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Question 1
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What is the probable reason for the nail changes observed in Mr Williams, an 86-year-old retired dock worker with a history of hypertension and mitral valve replacement, who visited his general practitioner with symptoms of fever, night sweats and fatigue? During examination, his hands showed loss of angle between the nail fold and nail plate, a bulbous fingertip, and painful, erythematous nodules present on both hands.
Your Answer: Infective endocarditis
Explanation:The patient’s nail signs suggest a diagnosis of clubbing, which is commonly seen in various internal conditions such as cardiac issues like infective endocarditis and cyanotic congenital heart disease, respiratory problems like bronchial cancer, tuberculosis, sarcoidosis, cystic fibrosis, and pulmonary fibrosis, gastrointestinal issues like inflammatory bowel disease, biliary cirrhosis, and malabsorption, and other conditions like thyroid acropachy. The presence of Osler’s nodes, painful nodules caused by immune complex deposition, further supports a diagnosis of infective endocarditis, which is commonly associated with this symptom. Although the patient has a history of potential asbestos exposure, the history of heart valve replacement, current symptoms, and nail signs point towards infective endocarditis as the likely diagnosis. Other conditions like inflammatory bowel disease, pulmonary fibrosis, sarcoidosis, and tuberculosis can cause clubbing but not Osler’s nodes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 72-year-old retired gardener is referred to the Dermatology Clinic with a 2-month history of an ulcerated lesion on the left ear. He explains that the lesion was initially a small white lump which was present for many months, which then broke down into the ulcer.
On examination, a 0.5 cm ulcerated lesion is noted on the left pinna, with a rolled pearly edge. Closer inspection with a dermatoscope shows some telangiectasia around the edge. The dermatologist suspects that the lesion is a rodent ulcer.
Which one of the following statements is true regarding rodent ulcers?Your Answer: They are basal cell carcinomas
Explanation:Understanding Rodent Ulcers: Characteristics and Treatment Options
Rodent ulcers, also known as basal cell carcinomas, are malignant skin lesions that commonly occur on the upper part of the face and ears, particularly in sun-exposed areas. They present as a pearly white nodule with telangiectasia and may ulcerate with a rolled edge as they enlarge. Unlike squamous cell carcinomas, rodent ulcers rarely metastasize via the bloodstream. Instead, they are malignant through local invasion, causing significant tissue damage by eroding into local tissue.
Treatment options for rodent ulcers depend on the depth of the ulcer. Surgical excision with an excision margin of 3-5 mm, Mohs micrographic surgery, radiotherapy, and curettage, cautery, and cryotherapy are all viable options. Mohs micrographic surgery is particularly useful for lesions on the face where wide excision is not appropriate.
In contrast, squamous cell carcinomas are malignant skin lesions that usually present as an ulcerated lesion with hard and raised edges in sun-exposed areas. They can occur on the lips in smokers and can metastasize, although spread is typically local. Treatment for squamous cell carcinomas involves excision and radiotherapy.
In summary, understanding the characteristics and treatment options for rodent ulcers is crucial for effective management of this type of skin cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 19-year-old man is suffering from acne vulgaris, with inflamed, open comedones on his face, chest and neck. What micro-organism degrades sebum to produce inflammatory fatty acids in such cases?
Your Answer: Propionibacterium acnes
Explanation:Common Skin Infections and their Causes
Acne vulgaris is a prevalent skin condition among adolescents and young adults, particularly men. Hormonal changes stimulate the sebaceous glands to produce more sebum, leading to the formation of open comedones, which are inflamed follicles with a central dark plug of keratin. Propionibacterium acnes is responsible for breaking down complex lipids in sebum into free fatty acids, which cause inflammation of hair follicles. Treatment with antibiotics and 13-cis-retinoic acid can alleviate the symptoms of acne vulgaris.
Molluscum contagiosum is caused by the poxvirus, which leads to epidermal hyperplasia and ellipsoid molluscum bodies in the stratum corneum.
Impetigo is a bacterial infection of the skin caused by Staphylococcus aureus. It is highly contagious and often affects healthy children. The infection starts as a reddened macule and progresses to multiple serum-filled pustules that rupture and form a yellowish crust.
Papillomavirus causes warts or verrucae, which are common on the hands. They appear as several papules with a rough, irregular surface.
Tinea versicolor is caused by Malassezia furfur, a fungus that causes superficial fungal infections in the skin. Other forms of tinea are also caused by fungal infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman with a history of ulcerative colitis visits her General Practitioner (GP) complaining of a painful ulcer on her right shin that is rapidly increasing in size. The patient noticed a small blister in the area a few days ago, which has now broken down into an ulcer that is continuing to enlarge. The doctor suspects that the skin lesion may be pyoderma gangrenosum. What is the most commonly associated condition with pyoderma gangrenosum?
Your Answer: Coeliac disease
Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Explanation:Skin Conditions Associated with Various Diseases
Pyoderma gangrenosum is a skin condition characterized by a painful ulcer that rapidly enlarges. It is commonly associated with inflammatory bowel disease, hepatitis, rheumatoid arthritis, and certain types of leukemia. However, it is not commonly associated with HIV infection or coeliac disease. Dermatitis herpetiformis is a skin condition associated with coeliac disease, while patients with rheumatoid arthritis are at higher risk of developing pyoderma gangrenosum compared to those with osteoarthritis. Haematological malignancies commonly associated with pyoderma gangrenosum include acute myeloid leukemia and hairy cell leukemia, while cutaneous lesions in multiple myeloma are uncommon.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 5
Correct
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A mother brings her 9-month old to her General Practitioner (GP) worried about a raised red mark on the baby's cheek. The mark is now 7 mm in diameter, has a smooth outline, and is a regular circular shape with consistent color all over. It appeared about four months ago and has been gradually increasing in size. The baby was born at full term via normal vaginal delivery and has been generally healthy. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Infantile haemangioma (strawberry mark)
Explanation:Types of Birthmarks in Children: Characteristics and Considerations
Birthmarks are common in children and can vary in appearance and location on the body. Understanding the characteristics of different types of birthmarks can help parents and healthcare providers determine if further evaluation or treatment is necessary.
Infantile haemangiomas, also known as strawberry marks, are raised and red in color. They typically grow for the first six months of life and then shrink, disappearing by age 7. Treatment is usually not necessary unless they affect vision or feeding.
Café-au-lait spots are flat, coffee-colored patches on the skin. While one or two are common, more than six by age 5 may indicate neurofibromatosis.
Capillary malformations, or port wine stains, are dark red or purple and not raised. They tend to affect the face, chest, or back and may increase in size during puberty, pregnancy, or menopause.
Malignant melanoma is rare in children but should be considered if a lesion exhibits the ABCD rules.
Salmon patches, or stork marks, are flat and red or pink and commonly occur on the forehead, eyelids, or neck. They typically fade after a few months.
By understanding the characteristics and considerations of different types of birthmarks, parents and healthcare providers can ensure appropriate evaluation and treatment if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 28-year-old fair-skinned woman presents with a facial rash and is concerned it may be acne. She is frustrated as she did not experience it severely during her teenage years. The rash is characterized by erythema on the cheeks, nose, and centre of the forehead, with additional lesions present in the affected area. Based on this presentation, what skin lesion would suggest a diagnosis of acne vulgaris rather than rosacea?
Your Answer: Comedone
Explanation:Differences and Similarities between Acne and Rosacea
Acne vulgaris and rosacea are two common skin conditions that affect the face. While they share some similarities, they also have distinct differences.
Acne vulgaris is characterized by a mixture of comedones, papules, pustules, nodules, and cysts. Comedones are formed when the cells lining the sebaceous duct proliferate excessively and block the duct. Open comedones are blackheads, while closed comedones are whiteheads. Other types of comedones include giant comedones and solar comedones. Acne vulgaris usually starts in puberty and can continue into adulthood.
On the other hand, rosacea is a chronic or intermittent rash that affects the central face. It is characterized by blushing or flushing and persistent redness and telangiectasia. Telangiectasias are small, dilated blood vessels that appear as red lines on the skin. Papules and pustules may also develop, and the skin may be dry and flaky. The nose may have prominent pores due to sebaceous gland hyperplasia.
