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Question 1
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A 68-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with chest tightness. The tightness started about a day ago, however today it is worse and associated with shortness of breath and dizziness.
Upon examination, there is a slow rising carotid pulse and systolic murmur which radiates to carotids 3/6. Examination is otherwise unremarkable without calf tenderness. The patient does not have any significant past medical history apart from type II diabetes mellitus and hypertension which are both well controlled.
What is the best diagnostic investigation?Your Answer: Echocardiogram
Explanation:Diagnostic Investigations for Cardiac Conditions
When a patient presents with signs and symptoms of a cardiac condition, various diagnostic investigations may be performed to determine the underlying cause. In the case of a patient with chest tightness, the first-line investigation is usually an electrocardiogram (ECG) to rule out acute coronary syndrome. However, if the patient is suspected of having aortic stenosis (AS), the best diagnostic investigation is an echocardiogram and Doppler to measure the size of the aortic valve. A normal aortic valve area is more than 2 cm2, while severe AS is defined as less than 1 cm2.
Other diagnostic investigations for cardiac conditions include a coronary angiogram to assess the patency of the coronary arteries and potentially perform an angioplasty to insert a stent if any narrowing is found. Exercise tolerance tests can also be useful in monitoring patients with a cardiac history and heart failure classification. However, a D-dimer test, which is used to diagnose pulmonary embolism, would not be indicated in a patient with suspected AS unless there were additional features suggestive of a pulmonary embolism, such as calf tenderness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 2
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A 38-year-old woman presents to her GP to discuss contraception. She has a medical history of hypertension, type 1 diabetes mellitus, and is currently undergoing treatment for breast cancer. She was also recently diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis in her left leg and is a heavy smoker with a BMI of 38 kg/m2. She is interested in receiving an injectable progesterone contraceptive. What aspect of her medical history would prevent the GP from prescribing this?
Your Answer: Current breast cancer
Explanation:Injectable progesterone contraceptives are not recommended for individuals with current breast cancer.
This is considered an absolute contraindication (UKMEC 4) for prescribing injectable progesterone contraceptives. It is also an absolute contraindication for most other forms of contraception, except for the non-hormonal copper intrauterine device.
Current deep vein thrombosis is a UKMEC 2 contraindication for injectable progesterone, while it is a UKMEC 4 contraindication for the combined oral contraceptive pill. Multiple cardiovascular risk factors are a UKMEC 3 contraindication, which is not absolute, but the risks are generally considered to outweigh the benefits.
Smoking 30 cigarettes per day is only a UKMEC 1 contraindication for injectable progesterone contraception. However, considering the individual’s age, it would be a UKMEC 4 contraindication for the combined oral contraceptive pill.
High BMI is a UKMEC 1 contraindication for most forms of contraception, including injectable progesterone. However, it would be a UKMEC 4 contraindication for the combined pill.
Injectable Contraceptives: Depo Provera
Injectable contraceptives are a popular form of birth control in the UK, with Depo Provera being the main option available. This contraceptive contains 150 mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is administered via intramuscular injection every 12 weeks. It can be given up to 14 weeks after the last dose without the need for extra precautions. The primary method of action is by inhibiting ovulation, while secondary effects include cervical mucous thickening and endometrial thinning.
However, there are some disadvantages to using Depo Provera. Once the injection is given, it cannot be reversed, and there may be a delayed return to fertility of up to 12 months. Adverse effects may include irregular bleeding and weight gain, and there is a potential increased risk of osteoporosis. It should only be used in adolescents if no other method of contraception is suitable.
It is important to note that there are contraindications to using Depo Provera, such as current breast cancer (UKMEC 4) or past breast cancer (UKMEC 3). While Noristerat is another injectable contraceptive licensed in the UK, it is rarely used in clinical practice and is given every 8 weeks. Overall, injectable contraceptives can be an effective form of birth control, but it is important to weigh the potential risks and benefits before deciding on this method.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 31-year-old man visits the Neurology Clinic accompanied by his brother. He reports experiencing episodes of confusion and amnesia that typically last for a few minutes. His brother has observed him suddenly stopping what he is doing and staring into space on several occasions. The patient presents a video of one such episode, which shows lip-smacking and chewing. He has no recollection of these incidents, but he has noticed the smell of burning and a strange sense of déjà vu on multiple occasions. There is no indication of tongue biting or limb jerking. The patient is in good health, but he admits to regularly using cannabis. What is the most probable cause of these occurrences?
