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  • Question 1 - A 40-year-old patient presented to his General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of back...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old patient presented to his General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of back pain and painful urination. He had visited his GP two days earlier for eye problems. The patient's mother has a history of rheumatoid arthritis, and he also reported experiencing pain in his ankle. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Enteropathic arthropathy

      Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      Reactive arthritis is a type of arthropathy that is seronegative and has a positive HLA-B27. It typically presents with arthritis, urethritis, and conjunctivitis, with the knee and sacroiliac joints being the most commonly affected. Enthesitis and mucocutaneous lesions may also be present. Reactive arthritis is often triggered by a previous infection, such as Salmonella, Campylobacter, or Shigella.

      Psoriatic arthritis is associated with psoriatic nail disease and can cause sausage-shaped digits, with the distal interphalangeal joints being the most commonly affected.

      Osteoarthritis primarily affects articular cartilage, with the knee joint being the most commonly affected. It typically occurs after the age of 50 and is characterized by minimal morning stiffness, bony tenderness, bony enlargement, and crepitus on active motion. Systemic manifestations are not present in osteoarthritis, and it is more common in females, those who have experienced joint trauma, and those who are obese.

      Ankylosing spondylitis is an inflammatory disorder that primarily affects the axial skeleton and is more common in men. It is characterized by chronic lower back pain, morning stiffness lasting at least 1 hour, and improvement with exercise. Extra-articular features of ankylosing spondylitis include anterior uveitis, aortic insufficiency, enthesitis, and restrictive lung disease.

      Enteropathic arthropathy is commonly associated with inflammatory bowel disease and can become severe during flares of ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 2 - A 63-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of pain and swelling in her...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of pain and swelling in her fingers and wrists. The pain has been gradually worsening over the past few months, and she is having difficulty opening jars at home. She reports that her fingers are stiff when she wakes up but gradually loosen throughout the morning.

      Upon examination, the GP notes symmetrical swelling of the MCP and PIP joints, which are tender to pressure and have stress pain on passive movement. The patient also has swan neck and boutonnière deformities of the fingers. The GP diagnoses the patient with rheumatoid arthritis and refers her to a rheumatologist. The GP prescribes anti-inflammatory medications and advises the patient to rest her fingers and wrists.

      What is the most common ocular extra-articular manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis in a patient who is 63 years old?

      Your Answer: Keratoconjunctivitis sicca

      Explanation:

      Ocular Manifestations of Rheumatoid Arthritis

      Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a chronic inflammatory polyarthropathy that primarily affects small joints, causing symmetrical joint tenderness and swelling. It is an autoimmune disease with genetic and environmental risk factors. RA can result in marked physical disability, and extra-articular features are more common in rheumatoid factor-positive patients with long-standing disease. Ocular manifestations of RA include keratoconjunctivitis sicca, also known as dry eye syndrome, which is the most common ocular extra-articular manifestation. Scleromalacia perforans, a thinning of the sclera, is associated with RA but presents less often than keratoconjunctivitis sicca. Episcleritis and scleritis are also associated with RA but are less common than keratoconjunctivitis sicca. Orbital apex syndrome may involve the optic nerve, causing a palsy, but this is very rare. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these ocular manifestations and monitor patients with RA for any changes in their vision or eye health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 3 - A 55-year-old carpet layer presented with acute pain and swelling affecting his left...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old carpet layer presented with acute pain and swelling affecting his left knee. There is no history of trauma. Past medical history includes haemochromatosis for which he receives regular venesection.
      Examination reveals a hot, tender, swollen left knee.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 135 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 4.0 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 200 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 12 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
      Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 5.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 120 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Knee aspirate: 12 000 white blood cells/ml (majority neutrophils); rhomboid-shaped, weakly positively birefringent crystals. No growth on culture.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Correct Answer: Pseudogout

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Knee Aspirate: Pseudogout, Gout, prepatellar Bursitis, Septic Arthritis, Osteoarthritis

      A knee aspirate was performed on a patient who presented with knee pain. The aspirate revealed positively birefringent calcium pyrophosphate crystals, indicating pseudogout. This condition is associated with haemochromatosis and can be treated with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents, corticosteroid injections, or short courses of oral corticosteroids. Colchicine may also be an option for some patients. Familial pyrophosphate arthropathy, a rare form of the condition, may be linked to mutations in genes related to inorganic phosphate transport.

      Gout is a differential diagnosis for this case, but the knee aspirate would reveal negatively birefringent crystals. prepatellar bursitis, a sterile condition not associated with crystals or raised white cell counts, can be ruled out. Septic arthritis would present with a systemic inflammatory response and rhomboid-shaped birefringent crystals would not be present. Osteoarthritis is a chronic condition and would not present acutely, and joint aspirate would not show rhomboid-shaped birefringent crystals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 4 - A 68-year-old man visits his doctor's office, reporting a recent onset of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man visits his doctor's office, reporting a recent onset of a red, swollen, and hot great left toe. He denies any injury to the toe and has a medical history of hypertension, which is being treated with a single medication. The doctor suspects acute gout as the diagnosis.
      What medication is most likely responsible for triggering the acute gout?