While both acne and rosacea can present with papules, pustules, and crusting, comedones are a characteristic feature of acne and are not present in rosacea. Additionally, acne vulgaris usually starts in puberty and is more common in younger individuals, while rosacea typically affects those aged 30-60.
In summary, while acne and rosacea share some similarities in their presentation, they also have distinct differences that can help differentiate between the two conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 23-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of redness and itching on his face and hands. He has been to another GP for similar issues in the past two years and has been on sick leave from his job as a builder. He is currently receiving benefits and is in the process of making an insurance claim for loss of earnings. He mentions that there was one ointment that worked for him, but he has not been able to find it again. On examination, there are no visible skin lesions or rash. The patient appears unconcerned and requests that his GP sign his insurance claim paperwork. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Malingering
Explanation:Somatoform Disorders, Malingering, and Munchausen’s Syndrome
Somatoform disorders are characterized by the unconscious drive to produce illness and the motivation to seek medical attention. On the other hand, malingering involves a conscious effort to fake or claim a disorder for personal gain, such as financial compensation. Meanwhile, Munchausen’s syndrome is a chronic condition where patients have a history of multiple hospital admissions and are willing to undergo invasive procedures.
In somatoform disorders, patients are not intentionally faking their symptoms. Instead, their unconscious mind is producing physical symptoms as a way to cope with psychological distress. This can lead to a cycle of seeking medical attention and undergoing unnecessary tests and procedures. In contrast, malingering is a deliberate attempt to deceive medical professionals for personal gain. Patients may exaggerate or fabricate symptoms to receive compensation or avoid legal consequences.
Munchausen’s syndrome is a rare condition where patients repeatedly seek medical attention and undergo invasive procedures despite having no actual medical condition. This behavior is driven by a desire for attention and sympathy from medical professionals. Patients with Munchausen’s syndrome may go to great lengths to maintain their deception, including intentionally harming themselves to produce symptoms.
In summary, somatoform disorders, malingering, and Munchausen’s syndrome are all conditions that involve the production or faking of physical symptoms. However, the motivations behind these behaviors differ. these conditions can help medical professionals provide appropriate care and support for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man with psoriasis affecting the scalp and legs visits his General Practitioner with ongoing symptoms despite using once-daily Betnovate® (potent steroid) and a vitamin D analogue for six weeks. What should be the next course of action in managing this patient?
Your Answer: Refer to Dermatology
Correct Answer: Stop steroid treatment and continue vitamin D analogue twice daily
Explanation:Management of Psoriasis: Next Steps and Referral Considerations
Psoriasis management follows a stepwise approach, as per NICE guidance. For a patient who has already received eight weeks of once-daily potent steroid with a vitamin D analogue, the next step is to stop the steroid and start twice-daily vitamin D analogue. Steroids should not be applied at the same site for more than eight weeks, after which patients require a 4-week ‘treatment break’. If there is still no improvement in symptoms at the end of the 4-week steroid-free break, twice-daily steroids can be trialled or a coal tar preparation can be started.
Referral to Dermatology may be necessary if the patient is severely affected by psoriasis or struggling to manage the condition. However, starting the next stage of treatment, which is twice-daily vitamin D analogue, would be the most appropriate while awaiting secondary care review.
Continuing steroids for a further four weeks would result in an excessively long duration of steroid treatment and risk side-effects such as skin thinning. Patients should have a minimum of four weeks steroid-free after an 8-week treatment course.
While some patients with severe psoriasis may require an ultra-potent steroid, this patient has already received eight weeks of a potent steroid and requires a 4-week steroid-free break. Following this, it may be appropriate to trial a short course of an ultra-potent steroid or to retrial the potent steroid twice daily.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 56-year-old woman with a 28-year history of psoriasis presents to the Dermatologist. Despite treatment with ciclosporin, she has multiple patches on her arms, legs and scalp, which affect her sleep and work. The Dermatologist decides to initiate biological therapy with a TNF-alpha inhibitor. The patient has a past medical history of inactive tuberculosis.
Which TNF-alpha inhibitor is the Dermatologist likely to prescribe for the patient's severe psoriasis?Your Answer: Adalimumab
Explanation:Biological Agents for the Treatment of Psoriasis
Psoriasis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the skin and joints. Biological agents have revolutionized the treatment of psoriasis by targeting specific molecules involved in the immune response. Here are some commonly used biological agents for the treatment of psoriasis:
Adalimumab: This agent targets tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha), a cytokine involved in systemic inflammation. Adalimumab is used when other systemic treatments have failed and the disease is severe.
Brodalumab: This agent targets the interleukin 17 receptor found on CD8+ cytotoxic T cells. It is used when methotrexate or ciclosporin have failed.
Infliximab: This agent is also a TNF-alpha inhibitor, but it has been shown to reactivate latent tuberculosis. Therefore, it should be used with caution in patients with a history of tuberculosis.
Guselkumab: This agent targets interleukin 23, which is involved in the activation of T17 lymphocytes. It is used in the treatment of moderate to severe psoriasis.
Secukinumab: This agent targets interleukin 17, which is found on CD8+ cytotoxic T cells. It is used in the treatment of moderate to severe psoriasis.
Before starting any of these agents, certain criteria must be met, such as failure of other treatments and severity of the disease. Additionally, some agents may be contraindicated in patients with certain medical histories, such as a history of tuberculosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents with shiny, flat, red papules over her anterior wrists and forearms. The papules are extremely pruritic and some of them have a central depression. Similar papules are seen along the scratch line at the volar surface of the forearm. The patient is a nurse and has had at least three needlestick injuries during the past 2 years. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay is negative. Hepatitis B surface antigen and anti-HBc antibody are negative, but anti-HBs antibody is positive. Anti-hepatitis C (HCV) antibody is positive.
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Chronic hepatitis B
Correct Answer: Lichen planus
Explanation:Common Skin Conditions and Associated Antibodies
Lichen Planus: This skin condition is associated with viral hepatitis, specifically hepatitis B and C. Antibodies may indicate the presence of hepatitis and other conditions such as erythema multiforme, urticaria, polyarteritis nodosa, cryoglobulinemia, and porphyria cutanea tarda.
Chronic Hepatitis B: A negative anti-HBc antibody status suggests that the patient has not been exposed to the hepatitis B virus. A positive anti-HBs antibody status may indicate vaccination.
Dermatitis Herpetiformis: This condition is characterized by extremely itchy papulovesicles on the elbows, knees, upper back, and buttocks. It is often associated with gluten-sensitive enteropathy. Autoantibodies such as anti-gliadin, anti-endomysial, and anti-tissue transglutaminase may be present.
Essential Mixed Cryoglobulinemia: This condition presents with palpable purpura and arthritis, among other signs of systemic vasculitis. It is also associated with hepatitis C virus infection, and rheumatoid factor is usually positive.
Dermatomyositis: Gottron’s papules, which are violet, flat-topped lesions, are associated with dermatomyositis and the anti-Jo-1 autoantibody. They are typically seen over the metacarpophalangeal or interphalangeal joints.
Skin Conditions and Their Antibody Associations
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man comes to his GP clinic complaining of pruritic, polygonal, violaceous papules on the inner aspect of his forearm. Several of these papules have merged to form plaques.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Scabies
Correct Answer: Lichen planus
Explanation:Common Skin Disorders and Their Characteristics
Lichen planus is a skin disorder that has an unknown cause but is likely autoimmune. On the other hand, lichen sclerosus is characterized by itchy white spots that are commonly seen on the vulva of elderly women. Scabies, which typically affects children and young adults, causes widespread itching and linear burrows on finger sides, interdigital webs, and the flexor aspect of the wrist. Eczema usually presents as an itchy, red rash in the flexural areas, while psoriasis is characterized by itchy white or red patches on the extensor surfaces. These are some of the most common skin disorders and their distinct characteristics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 30-year-old man comes to the dermatology clinic with several small fleshy nodules around and under his finger and toe nails. Upon further inquiry, it is revealed that the patient has a history of seizures that are hard to manage.
What is the probable underlying condition?Your Answer: Tuberous sclerosis
Explanation:Genetic Tumor Disorders and Their Skin Manifestations
There are several genetic disorders that predispose individuals to the formation of tumors, including those in the nervous system. These disorders can also have distinct skin manifestations that aid in their diagnosis.