Your Answer: Temporal lobe epilepsy
Explanation:Distinguishing Temporal Lobe Epilepsy from Other Seizure Disorders and Cannabis Usage
Temporal lobe epilepsy is a neurological disorder that can manifest in various ways, including somatosensory or special sensory aura, visual hallucinations, déjà vu, manual automatisms, postictal confusion, or amnesia. The underlying causes can be diverse, such as previous infections or head trauma, and require investigation through electroencephalogram (EEG) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). Narcolepsy, on the other hand, is characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness, hypnagogic hallucinations, or cataplexy, and is not associated with the seizure activity typical of temporal lobe epilepsy. Absence seizures, which involve staring into space, do not feature the sensory aura or postictal confusion of temporal lobe epilepsy. Cannabis overuse may cause seizures and psychosis, but not the specific seizures described in this scenario. Non-epileptic seizures, which can have organic or psychogenic causes, may be a differential diagnosis, but the presence of classic symptoms such as sensory aura, lip-smacking, and déjà vu suggest that temporal lobe epilepsy is more likely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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What is the result of temporal lobe lesions?
Your Answer: Visuospatial neglect
Correct Answer: Wernicke's (receptive) aphasia
Explanation:Lesions in Different Lobes of the Brain
Lesions in different lobes of the brain can cause various symptoms and impairments. The frontal lobe is responsible for task sequencing and executive skills, and lesions in this area can lead to expressive aphasia, primitive reflexes, perseveration, anosmia, and changes in personality. On the other hand, lesions in the parietal lobe can cause apraxias, neglect, astereognosis, visual field defects, and acalculia. The temporal lobe is responsible for visual field defects, Wernicke’s aphasia, auditory agnosia, and memory impairment. Lastly, occipital lobe lesions can cause cortical blindness, homonymous hemianopia, and visual agnosia.
It is important to note that some symptoms may overlap between different lobes, and a comprehensive evaluation is necessary to determine the exact location and extent of the lesion. the specific symptoms associated with each lobe can aid in diagnosis and treatment planning. Additionally, rehabilitation and therapy may be necessary to address the functional impairments caused by these lesions. Overall, a better of the effects of brain lesions can lead to improved management and outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Miscellaneous
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Question 5
Correct
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A 30-year-old primiparous woman who is 10 weeks pregnant is curious about iron supplementation. Her blood tests reveal a Hb level of 110 g/L. What is the appropriate Hb cut-off for initiating treatment in this patient?
Your Answer: 110
Explanation:During pregnancy, women are checked for anaemia twice – once at the initial booking visit (usually around 8-10 weeks) and again at 28 weeks. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has set specific cut-off levels to determine if a pregnant woman requires oral iron therapy. These levels are less than 110 g/L in the first trimester, less than 105 g/L in the second and third trimesters, and less than 100 g/L postpartum.
If a woman’s iron levels fall below these cut-offs, she will be prescribed oral ferrous sulfate or ferrous fumarate. It is important to continue this treatment for at least three months after the iron deficiency has been corrected to allow the body to replenish its iron stores. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help ensure that pregnant women receive the appropriate care to prevent and manage anaemia during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old construction worker has had a fall from scaffolding at work and you suspect a midshaft humeral fracture. Which nerve would be most at risk in this scenario?
Your Answer: Extend the forearm at the elbow
Correct Answer: Extend the wrist
Explanation:Fractures in the middle of the humerus bone often result in damage to the radial nerve. Therefore, it is important to test the function of the radial nerve. Among the options given, only extending the wrist can effectively test the radial nerve as it provides innervation to the extensor muscles. If the radial nerve is affected, it can cause wrist drop.
While extending the elbow can also test the radial nerve, it may not provide as much information as wrist extension because the injury may be located proximal to the innervation of the triceps. This means that a more distal injury could be missed. Nonetheless, it is still likely to be performed as part of the testing process.
Reference:
Shao YC, Harwood P, Grotz MR, et al. (2005). Radial nerve palsy associated with fractures of the shaft of the humerus: a systematic review. J Bone Joint Surg Br; 87(12):1647-52.Anatomy and Function of the Radial Nerve
The radial nerve is a continuation of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus, with root values ranging from C5 to T1. It has both motor and sensory functions, innervating muscles in the arm and forearm, as well as providing sensation to the dorsal aspect of the hand.
