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  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old black woman presents with complaints of pelvic pressure and heavy menstrual...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old black woman presents with complaints of pelvic pressure and heavy menstrual bleeding. Upon undergoing a pelvic ultrasound scan, a large pelvic mass is discovered and subsequently removed through surgery. Histological examination reveals the presence of smooth muscle bundles arranged in a whorled pattern.
      What is the correct statement regarding this case?

      Your Answer: This lesion usually metastasises to the lungs

      Correct Answer: This tumour may be associated with obstetric complications

      Explanation:

      Myoma: Common Benign Tumor in Women

      Myoma, also known as uterine fibroids, is a benign tumor commonly found in women. It is characterized by histological features and symptoms such as menorrhagia and pressure. Although it may occur in teenagers, it is most commonly seen in women in their fourth and fifth decades of life. Black women are more likely to develop myomas and become symptomatic earlier. Having fewer pregnancies and early menarche are reported to increase the risk.

      Myomas are benign tumors and do not metastasize to other organs. However, they may cause obstetric complications such as red degeneration, malpresentation, and the requirement for a Caesarean section. Surgical complications or intervention-related infections may lead to mortality, but associated deaths are rare. The 5-year survival rate is not applicable in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 2 - A 70-year-old woman with a lengthy history of vulval lichen sclerosus et atrophicus...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old woman with a lengthy history of vulval lichen sclerosus et atrophicus complains of escalating itching and bleeding upon contact of the vulva. Upon examination, a 2.2 cm unilateral ulcer with an aggressive appearance is discovered. Biopsy results indicate invasive squamous cell carcinoma. There is no clinical indication of lymph node metastasis, and the patient is in good health. What is the suggested course of action?

      Your Answer: Simple vulvectomy and bilateral inguinal lymphadenectomy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Vulval Cancer: Simple Vulvectomy and Bilateral Inguinal Lymphadenectomy

      Vulval cancer is a rare form of cancer that accounts for less than 1% of cancer diagnoses. The labia majora are the most common site, followed by labia minora. Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common type of vulval cancer, with carcinoma-in-situ being a precursor lesion that does not invade through the basement membrane. Risk factors for developing vulval cancer include increasing age, exposure to HPV, vulval lichen sclerosus et atrophicus, smoking, and immunosuppression.

      Patients may present with symptoms such as itching, pain, easy-contact bleeding of the vulva, changes in vulval skin, or frank ulcers/masses. The first lymph node station for metastases is the inguinal group. Surgery is the primary treatment for vulval cancer, with a simple vulvectomy and bilateral inguinal lymphadenectomy being the usual surgery performed, even in the absence of clinically palpable groin lymph nodes.

      Radiotherapy is commonly used before and/or after surgery depending on the stage of the disease, but it is not curative and would not be offered in isolation to an otherwise healthy patient. Chemotherapy is not usually used as a primary treatment but is offered in disseminated malignancy. Wide local excision is only used for lesions less than 2 cm in diameter with a depth of less than 1 mm. Lesions larger than this require vulvectomy and lymph node clearance due to the risk of metastasis.

      In conclusion, a simple vulvectomy and bilateral inguinal lymphadenectomy are the mainstay of treatment for vulval cancer, with radiotherapy and chemotherapy being used in certain cases. Early detection and treatment are crucial for improving outcomes in patients with vulval cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 3 - A 30-year-old woman is concerned about the risk of cancer from taking the...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman is concerned about the risk of cancer from taking the combined oral contraceptive pill after hearing something on the news. You have a discussion with her about evidence-based medicine. According to research, which type of cancer is believed to be reduced by taking the pill?

      Your Answer: Ovarian

      Explanation:

      The combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) has been found to have a slight increase in the risk of breast cancer, but this risk returns to normal after 10 years of stopping the pill. Additionally, the COCP may increase the risk of cervical cancer, but this could be due to a lack of barrier contraception use and increased exposure to HPV. While the COCP is associated with an increased risk of benign and malignant tumors, there is no evidence of an increased risk of lung cancer. On the other hand, the COCP has been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer, endometrial cancer, and bowel cancer.