Tuberous Sclerosis: This rare multisystem genetic disease is caused by abnormalities on chromosome 9 and leads to the formation of benign tumors (hamartomas) in various organs, including the brain, eyes, skin, kidney, and heart. Skin problems associated with tuberous sclerosis include periungual fibromas, adenoma sebaceum, ‘ash leaf’ hypomelanotic macules, café-au-lait patches, subcutaneous nodules, and shagreen patches. Neurological symptoms such as seizures, developmental delay, behavioral problems, and learning difficulties can also occur.
Neurofibromatosis I: This inherited condition causes tumors (neurofibromas) to grow within the nervous system and is characterized by café-au-lait spots on the skin.
Von Hippel-Lindau Disease: This inherited tumor disorder is caused by a mutation in a tumor suppressor gene on chromosome 3 and is commonly associated with angiomatosis, hemangioblastomas, and pheochromocytomas.
Neurofibromatosis II: This disorder presents with bilateral hearing loss due to the development of bilateral acoustic neuromas.
Sturge-Weber Syndrome: This congenital disorder is identified by a port-wine stain on the forehead, scalp, or around the eye.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl came to the clinic with several erythematosus lesions on her trunk. The lesions had a collarette of scales at their periphery and were asymptomatic. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Psoriasis
Correct Answer: Pityriasis rosea
Explanation:Pityriasis Rosea: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment
Pityriasis rosea is a skin condition that typically begins with a single patch, known as the herald or mother patch. This is followed by smaller patches that appear in clusters, resembling a Christmas tree pattern on the upper trunk of the body. These patches have a fine ring of scales around their edges, known as a collarette. The condition is believed to be caused by a viral infection and typically lasts for six to eight weeks. While there is no specific treatment for pityriasis rosea, symptoms can be managed with over-the-counter medications and topical creams.
Pityriasis rosea is a common skin condition that can cause discomfort and embarrassment for those affected. the symptoms, causes, and treatment options can help individuals manage the condition and alleviate symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old West Indian diplomat, while on secondment in the United Kingdom, develops an uncomfortable raised rash on the anterior aspects of both her lower legs. She has prided herself with her remarkably good health over the years. She has recently visited Nigeria, Guyana and Vietnam for her work.
What would be the most appropriate initial investigation to conduct?Your Answer: Stool microbiology
Correct Answer: Chest X-ray
Explanation:The patient is presenting with erythema nodosum, which may have an unknown cause or could be related to their extensive travel history. While a skin biopsy may provide a definitive diagnosis, the best initial investigation is a chest X-ray to rule out tuberculosis and sarcoidosis. A blood film is not necessary as there is no indication of malaria. An ultrasound of the abdomen is not useful in this case, as the skin lesions are the primary concern. Stool microbiology is not necessary as there is no mention of diarrhea. While a skin biopsy may provide information on the lesions themselves, it does not aid in identifying the underlying cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 6-year-old girl visits her GP with her mother, complaining of a sore and itchy patch around her upper lip for the past 3 days. The mother noticed a few small blisters on the lip that burst, leaving brown and/or honey-coloured crusts on the affected area. The patch has been gradually increasing in size. After examination, the GP diagnoses impetigo.
What is the most probable cause of impetigo in this case?Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Understanding Impetigo and its Causes
Impetigo is a highly contagious skin infection that commonly affects children. It is caused by Staphylococcus aureus, which presents as red sores and blisters on the face, leaving behind golden crusts. While the condition is usually self-limiting, treatment is recommended to prevent spreading to others. Staphylococcus epidermidis, a normal human flora, is an unlikely cause of impetigo, but may infect immunocompromised patients in hospital settings. Staphylococcus saprophyticus is associated with urinary tract infections, while Streptococcus viridans is found in the oral cavity and can cause subacute bacterial endocarditis. Candida albicans, a pathogenic yeast, commonly causes candidiasis in immunocompromised individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents with erythema, vesicles and crusted ulcerations on the right scalp, forehead and periorbital region. The affected area is swollen and causing him pain. Additionally, there are some vesicles present at the tip of his nose. He reports experiencing a headache in that area several days prior to the onset of the rash. What is the most probable causative organism for this rash?
Your Answer: Herpes simplex virus infection
Correct Answer: Varicella-zoster virus
Explanation:Common Skin Infections and Their Causes
Skin infections can be caused by a variety of pathogens, including viruses, fungi, and bacteria. Here are some common skin infections and their causes:
Varicella-zoster virus: This virus causes shingles, which is a reactivation of the virus that has been dormant in the dorsal root ganglia after the patient’s initial exposure to the virus in the form of chickenpox. A live attenuated vaccine is now available that is effective in preventing shingles.
Herpes simplex virus infection: This virus can occasionally appear in a dermatomal distribution, mimicking shingles. It presents with erythema and vesicles, but the area of skin involved is usually much less than in shingles and pain is not as prominent.
Malassezia furfur: This fungus causes tinea versicolor, a common benign, superficial cutaneous fungal infection characterized by hypopigmented or hyperpigmented macules and patches on the chest and back.
Trichophyton verrucosum: This dermatophyte fungus of animal origin (zoophilic) causes a kerion, a severely painful inflammatory reaction with deep suppurative lesions on the scalp or beard area.
Staphylococcus aureus: This bacterium causes impetigo, sycosis, ecthyma, and boils.
Common Skin Infections and Their Causes
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 17
Correct
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An 80-year-old female comes to the clinic from her nursing home with an atypical rash on her arms and legs. The rash appeared after starting furosemide for her mild ankle swelling. Upon examination, there are multiple tense lesions filled with fluid, measuring 1-2 cm in diameter on her arms and legs. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pemphigoid
Explanation:Pemphigoid: A Skin Condition Caused by Furosemide
Pemphigoid is a skin condition that typically affects elderly individuals, presenting as tense blisters on the arms and legs. The use of furosemide, a diuretic, is a common cause of this condition. While other diuretics can also cause pemphigoid, it is a rarer occurrence. A positive immunofluorescence test confirms the diagnosis, and treatment with steroids is usually successful.
It is important to differentiate pemphigoid from pemphigus, which presents in younger age groups and causes flaccid blisters that easily erupt, leading to widespread lesions. Overall, recognizing the signs and symptoms of pemphigoid and identifying its underlying cause can lead to effective treatment and management of this skin condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 29-year-old Romanian immigrant presents to his general practitioner, complaining of firm and tender reddish-blue raised nodules on the front of both shins. These have been present for a number of months. He has also lost weight and suffered from a chronic cough since the beginning of the year. On examination, there are multiple red/purple, firm, painful lesions affecting both shins. Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 105 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 9.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 220 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 110 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Chest X-ray Calcified hilar lymph nodes,
area of upper lobe fibrosis in the right lung
Induced sputum Acid- and alcohol-fast bacilli seen
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for his rash?Your Answer: Erythema nodosum
Explanation:Understanding Erythema Nodosum and Differential Diagnosis
Erythema nodosum is a painful, raised rash that typically occurs on the anterior aspect of the lower legs. It is a type of panniculitis and is often associated with tuberculosis and sarcoidosis. To rule out these serious conditions, a chest radiograph is usually performed at diagnosis. Diagnosis is made on clinical grounds, and patients are screened for associated medical conditions. Treatment involves managing the underlying condition, such as tuberculosis chemotherapy, and using non-steroidals for the skin rash.
Other conditions that may present with similar symptoms include erythema infectiosum, which is caused by Parvovirus B19 and presents as a rash on the cheeks. Erythema multiforme causes target lesions that appear on the hands and feet before spreading to other areas of the body. Superficial thrombophlebitis, on the other hand, is inflammation of a superficial vein and is not associated with tuberculosis. Insect bites may cause swollen red lumps, but they are unlikely to cause the nodules seen in erythema nodosum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old patient with a chronic skin condition is under annual review with the Dermatology team. At her review appointment, the patient mentions that she has been experiencing episodes of new skin lesions appearing in areas where she has scratched, often appearing in straight lines. The doctor examines a typical lesion, and notes that they are examples of Koebner phenomenon.