      Your Answer: Lisinopril

      Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Explanation:

      Understanding Gout and its Causes: A Review of Medications and Differential Diagnosis

      Gout is a type of inflammatory arthritis caused by the deposition of urate crystals in the joint. This article reviews the causes of gout, which can be primary or secondary hyperuricaemia. Secondary hyperuricaemia can be caused by overproduction or decreased renal excretion, including the use of thiazide diuretics like bendroflumethiazide. The differential diagnosis for an acute red, hot swollen joint includes septic arthritis, gout, pseudogout, inflammatory monoarthritis, and post-traumatic causes. Treatment for gout includes medications for chronic and acute gout, such as non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, colchicine, or prednisolone. This article also discusses the effects of medications like colchicine, propranolol, lisinopril, and moxonidine on gout and other conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old male executive presents to you after being referred from the Emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male executive presents to you after being referred from the Emergency department. He has been experiencing a painful and swollen left knee for the past 24 hours. He denies any history of joint problems or trauma. Additionally, he has noticed redness and soreness in both eyes over the last two days. He is a non-smoker, married, and consumes about 10 units of alcohol weekly. He recently returned from a business trip to Amsterdam two weeks ago.

      During examination, his temperature is 38.5°C, and he has a brown macular rash on the soles of his feet. His left knee is hot, swollen, and tender to palpate, while no other joint appears to be affected.

      Investigations reveal Hb 129 g/L (130-180), WBC 14.0 ×109/L (4-11), Platelets 200 ×109/L (150-400), ESR 75 mm/hr (0-15), Plasma sodium 140 mmol/L (137-144), Plasma potassium 4.1 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), Plasma urea 5.6 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), Blood cultures without growth after 48 hours, and Urinalysis without blood, glucose, or protein detected. Knee x-ray shows soft tissue swelling around the left knee.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Viral arthritis

      Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      Reactive Arthritis

      Reactive arthritis is a medical condition that is typically characterized by a combination of three symptoms: urethritis, conjunctivitis, and seronegative arthritis. This type of arthritis usually affects the large weight-bearing joints, such as the knee and ankle, but not all three symptoms are always present in a patient. Reactive arthritis can be triggered by either a sexually transmitted infection or a dysenteric infection. One of the most notable signs of this condition is the appearance of a brown macular rash known as keratoderma blennorrhagica, which is usually seen on the palms and soles.

      The main treatment for reactive arthritis involves the use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). These medications can help to alleviate the pain and inflammation associated with the condition. Additionally, antibiotics may be prescribed to individuals who have recently experienced a non-gonococcal venereal infection. This can help to reduce the likelihood of that person developing reactive arthritis. Overall, the symptoms and treatment options for reactive arthritis can help individuals to manage this condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 6 - A 44-year-old gardener comes to her General Practitioner complaining of pain when kneeling...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old gardener comes to her General Practitioner complaining of pain when kneeling on her right knee for the past month. She denies any fevers and is generally in good health. During the examination of her right knee, the doctor notices a slightly tender swelling in front of the patella that feels fluctuant. Although the knee is not red, it is warm to the touch, and the patient experiences some discomfort when flexing it. What are the probable results of joint aspiration?

      Your Answer: Rhomboid-shaped crystals with weak positive birefringence on polarised light microscopy

      Correct Answer: Clear/milky joint aspirate with normal microscopy and culture

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Prepatellar Bursitis: Understanding Joint Aspirate Results

      Prepatellar bursitis, also known as housemaid’s knee, is a common condition caused by inflammation of the prepatellar bursa. This can result from repetitive microtrauma, such as prolonged kneeling. Patients typically present with localised, mildly tender swelling over the patella, which can be warm but not hot. Aspiration of the aseptic bursa will reveal a clear and/or milky aspirate that has negative Gram staining and normal microscopy.

      When examining joint aspirate results, it is important to consider other potential diagnoses. Gram-positive cocci, for example, would be grown in the case of Staphylococcus aureus infection, a common cause of septic bursitis. However, in the absence of fever, erythema, and reduced range of motion, septic arthritis is unlikely. Similarly, needle-shaped crystals with strong negative birefringence on polarised light microscopy are seen in gout, but this condition typically presents with acute pain, redness, and inflammation.

      Rhomboid-shaped crystals with weak positive birefringence on polarised light microscopy are seen in pseudogout, which can affect the knee. However, this condition typically affects the entire knee joint and is more common in the elderly.

