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  • Question 1 - Linda is a 54-year-old woman who was admitted with a 3-day history of...

    Correct

    • Linda is a 54-year-old woman who was admitted with a 3-day history of worsening shortness of breath. On her last admission 6 months ago, she was treated for a ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI).

      She does not experience any significant chest pain. A chest X-ray shows minor bibasal consolidation suggestive of mild pulmonary oedema. Her blood tests are as follow:

      Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Urea 5.8 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 100 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      A 12-lead electrocardiogram shows sinus rhythm. An echocardiogram shows reduced left ventricular (LV) contraction with an LV ejection fraction of 40%.

      Which of the following treatments should be prescribed to reduce mortality?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      For patients diagnosed with heart failure with reduced LVEF, the initial treatment should involve administering a beta blocker and an ACE inhibitor. In the case of the patient in question, the symptoms and echocardiogram results indicate the onset of LV failure, which is likely due to their previous STEMI. Therefore, the recommended course of action is to prescribe an ACE inhibitor and beta-blocker as the primary therapy. This will help alleviate the symptoms of heart failure by reducing the after-load on the heart.

      Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug treatment, according to updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is a combination of an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are recommended as second-line treatment, but potassium levels should be monitored as both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia. Third-line treatment should be initiated by a specialist and may include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenzae and one-off pneumococcal vaccines. Those with asplenia, splenic dysfunction, or chronic kidney disease may require a booster every 5 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      30.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 82-year-old man visits the urology department complaining of a painful swelling in...

    Incorrect

    • A 82-year-old man visits the urology department complaining of a painful swelling in his left testicle that has been present for the past month. Upon examination, it is diagnosed as a left varicocele. Further CT scans reveal enlarged lymph nodes obstructing the venous drainage in the middle portion of his abdomen. Which vein is most likely to be compressed?

      Your Answer: Inferior vena cava

      Correct Answer: Left renal vein

      Explanation:

      The left renal vein collects venous blood from the left testis through the left testicular/gonadal vein.

      Both the left and right testes are drained by their respective testicular/gonadal veins. The right testicular vein empties directly into the inferior vena cava, while the left testicular vein drains into the left renal vein before joining the inferior vena cava.

      Anatomy of the Inferior Vena Cava

      The inferior vena cava (IVC) originates from the fifth lumbar vertebrae and is formed by the merging of the left and right common iliac veins. It passes to the right of the midline and receives drainage from paired segmental lumbar veins throughout its length. The right gonadal vein empties directly into the cava, while the left gonadal vein usually empties into the left renal vein. The renal veins and hepatic veins are the next major veins that drain into the IVC. The IVC pierces the central tendon of the diaphragm at the level of T8 and empties into the right atrium of the heart.

      The IVC is related anteriorly to the small bowel, the first and third parts of the duodenum, the head of the pancreas, the liver and bile duct, the right common iliac artery, and the right gonadal artery. Posteriorly, it is related to the right renal artery, the right psoas muscle, the right sympathetic chain, and the coeliac ganglion.

      The IVC is divided into different levels based on the veins that drain into it. At the level of T8, it receives drainage from the hepatic vein and inferior phrenic vein before piercing the diaphragm. At the level of L1, it receives drainage from the suprarenal veins and renal vein. At the level of L2, it receives drainage from the gonadal vein, and at the level of L1-5, it receives drainage from the lumbar veins. Finally, at the level of L5, the common iliac vein merges to form the IVC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      47.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is the end result of meiosis in a cell? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the end result of meiosis in a cell?

      Your Answer: 2 haploid cells

      Correct Answer: 4 haploid cells

      Explanation:

      Meiosis

      Meiosis is a crucial process that occurs in the genetic cells of eukaryotic organisms. Its primary purpose is to recombine genes, which results in genetic variation while also ensuring genetic preservation. Although meiosis shares some similarities with mitosis, it is restricted to genetic cells, also known as gametes, of eukaryotic organisms.