In which one of the following conditions is the Koebner phenomenon MOST likely to be seen?Your Answer: Rosacea
Correct Answer: Psoriasis
Explanation:The Koebner Phenomenon: Skin Conditions and Cutaneous Injury
The Koebner phenomenon is a term used to describe the appearance of new skin lesions in areas of cutaneous injury, often caused by scratching, in otherwise healthy skin. This phenomenon is commonly seen in skin conditions such as psoriasis, vitiligo, and lichen planus. It may also manifest in association with other conditions such as viral warts, pyoderma gangrenosum, and molluscum contagiosum.
In cases where the Koebner phenomenon occurs, the new lesions have the same clinical and histological features as the patient’s original skin disease. They are often linear in nature, following the route of cutaneous injury.
It is important to note that not all skin conditions exhibit the Koebner phenomenon. Rosacea, eczema, pityriasis rosea, and cellulitis are examples of skin conditions that do not exhibit this phenomenon.
In summary, the Koebner phenomenon is a unique characteristic of certain skin conditions that can occur in response to cutaneous injury. Understanding this phenomenon can aid in the diagnosis and management of these skin conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 56-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner (GP) with an irregular mole on her back. The mole is oval in shape, 2 cm in length, and has an irregular border throughout. The colour is uniform, and there has been no change in sensation. The GP wants to evaluate the lesion using the weighted 7-point checklist for assessment of pigmented lesions to determine if the lesion requires referral to Dermatology.
What is a significant feature that scores 2 on the checklist?Your Answer: Irregular shape or border
Explanation:The 7-Point Checklist for Assessing Pigmented Lesions
The 7-point checklist is a tool used to assess pigmented lesions for potential malignancy. Major features, such as a change in size, irregular shape or border, and irregular color, score 2 points each. Minor features, including a largest diameter of 7 mm or more, inflammation, oozing or crusting of the lesion, and change in sensation (including itch), score 1 point each. The weighted 7-point checklist is recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) for use in General Practice. Lesions scoring three points or more should be referred urgently to Dermatology. Malignant melanomas can present with the development of a new mole or a change in an existing mole. The features highlighted in the 7-point checklist should be ascertained in the history to determine how urgently a mole needs to be referred to exclude malignancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 6 year old boy with worsening dry, itchy skin, mainly affecting the flexor surfaces on his arms, attends a routine GP clinic with his mother. Despite regular liberal use of emollient cream, the symptoms have not improved significantly. What would be the most suitable course of action for managing the child's eczema?
Your Answer: Prescribe hydrocortisone cream 1%
Explanation:Managing Eczema in Children: Treatment Options and Referral Considerations
When a child presents with eczema, the first step is often to use emollient cream to manage the symptoms. However, if the eczema persists or worsens, a topical corticosteroid cream may be necessary. It is important to use this sparingly and in conjunction with emollients. While oral corticosteroids may be considered in severe cases, they should be used with caution and ideally under the guidance of a dermatologist. Emollient ointments may also be helpful, but a short course of topical corticosteroids is often more effective for managing flare-ups. If symptoms continue to worsen despite treatment, referral to a dermatology clinic may be necessary. Watchful waiting is not appropriate in this situation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 22
Correct
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A 28-year-old patient presents with a history of well demarcated, erythematous lesions with silvery-white scaling plaques on the extensor surfaces of the elbows. There is evidence of nail pitting.
What is the most appropriate management?Your Answer: Topical betnovate + vitamin D
Explanation:The recommended first-line treatment for psoriasis is the application of betnovate (or another potent steroid) plus vitamin D for four weeks. If there is no or minimal improvement, referral to a specialist may be considered. Dermovate, a very potent steroid, should only be initiated by a specialist who may alter the treatment or advance it to include phototherapy or biologics. Hydrocortisone is not recommended for psoriasis treatment as it is not potent enough. Phototherapy is not the first-line treatment and should only be initiated by a dermatologist after considering all risks and benefits. Biologics are the last stage of treatment and are only initiated by a dermatologist if the detrimental effects of psoriasis are heavily impacting the patient’s life, despite other treatments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic with blisters on her skin. She reports that some of the blisters have healed and left scars, but others are still growing and new ones are appearing. Despite taking antibiotics prescribed by her primary care physician, the blisters have not improved. Upon examination, the patient has multiple superficial skin lesions and oral lesions that easily slough off. A skin punch biopsy with immunofluorescent examination reveals circular intra-epidermal deposits. What other symptoms may this patient be experiencing?
Your Answer: Alopecia
Correct Answer: Antibodies against desmosomes
Explanation:Understanding Pemphigus Vulgaris: An Autoimmune Blistering Condition
Pemphigus vulgaris is a blistering condition that primarily affects middle-aged individuals. It is caused by IgG autoantibodies against desmosomal components, specifically desmogleins 1 and 3, in the superficial layers of the skin. This results in flaccid blisters that easily rupture, leading to erosions and scarring. The oral mucosa is often affected early on, and Nikolsky’s sign is positive. Immunofluorescence reveals intra-epidermal circular deposits, and antibodies against desmosomes are typically positive. Treatment involves high-dose steroids and may require life-long maintenance doses. In contrast, bullous pemphigoid, which affects older individuals, is characterized by antibodies against hemidesmosomes in the deeper basement membrane of the skin, resulting in tense, firm blisters that do not rupture easily. Psoriasis, alopecia, and HIV are not linked to pemphigus vulgaris.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old builder comes to the GP complaining of large itchy silvery white scaly patches on his elbows and knees. He has no history of skin problems, but his father had psoriasis. What is the most suitable initial treatment to prescribe?
Your Answer: Topical calcipotriol alone
Correct Answer: Topical steroid and topical calcipotriol
Explanation:Topical Treatments for Chronic Plaque Psoriasis: NICE Recommendations
Chronic plaque psoriasis is a common skin condition that can be managed with topical treatments. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends a stepwise approach to treatment, with different options depending on the severity of the condition and the response to previous therapies.
First-line treatment for chronic plaque psoriasis is a potent corticosteroid applied once daily, combined with a vitamin D analogue, for up to 4 weeks. This combination therapy has been shown to be effective in reducing inflammation and improving symptoms.
If there is no improvement with both steroid and calcipotriol after 8 weeks, topical calcipotriol alone can be used as a second-line management option. However, it is insufficient to prescribe alone as a first-line treatment.
Topical steroid alone is a third-line management option for psoriasis if there is no improvement after 8-12 weeks. This is because long-term use of topical steroids can have side effects such as skin thinning and increased risk of infection.
Short-acting dithranol could be used as a fourth-line option, but not as initial management. Topical coal tar is also part of third-line management for psoriasis.
In summary, the NICE recommendations for topical treatments for chronic plaque psoriasis involve a stepwise approach, with combination therapy as the first-line option and other treatments used if there is no improvement or if side effects occur. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to find the most effective and safe treatment plan for each individual.
NICE Recommendations for Topical Treatments for Chronic Plaque Psoriasis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old accountant is referred to Dermatology after developing some patches of hypopigmentation. The patient reports a 2-month history of patchy areas of discolouration over her chest and back. She is feeling extremely distressed and self-conscious about these areas. The patient has stopped going to the beach due to the lesions, which she previously enjoyed.
During examination, the patient has multiple patches of flaky, discoloured hypopigmented lesions distributed over the chest and back.
What is the most likely cause of hypopigmented skin in this case?Your Answer: Neurofibromatosis
Correct Answer: Pityriasis versicolor
Explanation:Skin Conditions and Pigmentation Changes
Pigmentation changes in the skin can be caused by various factors, including skin conditions and hormonal imbalances. Here are some examples:
Pityriasis versicolor: This common skin complaint is characterized by flaky, discoloured, hypopigmented patches that mainly appear on the chest and back. It is caused by the overgrowth of a yeast called Malassezia furfur.
Whipple’s disease: This rare bacterial infection can cause hyperpigmentation in some cases.
High oestriol: Elevated levels of this hormone, which can occur during pregnancy, are associated with hyperpigmentation.
Neurofibromatosis type I: This genetic disorder causes numerous café-au-lait patches, which are hyperpigmented patches.