      Pros and Cons of the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      The combined oral contraceptive pill is a highly effective method of birth control with a failure rate of less than 1 per 100 woman years. It does not interfere with sexual activity and its contraceptive effects are reversible upon stopping. Additionally, it can make periods regular, lighter, and less painful, and may reduce the risk of ovarian, endometrial, and colorectal cancer. It may also protect against pelvic inflammatory disease, ovarian cysts, benign breast disease, and acne vulgaris.

      However, there are also some disadvantages to the combined oral contraceptive pill. One of the main issues is that people may forget to take it, which can reduce its effectiveness. It also offers no protection against sexually transmitted infections. There is an increased risk of venous thromboembolic disease, breast and cervical cancer, stroke, and ischaemic heart disease, especially in smokers. Temporary side-effects such as headache, nausea, and breast tenderness may also be experienced.

      It is important to weigh the pros and cons of the combined oral contraceptive pill before deciding if it is the right method of birth control for you. While some users report weight gain while taking the pill, a Cochrane review did not support a causal relationship. Overall, the combined oral contraceptive pill can be an effective and convenient method of birth control, but it is important to discuss any concerns or potential risks with a healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 4 - A 30-year-old woman presents with a 5-day history of fatigue, muscle and joint...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents with a 5-day history of fatigue, muscle and joint pain, abdominal bloating and a throbbing unilateral headache. She says that she cannot sleep well and has an intense desire to consume chocolate and sweet drinks. On examination, she is alert and orientated. There is bilateral breast tenderness and mild facial and hand puffiness. She seems easily distracted and recalls two of three words after a delay. The rest of the physical examination is unremarkable. She says she has had several similar episodes previously, each lasting about 1 week. During these episodes, she becomes irritable, frequently cries, tends to miss work and occasionally gets into conflict with her husband and colleagues.
      To which of the following phases of the menstrual cycle is this condition most likely related?

      Your Answer: Late menstrual phase

      Correct Answer: Luteal phase

      Explanation:

      Understanding Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)

      Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is a condition that affects women of reproductive age, characterized by cyclic behavioral, emotional, and physical changes during the late luteal phase of the menstrual cycle. The most severe form of PMS is known as premenstrual dysphoric syndrome. The hallmark psychological changes are depression, irritability, and emotional lability, while physical manifestations include fluid retention, weight gain, and breast tenderness. Symptoms improve shortly after the onset of menses, and the syndrome is unrelated to the menstrual phase. The exact cause of PMS is unknown, but a multifactorial causation has been suggested, including decreased progesterone synthesis and increased prolactin, estrogen, aldosterone, and prostaglandin synthesis during the luteal phase. Hypoglycemia and serotonin deficiency also play a role. Severe PMS is treated with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. It is important to understand PMS and its symptoms to seek appropriate treatment and improve quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of menorrhagia. She reports that...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of menorrhagia. She reports that her periods have been lasting for 10 days and are very heavy. She denies any recent weight loss and her recent sexual health screening was negative. On examination, there are no abnormalities. She has completed her family and has two children. What is the initial treatment option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Intrauterine system (Mirena coil)

      Explanation:

      For patients with menorrhagia who have completed their family and do not have any underlying pathology, pharmaceutical therapy is recommended. The first-line management for these patients, according to NICE CKS, is the Mirena coil, provided that long-term contraception with an intrauterine device is acceptable.

      Managing Heavy Menstrual Bleeding

      Heavy menstrual bleeding, also known as menorrhagia, is a condition where a woman experiences excessive blood loss during her menstrual cycle. While it was previously defined as total blood loss of over 80 ml per cycle, the management of menorrhagia now depends on the woman’s perception of what is excessive. In the past, hysterectomy was a common treatment for heavy periods, but the approach has changed significantly since the 1990s.

      To manage menorrhagia, a full blood count should be performed in all women. If symptoms suggest a structural or histological abnormality, a routine transvaginal ultrasound scan should be arranged. For women who do not require contraception, mefenamic acid or tranexamic acid can be used. If there is no improvement, other drugs can be tried while awaiting referral.

      For women who require contraception, options include the intrauterine system (Mirena), combined oral contraceptive pill, and long-acting progestogens. Norethisterone can also be used as a short-term option to rapidly stop heavy menstrual bleeding. The flowchart below shows the management of menorrhagia.