      During meiosis, a gamete duplicates each of its chromosomes and divides into two diploid cells. These cells then divide into four haploid cells by the end of the second stage of meiosis (telophase II and cytokinesis). These haploid cells are either sperm cells (male) or eggs (female) in mammals. When these haploid cells fuse together, they produce a diploid zygote that contains two copies of parental genes.

      In summary, meiosis is a crucial process that ensures genetic variation and preservation in eukaryotic organisms. It involves the duplication and division of genetic cells into haploid cells, which can then fuse together to produce a diploid zygote.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 58-year-old female patient with chronic rheumatoid arthritis visits her GP complaining of...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old female patient with chronic rheumatoid arthritis visits her GP complaining of symptoms related to keratoconjunctivitis sicca. What is a straightforward test that can be performed to confirm this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Schirmer's test

      Explanation:

      Secondary Sjögren’s Syndrome in Rheumatological Patients

      It is not uncommon for patients with rheumatological disease to develop secondary Sjögren’s syndrome, which is also known as keratoconjunctivitis sicca. This condition is characterized by a reduction in secretions, particularly in the salivary and lacrimal glands. One of the diagnostic tests used to identify this condition is the Schirmer’s test. This test is a simple procedure that measures the production of tears in the eyes. During the test, a strip of paper is placed under the eyelid of the patient, and after five minutes, the amount of moistness on the paper is measured. If the moistness is less than 5 mm, it is suggestive of Sjögren’s syndrome.

      Overall, secondary Sjögren’s syndrome is a common condition that can occur in patients with rheumatological disease. The Schirmer’s test is a simple and effective way to diagnose this condition, and it can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment to patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 82-year-old male visits his GP complaining of deteriorating shortness of breath due...

    Correct

    • A 82-year-old male visits his GP complaining of deteriorating shortness of breath due to heart failure. The GP prescribes bendroflumethiazide as a diuretic. What is the mode of action of this medication?

      Your Answer: Blocks the Na/Cl co-transporter in the distal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      Thiazides and thiazide-like drugs such as indapamide work by blocking the Na+-Cl− symporter at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule, which inhibits sodium reabsorption. Hydrochlorothiazide, bendroflumethiazide, and metolazone are examples of thiazide-type diuretics that function in this way. These drugs reduce plasma volume, venous return, and cardiac output, as well as total peripheral resistance by an unknown mechanism. However, like many medications, thiazides have adverse effects, including hypokalaemia, hyperglycaemia, and hyperuricaemia.

      Thiazide diuretics are medications that work by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+-Cl− symporter, which inhibits sodium reabsorption at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). This results in the loss of potassium as more sodium reaches the collecting ducts. While thiazide diuretics are useful in treating mild heart failure, loop diuretics are more effective in reducing overload. Bendroflumethiazide was previously used to manage hypertension, but recent NICE guidelines recommend other thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide and chlorthalidone.

      Common side effects of thiazide diuretics include dehydration, postural hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatremia, hypokalemia, and hypercalcemia. Other potential adverse effects include gout, impaired glucose tolerance, and impotence. Rare side effects may include thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, photosensitivity rash, and pancreatitis.

      It is worth noting that while thiazide diuretics may cause hypercalcemia, they can also reduce the incidence of renal stones by decreasing urinary calcium excretion. According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves the use of thiazide-like diuretics, along with other medications and lifestyle changes, to achieve optimal blood pressure control and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 26-year-old woman has arrived at the emergency department following a blow to...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman has arrived at the emergency department following a blow to her left leg while playing soccer.

      During the examination, her reflexes and tone appear normal, but she is experiencing difficulty in inverting her foot and has numbness on the plantar surface of her foot.

      Which nerve is the most probable to have been damaged?

