00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 0 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 56-year-old woman is admitted to the Gastroenterology Ward with abdominal distension due...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman is admitted to the Gastroenterology Ward with abdominal distension due to ascites. On examination, there is symmetrical distension of the abdomen and a palpable pelvic mass in the left iliac fossa. On closer questioning, she also admits to being ‘off her food’ and has lost a stone in weight over the last 3 weeks.
      Which one of the following types of ovarian mass is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Brenner tumour

      Correct Answer: Serous adenocarcinoma

      Explanation:

      Ovarian tumours are mostly epithelial in nature, comprising 90% of all cases. Serous tumours are the most common type, accounting for 50% of ovarian cancers and 20% of benign tumours. Although the 5-year survival rate is improving, it remains low at around 40% in the UK. These tumours typically affect postmenopausal women, with over 80% of cases occurring in those over 50 years old. Ovarian tumours can be benign, invasive or malignant, with different pathological subtypes. Mucinous cystadenomas are common in women aged 20-50 years and can be large and multilocular, with a risk of pseudomyxoma peritonei if they rupture. Brenner tumours are rare and often found incidentally, while teratomas are non-seminomatous germ cell tumours that may contain multiple types of tissue. Clear cell carcinomas are rare and have a worse prognosis than serous tumours, growing rapidly and being associated with endometriosis. Surgical removal is the preferred treatment for most ovarian tumours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      69.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old mother of two presents to her general practitioner with depression. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old mother of two presents to her general practitioner with depression. She explains that for the last 4 months, she has been unable to leave her house or socialize with friends due to an embarrassing and uncomfortable incontinence problem.
      What is the most common type of urinary incontinence in women?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Genuine stress incontinence

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Different Types of Urinary Incontinence in Women

      Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects many women. There are different types of urinary incontinence, each with its own causes and treatment options. The most common type of incontinence in women is genuine stress incontinence, which is caused by sphincter incompetence and leads to leakage of small amounts of urine on stress, such as sneezing, standing, laughing, and coughing.

      To diagnose incontinence, common investigations include a midstream urine specimen, frequency volume chart, filling urodynamic assessment, and voiding urodynamic assessment. Treatment options vary depending on the patient’s wishes, desire for future children, and severity of symptoms. Conservative treatment involves pelvic floor exercises, vaginal cones, and drugs such as estrogen. Surgery is the most effective way of restoring continence, with a cure rate of 80-90%. Procedures include burch colposuspension, anterior repair and bladder buttress, tension-free vaginal tape, and suburethral sling.

      Other types of urinary incontinence in women include fistula, which is a rare cause of incontinence caused by pelvic surgery, overactive bladder, which is the second most common type of incontinence, retention with overflow, which is a rare cause of incontinence more common in men, and congenital abnormalities, which is a rare cause of incontinence that is often apparent since early life.

      It is important for women to understand the different types of urinary incontinence and seek medical advice if they experience any symptoms. With proper diagnosis and treatment, urinary incontinence can be effectively managed, improving quality of life and overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 29-year-old woman presents to her GP seeking guidance on conception, specifically regarding...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to her GP seeking guidance on conception, specifically regarding the use of supplements or medication. She has no significant medical or family history and has previously given birth to two healthy children in the past three years without complications. Upon examination, she appears to be in good health, with a BMI of 31 kg/m2. What is the most suitable course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5mg of folic acid

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women with a BMI greater than 30 kg/m2 should be prescribed a high dose of 5mg folic acid instead of the standard 400 micrograms. Therefore, the lifestyle and dietary advice given to this patient is incorrect. Additionally, prescribing 75 mg of aspirin is not appropriate for this patient as it is typically given to women with one high-risk factor or two moderate-risk factors for pre-eclampsia, and a BMI over 35 would only qualify as a single moderate-risk factor. While 150 mg of aspirin is an alternative dose for pre-eclampsia prophylaxis, 75 mg is more commonly used in practice.

      Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention

      Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.

      To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.

      In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old woman is being evaluated for obesity, hirsutism, and oligomenorrhea. After an...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is being evaluated for obesity, hirsutism, and oligomenorrhea. After an ultrasound scan, she is diagnosed with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). As she desires to conceive, her physician prescribes metformin to enhance her fertility. What is the mechanism of action of metformin in treating PCOS?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increases peripheral insulin sensitivity

      Explanation:

      Polycystic ovarian syndrome patients commonly experience insulin resistance, which can result in complex alterations in the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis.

      Managing Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome

      Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a condition that affects a significant percentage of women of reproductive age. The exact cause of PCOS is not fully understood, but it is associated with high levels of luteinizing hormone and hyperinsulinemia. Management of PCOS is complex and varies depending on the individual’s symptoms. Weight reduction is often recommended, and a combined oral contraceptive pill may be used to regulate menstrual cycles and manage hirsutism and acne. If these symptoms do not respond to the pill, topical eflornithine or medications like spironolactone, flutamide, and finasteride may be used under specialist supervision.

      Infertility is another common issue associated with PCOS. Weight reduction is recommended, and the management of infertility should be supervised by a specialist. There is ongoing debate about the most effective treatment for infertility in patients with PCOS. Clomiphene is often used, but there is a potential risk of multiple pregnancies with anti-oestrogen therapies like Clomiphene. Metformin is also used, either alone or in combination with Clomiphene, particularly in patients who are obese. Gonadotrophins may also be used to stimulate ovulation. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) published an opinion paper in 2008 and concluded that on current evidence, metformin is not a first-line treatment of choice in the management of PCOS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 29-year-old woman with a BMI of 18 is referred to a fertility...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman with a BMI of 18 is referred to a fertility clinic as she has been unsuccessful in conceiving with her partner for 2 years. After ruling out male factor infertility, you suspect that her low BMI may be causing anovulation. What hormone can be measured on day 21 of her menstrual cycle to test for ovulation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Progesterone

      Explanation:

      A woman’s ovulation usually occurs on day 14 of her 28-day menstrual cycle. After ovulation, hormonal changes occur.

      Infertility is a common issue that affects approximately 1 in 7 couples. It is important to note that around 84% of couples who have regular sexual intercourse will conceive within the first year, and 92% within the first two years. The causes of infertility can vary, with male factor accounting for 30%, unexplained causes accounting for 20%, ovulation failure accounting for 20%, tubal damage accounting for 15%, and other causes accounting for the remaining 15%.

      When investigating infertility, there are some basic tests that can be done. These include a semen analysis and a serum progesterone test. The serum progesterone test is done 7 days prior to the expected next period, typically on day 21 for a 28-day cycle. The interpretation of the serum progesterone level is as follows: if it is less than 16 nmol/l, it should be repeated and if it remains consistently low, referral to a specialist is necessary. If the level is between 16-30 nmol/l, it should be repeated, and if it is greater than 30 nmol/l, it indicates ovulation.

      It is important to counsel patients on lifestyle factors that can impact fertility. This includes taking folic acid, maintaining a healthy BMI between 20-25, and advising regular sexual intercourse every 2 to 3 days. Additionally, patients should be advised to quit smoking and limit alcohol consumption to increase their chances of conceiving.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 27-year-old female patient comes in seeking advice on contraception. She is currently...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female patient comes in seeking advice on contraception. She is currently on day 14 of her regular 28-30 day cycle and has no medical history or regular medications. She desires a method that is effective immediately and does not require daily attention. What contraceptive option would be suitable for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intrauterine device

      Explanation:

      If a woman is not starting her contraceptive method on the first day of her period, the time until it becomes effective varies. The only option that is effective immediately is an intrauterine device (IUD), which is a T-shaped device containing copper that is inserted into the uterus. Other methods, such as the progesterone-only pill (POP), combined oral contraceptive (COC), injection, implant, and intrauterine system (IUS), require a certain amount of time before they become effective. The POP requires 2 days, while the COC, injection, implant, and IUS all require 7 days before they become effective. It’s important to consider the effectiveness and convenience of each method before choosing the best option.