      In summary, a clear or milky joint aspirate with normal microscopy and culture is consistent with prepatellar bursitis. Other potential diagnoses should be considered based on the patient’s history and examination findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 7 - A woman in her 20s starts experiencing consistent lower back pain and stiffness...

    Incorrect

    • A woman in her 20s starts experiencing consistent lower back pain and stiffness that improves with physical activity. As she enters her 30s, she develops arthritis in her hips and shoulders, and by her 40s, she notices reduced mobility in her lumbar spine. She has no significant medical issues. What condition is most commonly associated with these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Correct Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis

      Explanation:

      The symptoms described suggest a diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis, a chronic form of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that primarily affects the axial skeleton. Diagnosis is made using the modified New York criteria, which includes clinical and radiological criteria. HLA-B27 and sacroiliitis on MRI play a major role in the recently proposed ASAS diagnostic algorithm. Radiographic sacroiliitis is required for eligibility for anti-TNF treatment. Other conditions, such as pseudogout, Lyme disease, osteoarthritis, and rheumatoid arthritis, are unlikely diagnoses. Timely diagnosis requires a high index of suspicion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 8 - A 65-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) complaining of a swollen and...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) complaining of a swollen and painful first metatarsophalangeal joint that has been bothering him for a week. He reports that the pain became unbearable last night. The patient denies any fever or toe injuries. Upon examination, the joint appears red, swollen, and warm to touch. The patient has a history of gout, peptic ulcer, and is currently taking allopurinol 300 mg once a day for gout prophylaxis. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Stop allopurinol and recommence at a higher dose after acute inflammation has settled

      Correct Answer: Continue allopurinol and start oral colchicine

      Explanation:

      Managing Gout Attacks in Patients on Allopurinol: Options and Considerations

      When a patient on allopurinol develops a gout attack, it is important to manage the acute inflammation while continuing the prophylactic treatment. Here are some options and considerations:

      – Continue allopurinol and start oral colchicine: Colchicine can be used for acute treatment, but allopurinol should not be stopped.
      – Increase allopurinol dose: The dose may need to be increased up to 600 mg for better prophylaxis, but not during an acute attack.
      – Stop allopurinol and recommence two weeks after acute inflammation settled: Allopurinol should not be stopped during an attack. It should be continued at the same dose.
      – Stop allopurinol and start non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs): NSAIDs can control acute pain, but not appropriate for patients with a history of peptic ulcer.
      – Stop allopurinol and recommence at a higher dose after acute inflammation has settled: Allopurinol should not be stopped during an attack. The dose can be reviewed and increased after the attack has settled down.

      In summary, managing gout attacks in patients on allopurinol requires a careful balance between acute treatment and prophylaxis. Each option should be considered based on the patient’s individual circumstances and medical history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old man presents with a 5-day history of pain and swelling affecting...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents with a 5-day history of pain and swelling affecting the right knee and left ankle. On further questioning, he complained of dysuria and had woken with both eyes ‘stuck together’ for the last three days. He thinks that his urinary symptoms may be linked to the unprotected sex he had three weeks ago. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Trichomoniasis

      Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Reactive Arthritis Symptoms

      A patient presents with arthropathy, conjunctivitis, and urethritis, which are classic symptoms of reactive arthritis. The probable underlying cause is chlamydial infection or gonorrhea, as the patient has had recent unprotected sex. Primary syphilis, genital herpes, trichomoniasis, and E. coli infection are unlikely differential diagnoses. Syphilis causes a painless sore on the genitals, while genital herpes presents with blisters and is not associated with arthropathy. Trichomoniasis is commonly asymptomatic and presents with dysuria, frequency, and balanitis in men. E. coli is a common cause of UTI, but the patient’s symptoms are broader than those of a typical UTI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 10 - A middle-aged man without prior medical history is experiencing increasing back pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged man without prior medical history is experiencing increasing back pain and right hip pain for the past decade. The pain worsens towards the end of the day. He has bony enlargement of the distal interphalangeal joints. Radiographs reveal prominent osteophytes involving the vertebral bodies and sclerosis with narrowing of the joint space at the right acetabulum. What is the most likely pathologic process occurring in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Types of Arthritis

      Degenerative osteoarthritis is a condition that becomes more prevalent and symptomatic as one ages. It is characterized by the erosion and loss of articular cartilage. On the other hand, rheumatoid arthritis typically affects the small joints of the hands and feet, leading to marked joint deformity due to a destructive pannus. Gouty arthritis, on the other hand, is more likely to cause swelling and deformity with joint destruction, and the pain is not related to usage. Osteomyelitis, meanwhile, is an ongoing infection that produces marked bone deformity, not just joint narrowing. Lastly, Lyme disease produces a chronic arthritis, but it is typically preceded by a deer tick bite with a skin lesion. It is much less common than osteoarthritis. By the differences between these types of arthritis, proper diagnosis and treatment can be given to patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Rheumatology (6/9) 67%
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