The nerve follows a path from the axilla, where it lies posterior to the axillary artery on subscapularis, latissimus dorsi, and teres major, to the arm, where it enters between the brachial artery and the long head of triceps. It spirals around the posterior surface of the humerus in the groove for the radial nerve before piercing the intermuscular septum and descending in front of the lateral epicondyle. At the lateral epicondyle, it divides into a superficial and deep terminal branch, with the deep branch crossing the supinator to become the posterior interosseous nerve.
The radial nerve innervates several muscles, including triceps, anconeus, brachioradialis, and extensor carpi radialis. Damage to the nerve can result in wrist drop and sensory loss to a small area between the dorsal aspect of the 1st and 2nd metacarpals. In the forearm, the nerve innervates the supinator, extensor carpi ulnaris, extensor digitorum, extensor indicis, extensor digiti minimi, extensor pollicis longus and brevis, and abductor pollicis longus. Paralysis of these muscles can result in weakening of supination of prone hand and elbow flexion in mid prone position.
Understanding the anatomy and function of the radial nerve is important in diagnosing and treating injuries or conditions that affect its function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 7
Correct
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A 10-day old infant is brought to the emergency department by his mother due to poor feeding and drinking for the past 48 hours. The mother is concerned about the baby's weight gain and has noticed pale stools. During the examination, the baby appears jaundiced and has an enlarged liver. The medical team performs a newborn jaundice screen and considers biliary atresia as a possible diagnosis. What clinical finding would be most indicative of biliary atresia?
Your Answer: Raised level of conjugated bilirubin
Explanation:Elevated conjugated bilirubin is a characteristic feature of biliary atresia. This condition is often associated with prolonged jaundice, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, abnormal growth, and cardiac murmurs in the presence of cardiac abnormalities. While liver transaminases and bile acids may also be elevated in biliary atresia, they are not specific to this condition and cannot distinguish it from other causes of neonatal cholestasis. Poor feeding and drinking are not helpful in making a diagnosis, as they can occur in many different conditions. While the age of presentation may suggest biliary atresia, there are several other potential causes of neonatal jaundice in a 15-day old infant, including congenital infections, urinary tract infections, breast milk jaundice, and hypothyroidism. Elevated unconjugated bilirubin is not a typical finding in biliary atresia, but may be seen in cases of hypothyroidism.
Understanding Biliary Atresia in Neonatal Children
Biliary atresia is a condition that affects the extrahepatic biliary system in neonatal children, resulting in an obstruction in the flow of bile. This condition is more common in females than males and occurs in 1 in every 10,000-15,000 live births. There are three types of biliary atresia, with type 3 being the most common. Patients typically present with jaundice, dark urine, pale stools, and abnormal growth.
To diagnose biliary atresia, doctors may perform various tests, including serum bilirubin, liver function tests, serum alpha 1-antitrypsin, sweat chloride test, and ultrasound of the biliary tree and liver. Surgical intervention is the only definitive treatment for biliary atresia, and medical intervention includes antibiotic coverage and bile acid enhancers following surgery.
Complications of biliary atresia include unsuccessful anastomosis formation, progressive liver disease, cirrhosis, and eventual hepatocellular carcinoma. However, the prognosis is good if surgery is successful. In cases where surgery fails, liver transplantation may be required in the first two years of life. Overall, understanding biliary atresia is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management in neonatal children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old female visits her GP seeking advice on contraception. She has recently started a new relationship after a divorce and wishes to start taking the combined oral contraceptive pill. Her BMI is 32 kg/m², and she is an ex-smoker, having quit two years ago after smoking 20 cigarettes a day. During her teenage years, she experienced frequent migraines without aura, and she has a medical history of factor V Leiden disease and gestational hypertension during her 2-year-old daughter's pregnancy. What is the most significant contraindication to the combined oral contraceptive based on her medical history?
Your Answer: Migraine history
Correct Answer: Factor V Leiden
Explanation:The combined oral contraceptive has only one absolute contraindication in a patient’s history, which is factor V Leiden (a UKMEC 4 level indicating an unacceptable health risk). Other elements of the patient’s history fall into UKMEC 3, where the disadvantages generally outweigh the benefits. However, it is important to note that some concurrent UKMEC 3 contraindications may become absolute contraindications when combined. Therefore, it is crucial to carefully study guidelines before prescribing.