      Implanon and Nexplanon are subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the progesterone hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucous. Nexplanon is the newer version and has a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It does not contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a past history of thromboembolism or migraine. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraceptive methods are required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1 to 5 of a woman’s menstrual cycle.

      The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs such as certain antiepileptic and rifampicin may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a method unaffected by enzyme-inducing drugs or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment.

      There are also contraindications for using these implants, such as ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained, suspicious vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Current breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, which represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used. Overall, these implants are a highly effective and long-acting form of contraception, but they require careful consideration of the potential risks and contraindications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 54-year-old woman has been diagnosed with ovarian cancer. She has had a...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman has been diagnosed with ovarian cancer. She has had a positive CA125 blood test, ultrasound scan and CT abdomen and pelvis. She is found to have stage 2 ovarian cancer. What is the primary treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Surgical excision of the tumour

      Explanation:

      Surgical removal of the tumour is the primary treatment for ovarian cancers in stages 2-4, often accompanied by chemotherapy as well, according to NICE CG122.

      Ovarian cancer is a common malignancy in women, ranking fifth in frequency. It is most commonly diagnosed in women over the age of 60 and has a poor prognosis due to late detection. The majority of ovarian cancers, around 90%, are of epithelial origin, with serous carcinomas accounting for 70-80% of cases. Interestingly, recent research suggests that many ovarian cancers may actually originate in the distal end of the fallopian tube. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include a family history of BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity.

      Clinical features of ovarian cancer are often vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms such as urgency, early satiety, and diarrhea. The initial diagnostic test recommended by NICE is a CA125 blood test, although this can also be elevated in other conditions such as endometriosis and benign ovarian cysts. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 test should not be used for screening asymptomatic women. Diagnosis of ovarian cancer is difficult and usually requires a diagnostic laparotomy.

      Management of ovarian cancer typically involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. Unfortunately, 80% of women have advanced disease at the time of diagnosis, leading to a 5-year survival rate of only 46%. It was previously thought that infertility treatment increased the risk of ovarian cancer due to increased ovulation, but recent evidence suggests that this is not a significant factor. In fact, the combined oral contraceptive pill and multiple pregnancies have been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer by reducing the number of ovulations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old woman visits her GP with a complaint of hot flashes that...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman visits her GP with a complaint of hot flashes that have been bothering her for the past 2 months, particularly at night, causing sleep and work disturbances. She expresses feeling exhausted and embarrassed at work, sweating profusely during the attacks, and carrying extra clothes to change. She is emotional and shares that she has been avoiding sexual intercourse due to pain. She has no medical history and is not on any medication. Her menstrual cycle is still ongoing but has become irregular, occurring once every 2-3 months. After a thorough discussion, she decides to start HRT. What would be the most suitable HRT regimen for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oestradiol one tablet daily for a 3-month period, with norethisterone on the last 14 days

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT) for perimenopausal Symptoms

      perimenopausal symptoms can significantly affect a woman’s daily routine, work, and mood. Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT) is one of the treatment options available for managing these symptoms. However, before commencing HRT, patients need to be consulted and informed of the risks and benefits associated with this treatment.

      HRT can be either oestrogen replacement only or combined. Combined HRT is given to women who have a uterus, as oestrogen alone can increase the risk of developing endometrial cancer. Combined HRT can be either cyclical or continuous, depending on the patient’s menopausal status.

      For women with irregular menses, a cyclical regime is indicated. This involves taking an oestrogen tablet once daily for a 3-month period, with norethisterone added on the last 14 days. Patients on this regime have a period every three months. Once a woman has completed a year on cyclical therapy or has established menopause, then she can change to combined continuous HRT.

