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  • Question 1 - A 29-year-old female patient presents to the clinic with a complaint of missed...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old female patient presents to the clinic with a complaint of missed periods for the past four months despite negative pregnancy tests. She is also distressed about the loss of her libido and has noticed milk leakage with minimal nipple stimulation during intercourse. On physical examination, her blood pressure is 122/70 mmHg, pulse is 70 and regular, and general physical examination is unremarkable. Which blood test is most likely to show elevated levels?

      Your Answer: Prolactin

      Explanation:

      Symptoms and Diagnosis of Hyperprolactinaemia

      Hyperprolactinaemia is a condition characterized by elevated levels of prolactin in the body. This condition is typically associated with symptoms such as milk production, decreased libido, and absence of menstruation. However, visual disturbances are not always present, as many cases of hyperprolactinaemia are related to a microprolactinoma.

      When diagnosing hyperprolactinaemia, it is important to assess thyroid status as this condition is often associated with hypothyroidism. Thyroxine levels are usually low in individuals with hyperprolactinaemia. Additionally, beta-HCG levels are elevated in pregnancy, so it is important to rule out pregnancy as a potential cause of elevated prolactin levels.

      In summary, hyperprolactinaemia is a condition that can present with a variety of symptoms, but is typically characterized by elevated prolactin levels. Diagnosis involves assessing thyroid status and ruling out pregnancy as a potential cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      23.4
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  • Question 2 - A middle-aged woman presents with increasing fatigue and daytime exhaustion that is starting...

    Correct

    • A middle-aged woman presents with increasing fatigue and daytime exhaustion that is starting to affect her work as a receptionist. She has been referred to the gynaecology clinic for evaluation of menorrhagia. What results would you anticipate on her complete blood count (CBC)?

      Your Answer: Haemoglobin - low, MCV - reduced

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Blood Results for Anaemia: Understanding the Relationship between Haemoglobin and MCV

      When interpreting blood results for anaemia, it is important to understand the relationship between haemoglobin and mean corpuscular volume (MCV). A low haemoglobin and reduced MCV may indicate iron deficiency anaemia secondary to menorrhagia, which is a common cause of microcytosis. Treatment for this would involve managing the underlying menorrhagia and supplementing with iron. On the other hand, a low haemoglobin and raised MCV may indicate macrocytic anaemia, commonly associated with vitamin B12 or folate deficiency. It is important to note that a normal haemoglobin with a reduced MCV or a normal haemoglobin and MCV is unlikely in cases of significant symptoms and abnormal bleeding. Understanding these relationships can aid in the diagnosis and management of anaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      30.9
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  • Question 3 - A 70-year-old man presents to the clinic with a four-month history of abdominal...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man presents to the clinic with a four-month history of abdominal swelling and discomfort along with breathlessness. Upon examination, he appears unwell and pale. The liver is palpable 12 cm below the right costal margin, and the spleen is palpable 15 cm below the left costal margin. No lymphadenopathy is detected. The following investigations were conducted:

      Hb 59 g/L (130-180)
      RBC 2.1 ×1012/L -
      PCV 0.17 l/l -
      MCH 30 pg (28-32)
      MCV 82 fL (80-96)
      Reticulocytes 1.4% (0.5-2.4)
      Total WBC 23 ×109/L (4-11)
      Normoblasts 8% -
      Platelets 280 ×109/L (150-400)
      Neutrophils 9.0 ×109/L (1.5-7)
      Lymphocytes 5.2 ×109/L (1.5-4)
      Monocytes 1.3 ×109/L (0-0.8)
      Eosinophils 0.2 ×109/L (0.04-0.4)
      Basophils 0.2 ×109/L (0-0.1)
      Metamyelocytes 5.1 ×109/L -
      Myelocytes 1.6 ×109/L -
      Blast cells 0.4 ×109/L -

      The blood film shows anisocytosis, poikilocytosis, and occasional erythrocyte tear drop cells. What is the correct term for this blood picture?

      Your Answer: Leukoerythroblastic anaemia

      Explanation:

      Leukoerythroblastic Reactions and Myelofibrosis

      Leukoerythroblastic reactions refer to a condition where the peripheral blood contains immature white cells and nucleated red cells, regardless of the total white cell count. This means that even if the overall white cell count is normal, the presence of immature white cells and nucleated red cells can indicate a leukoerythroblastic reaction. Additionally, circulating blasts may also be seen in this condition.

      On the other hand, myelofibrosis is characterized by the presence of tear drop cells. These cells are not typically seen in other conditions and are therefore considered a hallmark of myelofibrosis. Tear drop cells are red blood cells that have been distorted due to the presence of fibrous tissue in the bone marrow. This condition can lead to anemia, fatigue, and other symptoms.