Urticaria pigmentosa: This condition, which typically develops in childhood, causes hyperpigmented patches that usually fade by the teenage years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 26-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner concerned about excessive hair growth on her face, back, and arms. Despite trying various hair removal methods and bleaching, she is considering treatment to prevent hair growth. Her BMI is 30 kg/m2, and she reports irregular periods, menstruating once every 7-9 months. Her recent blood tests showed elevated levels of testosterone and luteinising hormone. What is the best course of action for this patient, considering the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Oral combined contraceptive pill
Explanation:Management of Hirsutism in Polycystic Ovary Syndrome: First-Line Options
Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a condition characterized by irregular menstrual cycles, excess hair growth, and raised hormone levels. In patients with PCOS experiencing hirsutism and irregular periods, the first-line management option is the oral combined contraceptive pill. This medication reduces hyperandrogenism by suppressing ovarian androgen secretion and increasing binding of androgens, thereby reducing excess hair growth. Metformin can also be used to improve insulin resistance and aid weight management, but it would not be the first-line choice for managing hirsutism. Eflornithine can be used for hirsutism, but in this patient, starting the contraceptive pill will not only treat her hirsutism but also allow for regular withdrawal bleeds and regulate her menstrual cycle. The progesterone-only pill and topical minoxidil are not recommended as first-line options for managing hirsutism in PCOS patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 27
Correct
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A 30-year-old female patient expresses concerns about her hair loss. She has noticed patches of hair loss for the past three months without any associated itching. The patient has a medical history of hypothyroidism and takes 100 micrograms of thyroxine daily. She also takes the combined oral contraceptive and has regular withdrawal bleeds. On physical examination, the patient appears healthy with a BMI of 22 kg/m2 and a blood pressure of 122/72 mmHg. Two distinct patches of hair loss, approximately 2-3 cm in diameter, are visible on the vertex of her head and the left temporo-occipital region. What is the most probable cause of her hair loss?
Your Answer: Alopecia areata
Explanation:Hair Loss and Autoimmune Conditions
Hair loss can be caused by a variety of factors, including autoimmune conditions and thyroid disease. In the case of alopecia areata, which is a type of hair loss characterized by discrete patches of hair loss, about 1% of cases are associated with thyroid disease. However, this type of hair loss is not typically seen in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), which often presents with scarring alopecia. Androgenic alopecia, which is the most common type of hair loss in both men and women, typically causes thinning at the vertex and temporal areas rather than discrete patches of hair loss. Over-treatment with thyroxine to cause hyperthyroidism or the use of oral contraceptives can also lead to general hair loss. It is important to identify the underlying cause of hair loss in order to determine the appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 6-year-old girl is brought to the General Practitioner (GP) by her mother. She has suffered an insect bite, and her mother is concerned about a small lump on the back of her hand.
Which of the following conditions is not pre-malignant?Your Answer: Dermatofibroma
Explanation:Common Pre-Malignant Skin Conditions
There are several pre-malignant skin conditions that can occur due to various factors. One such condition is dermatofibroma, which is an overgrowth of fibrous tissue in the dermis. It is usually benign and can be caused by minor skin trauma like an insect bite.
Another pre-malignant condition is Bowen’s disease, which is a type of intraepidermal carcinoma. It presents as scaly, erythematosus lesions and is often associated with sun exposure.
Lentigo maligna, also known as melanoma in situ, is an early form of melanoma that develops slowly over time. It typically appears on sun-exposed areas of the skin.
Leukoplakia is a pre-malignant condition that presents as white or grey patches in the oral cavity. It is important to have these patches evaluated by a healthcare professional.
Actinic keratoses, or solar keratoses, are pre-malignant conditions that occur due to chronic exposure to ultraviolet light. They are more common in fair-skinned individuals and typically affect sun-exposed areas of the skin. Regular skin checks and sun protection can help prevent these conditions from developing into skin cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old male patient comes to you with a complaint of an erythematosus rash in his groin area. He reports that the rash was initially raised and red, but it has now healed and left behind hyperpigmentation. Interestingly, he mentions that he has experienced this same rash in the same location before. Upon further questioning, he reveals that he had taken ibuprofen for a strained ankle prior to the onset of the rash. What is the probable cause of this presentation?
Your Answer: Behçet's syndrome
Correct Answer: Fixed drug eruption
Explanation:Fixed Drug Eruptions: Recurring Lesions Caused by Medications
Fixed drug eruptions are a type of skin reaction that occurs when a person takes a medication to which they are allergic. These eruptions are characterized by circular, violaceous, and oedematous plaques that appear in the same area where the offending drug was given. The lesions usually occur within 30 minutes to eight hours after drug administration and can be found in various parts of the body, with the hands, feet, and genitalia being the most common locations.
One of the distinguishing features of fixed drug eruptions is that the lesions tend to recur in the same area whenever the person takes the offending drug again. The lesions may resolve on their own, but they often leave behind macular hyperpigmentation, which is a darkening of the skin in the affected area. In some cases, perioral and periorbital lesions may also occur.
Overall, fixed drug eruptions can be a frustrating and uncomfortable experience for those who suffer from them. It is important to identify the offending drug and avoid it in the future to prevent further outbreaks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old lifeguard presents with a lesion on the ear. The lesion had been present for a number of months and he claims it is slowly growing. On examination, there is 1 cm red, ulcerating exophytic nodule with heaped up margins. Excision of the lesion is performed and histology reveals a completely excised lesion containing irregular masses of anaplastic epidermal cells proliferating down to the dermis with keratin pearls.
Which of the following is true regarding this lesion?Your Answer: It is the second commonest skin cancer after melanoma
Correct Answer: It may arise from actinic keratosis
Explanation:Understanding Squamous Cell Carcinoma of the Skin
Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) of the skin is a common type of skin cancer that typically affects older men with a history of sun exposure. It may also arise from chronic inflammation or pre-existing actinic keratosis. SCC is slow-growing and locally invasive, but spread to locoregional lymph nodes is uncommon. The typical appearance is small, red, ulcerating, exophytic nodules with varying degrees of scaling on sun-exposed areas. Biopsy features include keratin pearls. Treatment may involve topical creams or excision. SCC is the second commonest skin cancer after basal cell carcinoma. It is commonly found on the lower lip or ears, and spread to regional lymph nodes is uncommon. There is no link to preceding dermatophyte infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 31
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman presents with severe itching, mainly affecting her groin. The problem has been worsening over the past few weeks and is now unbearable. She admits to having slept with a new partner a few weeks before she noticed the problem. You notice an erythematosus, papular rash affecting the web spaces on the hands. She also has erythematous papules and scratch marks around the groin in particular. Investigations reveal normal values for haemoglobin, white cell count, platelets, sodium, potassium, and creatinine. When you draw on the web spaces between her fingers with a felt-tip, rubbing off the excess reveals a number of burrows. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Sarcoptes scabiei hominis infection
Explanation:Skin Conditions: Differential Diagnosis
Scabies Infection
A scabies infection is a likely diagnosis for a patient presenting with itching between the web spaces and in the groin. The infection is typically acquired through skin-to-skin contact, often after sexual intercourse. Symptoms may not appear until three to four weeks after initial contact, and treatment involves the use of a topical agent such as permethrin cream.Atopic Dermatitis
Atopic dermatitis, or eczema, is an unlikely diagnosis for a patient presenting with symptoms in the groin and web spaces. It typically presents with a rash and itching on the flexor aspects of the joints and is unrelated to sexual activity.Folliculitis
Folliculitis is an unlikely diagnosis for a patient presenting with symptoms in the groin and web spaces. It typically presents with pinpoint erythematosus lesions on the chest, face, scalp, or back and is unrelated to sexual activity.Erythema Infectiosum Infection
Erythema infectiosum infection is a very unlikely diagnosis for a patient presenting with symptoms in the groin and web spaces. It primarily affects children and results from infection with parvovirus B19. Symptoms include a slapped cheek appearance, fever, headache, and coryza.Keratosis Pilaris Infection
Keratosis pilaris is an unlikely diagnosis for a patient presenting with symptoms in the groin and web spaces. It typically affects the upper arms, buttocks, and thighs and presents with small white lesions that make the skin feel rough. It results from the buildup of keratin and is more common in patients with dry skin. It is unrelated to sexual activity.Differential Diagnosis of Skin Conditions
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 32
Incorrect
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In what condition is lupus pernio observed?