      It is important to note that oestrogen-only HRT is only given to women who have had a hysterectomy. Oestrogen therapy alone increases the risk of developing endometrial hyperplasia and endometrial carcinoma. Therefore, in women who have a uterus, combined HRT, with the addition of a progesterone, is preferred to reduce this risk.

      In summary, HRT is a treatment option for perimenopausal symptoms. The type of HRT prescribed depends on the patient’s menopausal status and whether they have a uterus. Patients need to be informed of the risks and benefits associated with HRT before commencing treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 29-year-old woman presents with two episodes of post-coital bleeding. She reports that...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman presents with two episodes of post-coital bleeding. She reports that she noticed some red spotting immediately after intercourse, which settled shortly afterwards. She is on the combined oral contraceptive pill, with a regular partner, and does not use barrier contraception.
      Examination reveals a malodorous, green, frothy discharge and an erythematosus cervix with small areas of exudation. High vaginal and endocervical swabs were performed.
      Given the most likely diagnosis, which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metronidazole 400–500 mg twice daily for 5–7 days

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Sexually Transmitted Infections

      Sexually transmitted infections (STIs) can cause a range of symptoms in women, including post-coital bleeding, vaginal discharge, cervicitis, and more. Here are some common treatment options for STIs:

      – Metronidazole: This medication is used to treat Trichomonas vaginalis infections. Patients typically take 400-500 mg twice daily for 5-7 days. It’s important to treat the partner simultaneously and abstain from sex for at least one week.
      – Referral for colposcopy: If symptoms persist after treatment, patients may be referred for colposcopy to rule out cervical carcinoma.
      – Azithromycin or doxycycline: These medications are used to treat uncomplicated genital Chlamydia infections. Most women with a chlamydial infection remain asymptomatic.
      – Ceftriaxone and azithromycin: This combination is the treatment of choice for gonorrhoea infections. Symptoms may include increased vaginal discharge, lower abdominal pain, dyspareunia, and dysuria.
      – No treatment is required: This is not an option for symptomatic patients with T vaginalis, as it is a sexually transmitted infection that requires treatment.

      It’s important to seek medical attention if you suspect you have an STI, as early treatment can prevent complications and transmission to others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old woman comes to your GP office on Monday morning, concerned that...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to your GP office on Monday morning, concerned that she removed her week 2 contraceptive patch on Friday evening and was unable to get a replacement over the weekend. She has not engaged in sexual activity in the past two weeks.

      What is the best course of action to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No emergency contraception required, but apply new patch and advise barrier contraception for the next 7 days

      Explanation:

      If there has been a delay in changing the patch for over 48 hours but no sexual activity has occurred within the past 10 days, emergency contraception is not necessary. However, the individual must use barrier contraception for the next 7 days and replace the patch immediately. If there is no sexual activity planned for the next 7 days, no further action is required, but it is important to advise the individual to use barrier contraception during this time. It is crucial to replace the patch as soon as possible to ensure effective contraceptive coverage.

      The Evra patch is the only contraceptive patch that is approved for use in the UK. The patch cycle lasts for four weeks, during which the patch is worn every day for the first three weeks and changed weekly. During the fourth week, the patch is not worn, and a withdrawal bleed occurs.

      If a woman delays changing the patch at the end of week one or two, she should change it immediately. If the delay is less than 48 hours, no further precautions are necessary. However, if the delay is more than 48 hours, she should change the patch immediately and use a barrier method of contraception for the next seven days. If she has had unprotected sex during this extended patch-free interval or in the last five days, emergency contraception should be considered.

      If the patch removal is delayed at the end of week three, the woman should remove the patch as soon as possible and apply a new patch on the usual cycle start day for the next cycle, even if withdrawal bleeding is occurring. No additional contraception is needed.

      If patch application is delayed at the end of a patch-free week, additional barrier contraception should be used for seven days following any delay at the start of a new patch cycle. For more information, please refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on combined hormonal methods of contraception.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gynaecology (0/1) 0%
Passmed