The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is now based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential contraindications and cautions on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 indicates no restrictions for use, while UKMEC 2 suggests that the benefits outweigh the risks. UKMEC 3 indicates that the disadvantages may outweigh the advantages, and UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old, and current gallbladder disease. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. In 2016, Breastfeeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum was changed from UKMEC 3 to UKMEC 2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man is five days post-laparotomy for subacute intestinal obstruction secondary to underlying Crohn’s disease. He has suddenly become breathless and complains of pleuritic chest pain. On examination, the patient is confused and his chest is clear to auscultation. However, he is tachypnoeic and has a mildly raised jugular venous pressure (JVP).
Observations:
Blood pressure 97/70 mmHg
Heart rate 126 bpm
Respiratory rate 25 breaths per minute
Oxygen saturations 92% on room air
Arterial blood gas:
Investigation Result Normal value
pH 7.53 7.35–7.45
Pa(CO2) 3.1 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
Pa(O2) 8.3 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows sinus tachycardia and right bundle branch block.
Computed tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) confirms the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism.
Which is the most appropriate immediate management for this patient?Your Answer: Intravenous (iv) fluids, oxygen, enoxaparin (treatment dose), rivaroxaban
Correct Answer: iv fluids, oxygen, rivaroxaban
Explanation:Management of Pulmonary Embolism postoperatively
Pulmonary embolism is a serious complication that can occur after surgery and is associated with high mortality rates. The prompt diagnosis and management of this condition are crucial, and anticoagulant treatment is typically recommended. Patients can be started on apixaban or rivaroxaban at a therapeutic dose or a combination of LMWH and either dabigatran or warfarin until therapeutic levels are reached. In the case of warfarin, it is typically started concurrently with LMWH since it takes 48-72 hours for its anticoagulant properties to take effect.
In addition to anticoagulant therapy, patients with pulmonary embolism may require iv fluids and high-flow oxygen if they are hypotensive and hypoxic. Enoxaparin is typically used as a treatment dose, but unfractionated iv heparin may be used as an alternative in patients with renal impairment.
Warfarin is used for long-term anticoagulation in patients who have had pulmonary embolism, but it is not appropriate for immediate management since it is initially pro-thrombotic. Thrombolysis is indicated in patients who are haemodynamically unstable, but it is generally avoided postoperatively due to an increased risk of bleeding.
In summary, the management of pulmonary embolism postoperatively involves prompt diagnosis, anticoagulant therapy, and supportive measures such as iv fluids and oxygen. The choice of anticoagulant and duration of therapy will depend on the patient’s individual circumstances and risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 10
Correct
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A 50-year-old man is referred to the acute medical unit. He had presented earlier in the day to the GP complaining of ongoing fatigue and polydipsia. A BM (finger-prick glucose) taken in the surgery was 22.3 mmol/l. On examination he is an obese man (BMI 36 kg/m2) with a pulse of 84 bpm and blood pressure of 144/84 mmHg. Blood tests reveal the following:
Na+ 140 mmol/l
K+ 3.9 mmol/l
Bicarbonate 23 mmol/l
Urea 5.2 mmol/l
Creatinine 101 µmol/l
Glucose 18.2 mmol/l
You advise him to lose weight and discuss basic dietary advice. What is the most appropriate initial management?Your Answer: Metformin
Explanation:Although exenatide can benefit obese patients, it is not the primary treatment option.
Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus. It belongs to a class of drugs called biguanides and works by activating the AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK), which increases insulin sensitivity and reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis. Additionally, it may decrease the absorption of carbohydrates in the gastrointestinal tract. Unlike other diabetes medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin does not cause hypoglycemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. It is also used to treat polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease.
While metformin is generally well-tolerated, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea, anorexia, and diarrhea are common and can be intolerable for some patients. Reduced absorption of vitamin B12 is also a potential side effect, although it rarely causes clinical problems. In rare cases, metformin can cause lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. However, it is important to note that lactic acidosis is now recognized as a rare side effect of metformin.
There are several contraindications to using metformin, including chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and alcohol abuse. Additionally, metformin should be discontinued before and after procedures involving iodine-containing x-ray contrast media to reduce the risk of contrast nephropathy.
When starting metformin, it is important to titrate the dose slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side effects. If patients experience intolerable side effects, modified-release metformin may be considered as an alternative.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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