Your Answer: SLE
Correct Answer: Sarcoidosis
Explanation:Lupus Pernio in Sarcoidosis
Lupus pernio is a distinct skin manifestation that is commonly associated with sarcoidosis. This condition is characterized by the presence of chronic, hardened papules or plaques that primarily affect the mid-face, particularly the alar rim of the nose. Even small papules in this area may indicate the presence of granulomatous infiltration in the nasal mucosa and upper respiratory tract, which can lead to the formation of masses, ulcerations, or even life-threatening airway obstruction. Therefore, it is important to promptly diagnose and manage lupus pernio in patients with sarcoidosis to prevent further complications. Proper treatment may involve the use of systemic corticosteroids, immunosuppressive agents, or other targeted therapies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 33
Correct
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A 42-year-old Irish man presents to the Dermatology clinic with a 3-cm pigmented lesion on his right shin. He also has a Fitzpatrick skin type 1. The lesion appears macular and contains three different shades of pigment. What is the most crucial next step?
Your Answer: Biopsy
Explanation:Importance of Biopsy in Diagnosing Melanoma
When a patient with type 1 or 2 skin presents with a pigmented lesion that is large and has multiple colors, it is suggestive of melanoma. It is crucial to inquire about any changes over time and symptoms such as bleeding or itching. A comprehensive medical history should include family history of skin cancers, risk factors such as sun exposure, hobbies, travel, sunburns as a child, previous skin cancers or abnormal moles, and history of immunosuppression. The ABCDE rule should be followed for suspicious pigmented lesions.
A biopsy is necessary for diagnosis and determining the prognosis of melanoma based on the Breslow depth. Clinical photographs and follow-up in 3 months may be appropriate in some cases, but if there is a suspicion of melanoma, an urgent biopsy is necessary. Scrapings for mycology are not useful in diagnosing pigmented lesions, and measuring ACE levels is not appropriate in this scenario.
In conclusion, a biopsy is essential in diagnosing melanoma and determining its prognosis. It is crucial to follow the ABCDE rule and obtain a comprehensive medical history to identify any risk factors. Early detection and prompt treatment can significantly improve the patient’s outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 34
Correct
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A 65-year-old man on the Stroke Ward has been found to have a grade 2 pressure ulcer over his sacrum.
Which of the following options correctly describes a grade 2 pressure ulcer?Your Answer: Partial-thickness skin loss and ulceration
Explanation:Understanding the Different Grades of Pressure Ulcers
Pressure ulcers, also known as bedsores, are a common problem for people who are bedridden or have limited mobility. These ulcers can range in severity from mild to life-threatening. Understanding the different grades of pressure ulcers is important for proper treatment and prevention.
Grade 1 pressure ulcers are the most superficial type of ulcer. They are characterized by non-blanching erythema of intact skin and skin discoloration. The skin remains intact, but it may hurt or itch, and it may feel either warm and spongy or hard to the touch.
Grade 2 pressure ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss and ulceration. Some of the outer surface of skin (epidermis) or the deeper layer of skin (dermis) is damaged, leading to skin loss. The ulcer looks like an open wound or a blister.
Grade 3 pressure ulcers involve full-thickness skin loss involving damage/necrosis of subcutaneous tissue. Skin loss occurs throughout the entire thickness of the skin and the underlying tissue is also damaged. The underlying muscles and bone are not damaged. The ulcer appears as a deep, cavity-like wound.
Grade 4 pressure ulcers are the most severe type of ulcer. They involve extensive destruction (with possible damage to muscle, bone or supporting structures). The skin is severely damaged and the surrounding tissue begins to die (tissue necrosis). The underlying muscles or bone may also be damaged. People with grade 4 pressure ulcers have a high risk of developing a life-threatening infection.
It is important to note that any ulcer with focal loss of skin integrity ± pus/blood is not a pressure ulcer and may require different treatment. Understanding the different grades of pressure ulcers can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate care and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with a history of hypercholesterolaemia and psoriasis is admitted to the hospital after experiencing central crushing chest pain. He was diagnosed with a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) and received appropriate treatment. While in the hospital, he had a psoriasis flare-up.
Which medication is most likely responsible for the psoriasis flare-up?Your Answer: Low-molecular-weight heparin
Correct Answer: Beta blockers
Explanation:Medications and Psoriasis: Which Drugs to Avoid
Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can be triggered by various factors, including stress, infection, and certain medications. While sunlight can help alleviate psoriasis symptoms in most patients, it can worsen the condition in some individuals. Among the drugs that can exacerbate psoriasis are β blockers, antimalarials, lithium, and interferons. Therefore, if possible, people with psoriasis should avoid taking these medications. However, drugs such as clopidogrel, glyceryl trinitrate spray, low-molecular-weight heparin, and statins are not known to cause psoriasis flares. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any medication if you have psoriasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 36
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old nursing home resident with a history of hypothyroidism and heart failure presents to you with a complaint of dry, itchy skin that is particularly bothersome on her legs. Upon examination, you observe erythematosus, dry skin on her legs with an unusual pattern. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Lichen planus
Correct Answer: Asteatotic eczema
Explanation:Common Skin Conditions: Asteatotic Eczema, Contact Dermatitis, Lichen Planus, Scabies, and Venous Ulceration
Asteatotic eczema is a skin condition that commonly affects elderly individuals due to over-washing and dry winter climate. It can also be associated with diuretic use and hypothyroidism. The condition causes dry, itchy skin with a unique crazy paving pattern on the limbs. Treatment involves using emollients and mild topical steroids.
Contact dermatitis, on the other hand, is caused by friction and environmental factors such as cold or exposure to chemicals like detergents and solvents. It typically affects the hands and does not display the crazy paving pattern seen in asteatotic eczema.
Lichen planus is characterized by a pruritic, papular eruption with a violaceous color and polygonal shape. It presents with a lace-like pattern, unlike the crazy paving pattern seen in asteatotic eczema.
Scabies is an itchy rash caused by mites that burrow under the skin’s surface. It often affects the very young and elderly, particularly those who live in crowded areas or institutional care. It presents with burrows, particularly on the web spaces between fingers, followed by a hypersensitivity rash. Treatment involves using topical insecticides like 5% permethrin.
Finally, venous ulceration is present on the lower limbs and can be itchy if associated with venous eczema. However, the legs often display a brown pigmentation of haemosiderin, and a venous ulcer would not present as described in this question.
In summary, understanding the characteristics of these common skin conditions can help with accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 37
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman is distressed about her acne vulgaris, which includes papules, pustules, and comedones. She experienced acne during her adolescent years, and it has continued to persist. Her weight and menstrual cycle are normal, and there is no hirsutism. What is a probable cause of her condition?
Your Answer: Bacteria
Explanation:Understanding the Aetiology of Acne: Factors and Myths
Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that affects individuals beyond their teenage years, particularly women. The presence and activity of Propionibacterium acnes, a normally commensal bacteria, is a significant factor in the development of acne. Other aetiological factors include genetic predisposition, seborrhoea, sensitivity to normal levels of circulating androgen, blockage of the pilosebaceous duct, and immunological factors. Polycystic ovary syndrome is an unlikely cause of acne. P. acnes thrives in acne lesions due to elevated sebum production or follicle blockage, triggering inflammation. Diet and poor personal hygiene are not involved in the aetiology of acne. Combined oral contraceptives can be beneficial in treating acne. It is a myth that chocolate or dirt causes acne. Understanding these factors and myths can help in the effective management of acne.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A large area of grey-blue pigment is noted over the left buttock of a 6-month-old baby by the pediatrician during a routine check-up. There are no other signs of bleeding or bruising visible on the baby. The baby was born full-term and the mother has no health conditions.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Non-accidental injury
Correct Answer: Dermal melanocytosis
Explanation:Common Causes of Bruising in Newborns
Newborns may develop bruises for various reasons, and it is essential to identify the cause to ensure appropriate management. Here are some common causes of bruising in newborns:
1. Dermal melanocytosis: These blue-grey birthmarks are common in babies of African, Middle Eastern, Mediterranean, or Asian descent. They usually appear on the lower back or buttocks and do not require any treatment.
2. Haemophilia: This inherited clotting disorder may present later in childhood as prolonged bleeding following an injury or haemarthrosis.