      Overall, both leukoerythroblastic reactions and myelofibrosis are conditions that can be identified through specific characteristics in the peripheral blood. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these findings in order to properly diagnose and treat patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      65
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  • Question 4 - The most common error in transfusion according to the SHOT (serious hazards of...

    Correct

    • The most common error in transfusion according to the SHOT (serious hazards of transfusion) analysis?

      Your Answer: Wrong identification or mislabelling of patient or sample

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Transfusion Errors

      Mislabelling of samples, requests, or misidentifying recipients are the most frequent causes of transfusion errors. This was confirmed by the SHOT study, which examined transfusion errors and near-misses in a nationwide audit in the United Kingdom. Although other errors, such as cross-match errors, incorrect storage, and transfusion reactions due to undetected antibodies, do occur, they are infrequent.

      In summary, the SHOT study found that the most common causes of transfusion errors are related to labelling and identification. Therefore, it is crucial to implement strict protocols and procedures to ensure that samples and requests are correctly labelled and recipients are accurately identified to prevent these errors from occurring. While other errors may occur, they are rare and can be mitigated through proper training and adherence to established guidelines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      19.8
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  • Question 5 - A young man comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue, tiredness, and pallor....

    Correct

    • A young man comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue, tiredness, and pallor. Upon conducting a full blood count, it is revealed that he has acute lymphoblastic leukemia. Among the following options, which is linked to the poorest prognosis in ALL?

      Your Answer: Philadelphia chromosome present

      Explanation:

      Prognostic Factors in Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. There are several factors that can affect the prognosis of a patient with ALL. Good prognostic factors include having the FAB L1 type, common ALL, a pre-B phenotype, and a low initial white blood cell count. On the other hand, poor prognostic factors include having the FAB L3 type, B or T cell type, the Philadelphia translocation (t(9;22)), increasing age at diagnosis, male sex, CNS involvement, and a high initial white blood cell count (e.g. > 100).

      It is important for healthcare professionals to consider these prognostic factors when diagnosing and treating patients with ALL. By identifying these factors, they can better predict the outcome of the disease and tailor treatment plans accordingly. Patients with good prognostic factors may have a better chance of survival and may require less aggressive treatment, while those with poor prognostic factors may need more intensive therapy. Overall, the prognostic factors in ALL can help healthcare professionals provide the best possible care for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The risk of contracting a viral infection through a blood transfusion can vary...

    Correct

    • The risk of contracting a viral infection through a blood transfusion can vary greatly. What is the estimated risk of hepatitis B transmission in the United Kingdom, for instance?

      Your Answer: 1 per 1 million donations

      Explanation:

      Infective Risks of Blood Transfusion

      Blood transfusions carry the risk of transmitting viral infections such as hepatitis B, hepatitis C, and HIV. The likelihood of infection varies depending on the source of the donation and the type of testing used. In the UK, the risk of contracting hepatitis B from a blood transfusion is approximately 1 in 1.3 million donations. The risks for HIV and hepatitis C are even lower, at 1 in 6.5 million and 1 in 28 million donations, respectively. It is important for healthcare professionals to have a comprehensive of these risks when obtaining consent from patients for blood transfusions. Adequate knowledge and communication can help patients make informed decisions about their healthcare.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      31.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old man visits the clinic seeking guidance. He has planned a long-distance...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man visits the clinic seeking guidance. He has planned a long-distance trip to Australia and is worried about the risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). He has no significant medical history and is in good health.
      What is the best advice to offer him?

      Your Answer: No aspirin, flight stockings, ankle exercises, aisle seat

      Correct Answer: No aspirin, ankle exercises, aisle seat and no alcohol

      Explanation:

      Venous Thromboembolism Prophylaxis for Long-Haul Flights

      When it comes to preventing venous thromboembolism (VTE) during long-haul flights, the approach varies depending on the patient’s risk level. For low-risk patients without history of VTE, cardiac disease, major illness, or recent surgery, NICE recommends avoiding long periods of immobility by taking an aisle seat, performing ankle exercises, and wearing loose-fitting clothing. It’s also important to stay hydrated and avoid alcohol.

      Moderate to high-risk patients, on the other hand, may benefit from compression stockings, especially if they have a history of VTE, cardiac disease, varicose veins, or are pregnant or postpartum. High-risk patients with thrombophilia, cancer, or recent surgery requiring general anesthesia should also consider compression stockings.