      [Insert flowchart here]

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 6 - What is considered an unacceptable risk (UKMEC4) when prescribing the COCP for women...

    Incorrect

    • What is considered an unacceptable risk (UKMEC4) when prescribing the COCP for women under the age of 18?

      Your Answer: Personal history of migraines without aura

      Correct Answer: Breastfeeding and 4 weeks postpartum

      Explanation:

      The UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC) offer guidance on the contraindications for using contraception, including the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). The UKMEC categorizes the use of COCP as follows: no restriction (UKMEC1), advantages outweigh disadvantages (UKMEC2), disadvantages outweigh advantages (UKMEC3), and unacceptable risk (UKMEC4).

      According to UKMEC3, COCP use may have more disadvantages than advantages for individuals who are over 35 years old and smoke less than 15 cigarettes per day, have a BMI over 35, experience migraines without aura, have a family history of deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism in a first-degree relative under 45 years old, have controlled hypertension, are immobile (e.g., use a wheelchair), or are breastfeeding and between 6 weeks to 6 months postpartum.

      On the other hand, UKMEC4 indicates that COCP use poses an unacceptable risk for individuals who are over 35 years old and smoke more than 15 cigarettes per day, experience migraines with aura, have a personal history of deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism, have a personal history of stroke or ischemic heart disease, have uncontrolled hypertension, have breast cancer, have recently undergone major surgery with prolonged immobilization, or are breastfeeding and less than 6 weeks postpartum.

      Source: FSRH UKMEC for contraceptive use.

      The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is now based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential contraindications and cautions on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 indicates no restrictions for use, while UKMEC 2 suggests that the benefits outweigh the risks. UKMEC 3 indicates that the disadvantages may outweigh the advantages, and UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old, and current gallbladder disease. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. In 2016, Breastfeeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum was changed from UKMEC 3 to UKMEC 2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 7 - A 32-year-old woman is considering artificial insemination. What is the most reliable blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman is considering artificial insemination. What is the most reliable blood hormone marker for predicting ovulation?

      Your Answer: Progesterone

      Correct Answer: Luteinising hormone (LH)

      Explanation:

      Hormones Involved in the Menstrual Cycle

      The menstrual cycle is regulated by a complex interplay of hormones. Here are the key hormones involved and their functions:

      Luteinising hormone (LH): This hormone triggers ovulation by causing the release of an egg from the ovary. An LH surge occurs prior to ovulation, and ovulation occurs about 12 hours after the peak in LH.

      Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH): FSH stimulates the development of follicles in the ovary. It peaks on day 3 of the menstrual cycle.

      Oestrogen: Oestrogen is responsible for the growth of the endometrium, the lining of the uterus.

      Progesterone: After ovulation, progesterone induces secretory activity of the endometrial glands in anticipation of implantation.

      Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG): If fertilisation occurs, the developing conceptus begins to secrete hCG from the syncytiotrophoblast. This hormone is a convenient marker for pregnancy, not ovulation.

      Understanding the roles of these hormones can help women better understand their menstrual cycle and fertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 8 - An 80-year-old woman presents to the clinic with complaints of persistent urinary incontinence,...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman presents to the clinic with complaints of persistent urinary incontinence, exacerbated by laughing or coughing. Despite undergoing supervised pelvic floor exercises for four months, she still experiences a significant impact on her quality of life. While surgical intervention was discussed, she prefers medical management. What medication would be the most suitable for managing her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Duloxetine

      Explanation:

      If a patient with stress incontinence does not respond to pelvic floor muscle exercises and declines surgical intervention, duloxetine may be used. Antimuscarinics are the first-line treatment for urge incontinence in patients who do not respond to bladder training, with oxybutynin (immediate-release), tolterodine (immediate-release), or darifenacin (once daily preparation) being recommended by NICE. Mirabegron, a beta-3 agonist, is used when antimuscarinics are contraindicated or when there are concerns about their side effects, particularly in frail elderly women. Desmopressin is not a treatment for stress incontinence, but it may be considered off-label for patients with troublesome nocturia, except for women aged 65 years or over with cardiovascular disease or hypertension.

      Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management

      Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.