3. Haemorrhagic disease of the newborn: This condition is caused by vitamin K deficiency and may present with bleeding from the GI tract, umbilical cord, or venipuncture sites.
4. Non-accidental injury: While rare in newborns, non-accidental injury can cause bruising. However, this is not a consideration in a newborn who has not yet been exposed to any risk of abuse.
5. Osteogenesis imperfecta: This genetic condition affects bone strength and may present with multiple fractures from minimal-impact injuries. A sign of the condition is blue-grey tingling of the sclera but not of the skin.
It is crucial to consult a healthcare provider if you notice any unexplained bruising in your newborn to rule out any underlying medical conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 39
Correct
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A 50-year-old man with a long-standing history of extensive psoriasis affecting the trunk, arms, buttock and nail beds is seen for review in Dermatology Outpatients. He has previously completed a course of phototherapy, with minimal improvement, and has shown no benefit on methotrexate for the past 12 months.
What is the next most appropriate step in the management of this patient?Your Answer: Infliximab
Explanation:Management of Severe Extensive Psoriasis: Consideration of Anti-TNF Alpha Therapy
Psoriasis is a chronic inflammatory skin condition that is managed in a stepwise manner, as per the National Institute of Health Care and Excellence (NICE) guidelines. For patients with extensive psoriasis who have failed topical therapy, phototherapy, and systemic agents such as methotrexate, acitretin, and ciclosporin, or where these are not tolerated and/or contraindicated, the next step in management is to trial an anti-tumour necrosis factor (TNF) alpha, such as infliximab, etanercept, or adalimumab, given by injection.
While on anti-TNF alpha therapy, patients are at an increased risk of pneumococcal and seasonal influenzae, and should receive vaccination against these illnesses. Live vaccines should be avoided.
Repeating a further course of phototherapy may not be the most appropriate answer for patients who have already failed systemic therapy and previously showed only minimal response to phototherapy. Hydroxychloroquine is not commonly used in the management of plaque psoriasis, and rituximab is not indicated for psoriasis.
Topical tacrolimus may be used in the management of psoriasis affecting the face or flexural regions, but for patients with severe extensive psoriasis on the trunk, arms, and buttocks who have already tried and failed management with oral regimes and phototherapy, it is unlikely to be of benefit. If it has not already been used, it would not be unreasonable to trial tacrolimus for a short period. However, the next most appropriate step in management is an anti-TNF alpha.
In summary, for patients with severe extensive psoriasis who have failed previous therapies, consideration of anti-TNF alpha therapy is the next step in management, with appropriate vaccination and monitoring for potential adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man presents with thick, demarcated, erythematous plaques with silvery scaling over the extensor surface of the elbows and knees. He has had these skin lesions on and off over the last 2 years. The lesions become less severe during summer, aggravate at the time of stress and recur at the site of skin trauma. Histopathological examination of the skin biopsy specimen shows epidermal hyperplasia and parakeratosis, with neutrophils inside the epidermis.
What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?Your Answer: Lichen simplex chronicus
Correct Answer: Psoriasis
Explanation:Common Skin Conditions and Their Characteristics
Psoriasis, Lichen Planus, Seborrheic Dermatitis, Lichen Simplex Chronicus, and Tinea Corporis are all common skin conditions with distinct characteristics.
Psoriasis is identified by thick, well-defined, erythematous plaques with silvery scaling over the extensor surface of the elbows and knees. The Koebner phenomenon, the occurrence of typical lesions at sites of trauma, is often seen in psoriasis. Exposure to ultraviolet light is therapeutic for psoriatic skin lesions, which is why the lesions become less severe during summer. Pruritus is not always present in psoriasis.
Lichen Planus is characterised by flat-topped, pruritic, polygonal, red to violaceous papules or plaques. Lesions are often located on the wrist, with papules demonstrating central dimpling.
Seborrheic Dermatitis manifests with itching, ill-defined erythema, and greasy scaling involving the scalp, nasolabial fold or post-auricular skin in adolescents and adults.
Lichen Simplex Chronicus is characterised by skin lichenification in the area of chronic itching and scratching. Epidermal hyperplasia and parakeratosis with intraepidermal neutrophils are features of psoriasis, not lichen simplex chronicus.
Tinea Corporis is a ringworm characterised by expanding patches with central clearing and a well-defined, active periphery. The active periphery is raised, pruritic, moist, erythematous and scaly with papules, vesicles and pustules.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman with uncontrolled psoriasis is returning with deteriorating symptoms. Despite using potent topical treatments, her psoriasis remains uncontrolled.
What is the next appropriate step in managing her condition?Your Answer: Stop steroids and start narrow-band UVB phototherapy
Correct Answer: Add in narrow-band ultraviolet B (UVB) phototherapy
Explanation:Next Steps in Psoriasis Treatment: Narrow-Band UVB Phototherapy
When topical treatments fail to improve psoriasis symptoms, the next step in treatment is often narrow-band ultraviolet B (UVB) phototherapy. While it has a reasonable success rate, it also comes with potential complications such as an increased risk of skin cancer. Patients with a history of skin cancer may not be recommended for this treatment.
Changing topical steroids would not be an appropriate step in the management plan. Instead, it is necessary to move onto the next step of the psoriasis treatment ladder. Biologics are not indicated at this stage and should only be considered as an end-stage treatment due to their high cost and significant side effects.
Psoralen with local ultraviolet A (UVA) irradiation may be appropriate for patients with palmoplantar pustulosis. However, for most patients, stopping steroids is not recommended. Instead, narrow-band UVB phototherapy should be commenced without stopping steroids to optimize treatment and increase the chances of success.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old rancher comes in with a small white spot on his right cheek that has been gradually increasing in size over the past few months. It has now developed a central ulcer. What is the probable type of this lesion?
Your Answer: Amelanotic malignant melanoma
Correct Answer: Basal cell carcinoma
Explanation:Lesion on the Face: Indications of Basal Cell Carcinoma
A slow-growing lesion on the face with a central ulcer located above a line drawn from the angle of the mouth to the ear lobe is a possible indication of basal cell carcinoma. This type of cancer tends to develop slowly, and the presence of an ulcer in the center of the lesion is a common characteristic. In contrast, squamous cell carcinoma grows much faster than basal cell carcinoma.
Another skin condition that may be mistaken for basal cell carcinoma is seborrhoeic keratoses. However, seborrhoeic keratoses have a papillary warty surface, which is different from the smooth surface of basal cell carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents with four episodes of oral ulceration in the course of 1 year. These have taken up to 3 weeks to heal properly. She has also suffered from painful vaginal ulceration. Additionally, there have been intermittent headaches, pain and swelling affecting both knees, and intermittent diarrhoea. On examination, there are several mouth ulcers of up to 1 cm in diameter. She also has erythema nodosum.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 129 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 6.9 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 190 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 45 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
C-reactive protein (CRP) 50 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
Elevated level of immunoglobulin A (IgA)
ANCA (antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody) negative
antiphospholipid antibody negative
Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical picture?Your Answer: Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA)
Correct Answer: Behçet’s disease
Explanation:Differentiating Behçet’s Disease from Other Conditions: A Guide
Behçet’s disease is a syndrome characterized by recurrent painful oral ulceration, genital ulcers, ophthalmic lesions, skin lesions, and possible cerebral vasculitis. However, these symptoms can also be present in other conditions, making diagnosis challenging. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA) mainly affects the lungs, kidneys, and upper respiratory tract, but does not typically present with ulceration. Herpes simplex is not associated with systemic features, while bullous pemphigoid affects the skin and rarely the mouth. Pemphigus, on the other hand, presents with oral bullae and skin bullae but does not involve elevated levels of IgA. Treatment for Behçet’s disease is complex and depends on the extent of organ involvement and threat to vital organ function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 44
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What is the dermatological condition that is linked to neurofibromatosis type 1?
Your Answer: Café au lait spots
Explanation:Neurofibromatosis Type 1 and Type 2
Neurofibromatosis is a genetic disorder that affects the 17th chromosome and is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. There are two types of neurofibromatosis: type 1 and type 2. Type 1 is also known as von Recklinghausen’s disease and is characterized by flat, light-brown skin lesions called café au lait spots, axillary freckling, small purple-colored lesions called dermal neurofibromas, nodular neurofibromas that can cause paraesthesia when compressed, and Lisch nodules on the iris. Complications of type 1 neurofibromatosis include nerve compression, phaeochromocytoma, mild learning disability, and epilepsy.
