate salt, further lowering calcium levels. Therefore, the symptoms of hypercalcemia that the patient is experiencing would not be present in secondary hyperparathyroidism caused by CKD. In summary, hyperparathyroidism secondary to CKD would result in low calcium and high phosphate levels, rather than high calcium and low phosphate levels.

      Lab Values for Bone Disorders

      When it comes to bone disorders, certain lab values can provide important information for diagnosis and treatment. In cases of osteoporosis, calcium, phosphate, alkaline phosphatase (ALP), and parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels are typically within normal ranges. However, in osteomalacia, there is a decrease in calcium and phosphate levels, an increase in ALP levels, and an increase in PTH levels.

      Primary hyperparathyroidism, which can lead to osteitis fibrosa cystica, is characterized by increased calcium and PTH levels, but decreased phosphate levels. Chronic kidney disease can also lead to secondary hyperparathyroidism, with decreased calcium levels and increased phosphate and PTH levels.

      Paget’s disease, which causes abnormal bone growth, typically shows normal calcium and phosphate levels, but an increase in ALP levels. Osteopetrosis, a rare genetic disorder that causes bones to become dense and brittle, typically shows normal lab values for calcium, phosphate, ALP, and PTH.

      Overall, understanding these lab values can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat various bone disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      29.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 50-year-old professional bodybuilder comes to the clinic with a lump in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old professional bodybuilder comes to the clinic with a lump in the left groin that appears on and off. The patient reports that the lump is influenced by posture and coughing but does not cause any pain. Upon examination, the doctor diagnoses the patient with a hernia.
      What is a true statement regarding groin hernias?

      Your Answer: All groin hernias should be repaired because of the risk for strangulation

      Correct Answer: A direct inguinal hernia lies medial to the inferior epigastric vessels

      Explanation:

      Understanding Groin Hernias: Types, Location, and Risks

      Groin hernias are a common condition that occurs when an organ or tissue protrudes through a weak spot in the abdominal wall. There are different types of groin hernias, including direct inguinal hernias and femoral hernias.

      A direct inguinal hernia occurs when there is a weakness in the posterior wall of the inguinal canal, and the protrusion happens medial to the inferior epigastric vessels. On the other hand, a femoral hernia emerges lateral to the pubic tubercle.

      Contrary to popular belief, femoral hernias are more common in women than in men. While direct inguinal hernias can become incarcerated, only a small percentage of them will become strangulated per year. Femoral hernias, however, are at a much higher risk of becoming strangulated.

      While most groin hernias should be repaired, especially when they become symptomatic, patients who are unfit for surgery should be treated conservatively. This may include using a truss to support the hernia.

      In conclusion, understanding the different types and locations of groin hernias, as well as their risks, can help patients make informed decisions about their treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with chest pain that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with chest pain that has worsened over the past 2 days. She also reported feeling ‘a little run down’ with a sore throat a week ago. She has history of hypertension and hyperlipidaemia. She reports diffuse chest pain that feels better when she leans forward. On examination, she has a temperature of 37.94 °C and a blood pressure of 140/84 mmHg. Her heart rate is 76 bpm. A friction rub is heard on cardiac auscultation, and an electrocardiogram (ECG) demonstrates ST segment elevation in nearly every lead. Her physical examination and blood tests are otherwise within normal limits.
      Which of the following is the most likely aetiology of her chest pain?

      Your Answer: Post-myocardial infarction syndrome (Dressler syndrome)

      Correct Answer: Post-viral complication

      Explanation:

      Pericarditis as a Post-Viral Complication: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis

      Pericarditis, inflammation of the pericardium, can occur as a post-viral complication. Patients typically experience diffuse chest pain that improves when leaning forward, and a friction rub may be heard on cardiac auscultation. Diffuse ST segment elevations on ECG can be mistaken for myocardial infarction. In this case, the patient reported recent viral symptoms and then developed acute pericardial symptoms.

      While systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can cause pericarditis, other symptoms such as rash, myalgia, or joint pain would be expected, along with a positive anti-nuclear antibodies test. Uraemia can also cause pericarditis, but elevated blood urea nitrogen would be present, and this patient has no history of kidney disease. Dressler syndrome, or post-myocardial infarction pericarditis, can cause diffuse ST elevations, but does not represent transmural infarction. Chest radiation can also cause pericarditis, but this patient has no history of radiation exposure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      439.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Musculoskeletal (2/3) 67%
Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Emergency Medicine (0/1) 0%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Paediatrics (0/1) 0%
Obstetrics (0/1) 0%
Colorectal (0/1) 0%
Cardiology (0/1) 0%
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