      In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 9 - A 16-year-old male comes to your clinic and asks for the contraceptive pill....

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old male comes to your clinic and asks for the contraceptive pill. He appears to have Gillick competency, but he reveals that his girlfriend is 24 and a teacher at a nearby private school. He confirms that she is not pregnant and that her last period was 3 weeks ago. He specifically requests that you do not inform anyone, including his mother who is also a patient of yours. How do you proceed?

      Your Answer: Inform her that you need to tell social services and child protection due to the age and position of trust of her boyfriend. Try to get her consent but explain you will still need to tell them if she doesn't consent

      Explanation:

      According to the GMC guidelines in good medical practice for individuals aged 0-18 years, it is important to disclose information regarding any abusive or seriously harmful sexual activity involving a child or young person. This includes situations where the young person is too immature to understand or consent, there are significant differences in age, maturity, or power between sexual partners, the young person’s sexual partner holds a position of trust, force or the threat of force, emotional or psychological pressure, bribery or payment is used to engage in sexual activity or keep it secret, drugs or alcohol are used to influence a young person to engage in sexual activity, or the person involved is known to the police or child protection agencies for having abusive relationships with children or young people.

      Failing to disclose this information or simply prescribing contraception and waiting for a review can put both the patient and other students at the boyfriend’s school in harm’s way due to his position of trust. While informing the boyfriend or his school may breach confidentiality and not address the issue of his job and relationship, it is important to take appropriate action to protect the safety and well-being of the young person involved.

      When it comes to providing contraception to young people, there are legal and ethical considerations to take into account. In the UK, the age of consent for sexual activity is 16 years, but practitioners may still offer advice and contraception to young people they deem competent. The Fraser Guidelines are often used to assess a young person’s competence. Children under the age of 13 are considered unable to consent to sexual intercourse, and consultations regarding this age group should trigger child protection measures automatically.

      It’s important to advise young people to have STI tests 2 and 12 weeks after an incident of unprotected sexual intercourse. Long-acting reversible contraceptive methods (LARCs) are often the best choice for young people, as they may be less reliable in remembering to take medication. However, there are concerns about the effect of progesterone-only injections (Depo-provera) on bone mineral density, and the UKMEC category of the IUS and IUD is 2 for women under the age of 20 years, meaning they may not be the best choice. The progesterone-only implant (Nexplanon) is therefore the LARC of choice for young people.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old woman comes to your GP office on Monday morning, concerned that...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to your GP office on Monday morning, concerned that she removed her week 2 contraceptive patch on Friday evening and was unable to get a replacement over the weekend. She has not engaged in sexual activity in the past two weeks.

      What is the best course of action to take?

      Your Answer: Replace patch immediately, no additional precautions required

      Correct Answer: No emergency contraception required, but apply new patch and advise barrier contraception for the next 7 days

      Explanation:

      If there has been a delay in changing the patch for over 48 hours but no sexual activity has occurred within the past 10 days, emergency contraception is not necessary. However, the individual must use barrier contraception for the next 7 days and replace the patch immediately. If there is no sexual activity planned for the next 7 days, no further action is required, but it is important to advise the individual to use barrier contraception during this time. It is crucial to replace the patch as soon as possible to ensure effective contraceptive coverage.

      The Evra patch is the only contraceptive patch that is approved for use in the UK. The patch cycle lasts for four weeks, during which the patch is worn every day for the first three weeks and changed weekly. During the fourth week, the patch is not worn, and a withdrawal bleed occurs.

      If a woman delays changing the patch at the end of week one or two, she should change it immediately. If the delay is less than 48 hours, no further precautions are necessary. However, if the delay is more than 48 hours, she should change the patch immediately and use a barrier method of contraception for the next seven days. If she has had unprotected sex during this extended patch-free interval or in the last five days, emergency contraception should be considered.

      If the patch removal is delayed at the end of week three, the woman should remove the patch as soon as possible and apply a new patch on the usual cycle start day for the next cycle, even if withdrawal bleeding is occurring. No additional contraception is needed.

      If patch application is delayed at the end of a patch-free week, additional barrier contraception should be used for seven days following any delay at the start of a new patch cycle. For more information, please refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on combined hormonal methods of contraception.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gynaecology (5/10) 50%
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