Type 2 neurofibromatosis is much rarer than type 1 and also demonstrates autosomal dominant inheritance. In addition to café au lait spots, individuals with type 2 may also develop vestibular schwannomas (acoustic neuromas) and premature cataracts. It is important to note that while both types of neurofibromatosis share some similarities, they also have distinct differences in their clinical presentation and associated complications. these differences can aid in accurate diagnosis and management of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 45
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A General Practitioner is summoned to the nursing home to examine a 70-year-old man with dementia and severe pruritus. During the examination, the doctor observes excoriations on the patient's trunk and limbs. The patient also has scaling on his palms, particularly in the web spaces. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Scabies infestation
Explanation:Understanding Scabies Infestation
Scabies infestation is a skin condition caused by the Sarcoptes scabiei mite. It is commonly transmitted through close contact and is prevalent in nursing homes and other institutions. The primary symptom of scabies is severe itching, and if present, burrows (linear crusted lesions) and penile papules are highly suggestive. The condition typically affects the web-spaces and around the nipples, with scalp involvement only occurring in young babies and debilitated adults. Excoriations are also common.
The treatment for scabies usually involves the use of permethrin, and close contacts should be treated simultaneously. Atopic eczema is unlikely to present at this age, and chronic kidney disease and diabetes are associated with several skin conditions but do not typically cause pruritus. Iron-deficiency anaemia may cause pruritus, but it is rarely as severe as scabies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 46
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A 35-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of facial erythema. She has developed papules and pustules with visible telangiectasia. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acne Rosacea
Explanation:Common Skin Conditions: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatments
Acne Rosacea:
Acne rosacea is a chronic skin condition that typically affects women and people with fair skin between the ages of 30-50. The exact cause is unknown, but environmental factors such as alcohol, caffeine, heat, and stress can aggravate the condition. Symptoms include a persistent erythematosus rash on the face, particularly over the nose and cheeks, with associated telangiectasia. Treatment involves lifestyle modifications and pharmacological interventions with topical or oral antibiotics.Acne Vulgaris:
Acne vulgaris is an inflammatory response to Propionibacterium acnes, a normal skin commensal. It commonly affects adolescents and presents with a variety of lesions ranging from comedones to cysts and scars. It predominantly affects areas with high concentrations of sebaceous glands, such as the face, back, and chest.Discoid Lupus Erythematosus:
Discoid lupus erythematosus is a cutaneous form of lupus erythematosus that affects sun-exposed areas of the skin. It typically presents in women between the ages of 20-40 and presents as red patches on the nose, face, back of the neck, shoulders, and hands. If left untreated, it can cause hypertrophic, wart-like scars.Pityriasis Rosea:
Pityriasis rosea is a self-limiting skin condition that affects young adults, mostly women. It presents with salmon-pink, flat or slightly raised patches with surrounding scale known as a collarette. The rash is usually symmetrical and distributed predominantly on the trunk and proximal limbs.Psoriasis:
Psoriasis is an autoimmune skin condition that presents with red scaly patches on the extensor surfaces of the limbs and behind the ears. Treatment involves topical or systemic medications to control symptoms and prevent flares. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 47
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A 10-year-old boy comes to his General Practitioner (GP) complaining of generalised itch for the past few days. He mentions that it is causing him to lose sleep at night. Upon examination, the GP observes linear burrows on the hands and evidence of excoriation on the abdomen and limbs. The GP suspects scabies as the underlying cause.
What is the initial treatment recommended for non-crusted scabies?Your Answer: Permethrin 5% cream
Explanation:Treatment Options for Scabies: Understanding the Role of Different Medications
Scabies is a skin condition caused by the Sarcoptes scabiei parasite. The primary treatment for non-crusted scabies is permethrin 5% cream, which is an insecticide. If permethrin is not tolerated or contraindicated, malathion can be used as a second-line agent. It is important to apply permethrin cream over the entire body and wash it off after 8-12 hours. Treatment should be repeated after one week.
Clotrimazole 2% cream, which is an antifungal medication, is not effective in treating scabies. Similarly, topical antibiotics like fusidic acid cream are not used to treat scabies unless there is a secondary bacterial infection.
Steroids like hydrocortisone 1% ointment are not used to treat scabies directly, but they can be used to alleviate symptoms like itching. Oral antibiotics like flucloxacillin are only necessary if there is a suspected secondary bacterial infection.
In summary, understanding the role of different medications in treating scabies is crucial for effective management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 48
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A 50-year-old pharmacist with a longstanding diagnosis of sarcoidosis presents to the Dermatology Clinic with an unsightly rash. The rash has been present for a number of years, but the area affected is becoming more prominent and is making her feel very self-conscious. She has been told previously that the rash is connected to her sarcoidosis; however, she would like to know if anything can be done to treat it.
Which one of the following dermatological conditions is diagnostic of chronic sarcoidosis?Your Answer: Lupus pernio
Explanation:Cutaneous Manifestations of Sarcoidosis
Sarcoidosis is a systemic disease that can affect multiple organs, including the skin. Cutaneous manifestations of sarcoidosis can vary and may present differently depending on the stage of the disease. Here are some common cutaneous manifestations of sarcoidosis:
Lupus pernio: This is a specific skin involvement that affects the bridge of the nose and the area beneath the eyes and cheeks. It is diagnostic for the chronic form of sarcoidosis. The lesions are typically large, bluish-red and dusky purple, infiltrated, plaque-like nodules.
Erythema nodosum: This is seen in the acute stage of sarcoidosis, but it is also seen in many other diseases.
Keloid formation: This is a classic cutaneous lesion of sarcoidosis, but it is not diagnostic of chronic sarcoidosis.
Subcutaneous nodules: These can also be seen in rheumatoid arthritis and are not diagnostic of sarcoidosis.
It is important to note that cutaneous manifestations of sarcoidosis can be nonspecific and may resemble other skin conditions. Therefore, a thorough evaluation by a healthcare provider is necessary for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 49
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A teenage care assistant from a local nursing home presents with sudden onset of an intensely itchy rash. This covers her whole body. She has no history of skin problems. On examination there is a combination of raised erythematous papules covering her arms and trunk and linear marks to her forearms. There is excoriated skin in the inter-digital spaces.
What is the most appropriate treatment?Your Answer: Permethrin cream
Explanation:Understanding Scabies Treatment: Permethrin Cream and Other Options
Scabies is a skin infestation caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, which can lead to symptoms such as itching and a rash with superficial burrows and pimples. The first-line treatment recommended by NICE is permethrin 5% dermal cream, which needs to be applied to the whole body and repeated a week later. In cases of moderate eczema, a regular emollient plus a moderately potent topical steroid may be used in addition to permethrin. However, a combination of moderately potent topical steroid and topical antifungal agent is not appropriate for scabies treatment. Oral antihistamines may provide symptomatic relief but are not a treatment for scabies. Malathion 5% aqueous solution can be used as a second-line treatment option for patients allergic to chrysanthemums who cannot use permethrin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 50
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For her 4-year-old son Oliver's atopic eczema, Mrs Simpson takes him to the general practice surgery. Despite using aqueous cream regularly, Oliver has not seen much improvement. The general practitioner suggests trying a topical steroid cream. Which topical steroid would be the most suitable option to try next?
Your Answer: Hydrocortisone 1%
Explanation:Understanding Topical Steroid Creams for Atopic Eczema Treatment
Atopic eczema is a common skin condition that can be managed with the use of topical steroid creams. These creams come in different potencies, and it is important to use the least potent effective cream for children to avoid side effects. The first step in treatment is emollients such as aqueous cream, followed by mild potency hydrocortisone 1-2.5%. If there is no response, a moderately potent cream like Eumovate may be used. Potent creams like Betnovate and very potent creams like Dermovate are not appropriate next steps in management. Trimovate is a moderate steroid cream with antimicrobial effect. The goal is to achieve control of eczema and step down the ladder of potency until maintenance is achieved on the least potent agent. Understanding the different types of topical steroid creams can help in the effective management of atopic eczema.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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