      While some sources recommend a single dose of aspirin for VTE prophylaxis during long-haul flights, current NICE guidelines do not recommend this approach. Instead, patients should focus on staying mobile, wearing compression stockings if necessary, and staying hydrated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      58.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 68-year-old man who has been diagnosed with severe Gram-positive sepsis is admitted...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man who has been diagnosed with severe Gram-positive sepsis is admitted to the Intensive Care Unit (ICU). However, he is starting to deteriorate despite being on the Sepsis Six Bundle. He is pyrexial and appears very unwell. On examination:
      Investigation Results Normal value
      Respiratory rate (RR) 30 breaths/minute 12–18 breaths/minute
      Heart rate (HR) 120 bpm 60–100 bpm
      Blood pressure (BP) 88/40 mmHg < 120/80 mmHg
      You noted some bleeding along the cannulation site and on his gums. The coagulation profile showed prolonged prothrombin time, a decrease in fibrinogen level and marked elevation of D-dimer. He has some purpuric rash on his extremities.
      Which of the following is the most likely cause of the above condition?

      Your Answer: Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC)

      Explanation:

      Comparison of DIC, von Willebrand’s Disease, Liver Failure, Haemophilia, and Heparin Administration

      Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC) is a serious complication of severe sepsis that can lead to multiorgan failure and widespread bleeding. It is characterized by high prothrombin time and the use of fibrinogen for widespread clot formation, resulting in high levels of D-dimer due to intense fibrinolytic activity. DIC is a paradoxical state in which the patient is prone to clotting but also to bleeding.

      Von Willebrand’s disease is an inherited disorder of coagulation that is usually autosomal dominant. There is insufficient information to suggest that the patient in this case has von Willebrand’s disease.

      Liver failure could result in excessive bleeding due to disruption of liver synthetic function, but there is no other information to support liver failure in this case. Signs of hepatic encephalopathy or jaundice would also be expected.

      Haemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder of coagulation that is characterized by prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) and normal prothrombin time.

      There is no information to suggest that heparin has been administered, and the bleeding time and platelet count would be normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A patient who is seen in the Renal Outpatient Department for glomerulonephritis presents...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who is seen in the Renal Outpatient Department for glomerulonephritis presents to the Emergency Department with a swollen, erythematosus right leg with a 4-cm difference in circumference between the right and left leg. Routine blood tests show:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Sodium (Na+) 143 mmol 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.2 mmol 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 10.1 mmol 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 120 μmol 50–120 µmol/l
      eGFR 60ml/min/1.73m2
      Corrected calcium (Ca2+) 2.25 mmol 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
      Bilirubin 7 μmol 2–17 µmol/l
      Albumin 32 g/l 35–55 g/l
      Alkaline phosphatase 32 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
      Aspartate transaminase (AST) 15 IU/l 10–40 IU/l
      Gamma-Glutamyl transferase (γGT) 32 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
      C-reactive protein (CRP) 15 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
      Haemoglobin 78 g/l
      Males: 135–175 g/l
      Females: 115–155 g/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 92 fl 76–98 fl
      Platelets 302 x 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      White cell count (WCC) 8.5 x 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Which of the following should be commenced after confirmation of the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Low molecular weight heparin

      Correct Answer: Apixaban

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidance, the first-line treatment for a confirmed proximal deep vein thrombosis is a direct oral anticoagulant such as apixaban or rivaroxaban. When warfarin is used, an initial pro-coagulant state occurs, so heparin is needed for cover until the INR reaches the target therapeutic range and until day 5. Low-molecular-weight heparin is typically used with warfarin in the initial anticoagulation phase, but it can accumulate in patients with renal dysfunction. Unfractionated heparin infusion is used in these cases. For patients with normal or slightly deranged renal function, low-molecular-weight heparin can be given once per day as a subcutaneous preparation. However, warfarin is not the first-line treatment according to NICE guidance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      43.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 55-year-old woman presents at the clinic for evaluation. She has not experienced...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents at the clinic for evaluation. She has not experienced menstrual periods for the past six months and has taken two pregnancy tests, both of which were negative. Upon clinical examination, no abnormalities were found. The patient desires a blood test to determine if she has entered menopause. What is the most sensitive hormone to test for this purpose?

      Your Answer: Oestrogen

      Correct Answer: FSH

      Explanation:

      Hormone Levels and Menopausal Status

      Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) levels that are greater than 30 IU/l, repeated over a period of four to eight weeks, are typically indicative of menopause. It is important to ensure that FSH is tested when the patient is not on contraception, although this is not relevant in the current scenario. While oestrogen and progesterone levels decrease after menopause, their assay is less reliable in determining menopausal status compared to FSH levels. Beta-HCG levels are elevated during pregnancy and trophoblastic disease, while prolactin levels increase in response to certain drug therapies and the presence of a pituitary tumour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      22.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Haematology (7/10) 70%
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