      Your Answer: Tibial nerve

      Correct Answer: Superficial peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      When the superficial peroneal nerve is injured, it can lead to a loss of foot eversion and a loss of sensation over the dorsum of the foot. This nerve controls the fibularis longus and brevis muscles, which are responsible for evertion of the foot. It also provides sensory input to the skin of the anterolateral leg and dorsum of the foot, except for the area between the first and second toes.

      Anatomy of the Superficial Peroneal Nerve

      The superficial peroneal nerve is responsible for supplying the lateral compartment of the leg, specifically the peroneus longus and peroneus brevis muscles which aid in eversion and plantar flexion. It also provides sensation over the dorsum of the foot, excluding the first web space which is innervated by the deep peroneal nerve.

      The nerve passes between the peroneus longus and peroneus brevis muscles along the proximal one-third of the fibula. Approximately 10-12 cm above the tip of the lateral malleolus, the nerve pierces the fascia. It then bifurcates into intermediate and medial dorsal cutaneous nerves about 6-7 cm distal to the fibula.

      Understanding the anatomy of the superficial peroneal nerve is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect the lateral compartment of the leg and dorsum of the foot. Injuries or compression of the nerve can result in weakness or numbness in the affected areas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      31.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What structural characteristic is unique to glycogen? ...

    Incorrect

    • What structural characteristic is unique to glycogen?

      Your Answer: It is a polysaccharide which contains only α1-6 glycosidic linkages between glucose molecules

      Correct Answer: It is a highly branched polysaccharide around a protein core

      Explanation:

      Glycogen and Other Glucose Polymers

      Glycogen is a type of storage polymer made up of glucose units that are linked together through α1-4 glycosidic linkages. It is highly branched, with glucose molecules at the branch points bound together using α1-6 glycosidic linkages. The glycogen polysaccharide has a central protein core that contains an enzyme called glycogenin, which is involved in glycogen synthesis.

      Starch is another type of glucose polymer found in nature. Amylose is an unbranched polysaccharide chain made up of glucose units linked together through α1-4 glycosidic linkages. It is insoluble in water and generally indigestible in the human gut. Amylopectin is a plant-based starch molecule that is similar in structure to glycogen. It contains both α1-4 and α1-6 glycosidic linkages, giving it a highly branched and relatively soluble structure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 64-year-old woman is being monitored in the nurse-led heart failure clinic. She...

    Correct

    • A 64-year-old woman is being monitored in the nurse-led heart failure clinic. She has left-sided heart failure and her recent echo revealed a reduced ejection fraction. She complains of nocturnal breathlessness and needing multiple pillows to sleep.

      She is prescribed bisoprolol and another medication with the explanation that it will help decrease mortality.

      What is the probable medication she has been prescribed?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      In the treatment of heart failure, medications are used to improve the heart’s ability to pump blood effectively. Beta blockers, such as bisoprolol, are commonly prescribed to slow the heart rate and improve filling. The first-line drugs for heart failure are beta blockers and ACE inhibitors. Therefore, the patient in question will be prescribed an ACE inhibitor, such as ramipril, as the second drug. Ramipril works by reducing venous resistance, making it easier for the heart to pump blood out, and lowering arterial pressures, which increases the heart’s pre-load.

      Carvedilol is not the correct choice for this patient. Although it can be used in heart failure, the patient is already taking a beta blocker, and adding another drug from the same class could cause symptomatic bradycardia or hypotension.

      Digoxin is not the appropriate choice either. While it can be used in heart failure, it should only be initiated by a specialist.

      Sacubitril-valsartan is also not the right choice for this patient. Although it is becoming more commonly used in heart failure patients, it should only be prescribed by a specialist after first and second-line treatment options have been exhausted.

      Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug treatment, according to updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is a combination of an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are recommended as second-line treatment, but potassium levels should be monitored as both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia. Third-line treatment should be initiated by a specialist and may include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenzae and one-off pneumococcal vaccines. Those with asplenia, splenic dysfunction, or chronic kidney disease may require a booster every 5 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A teenage boy gets into a brawl at a pub and is stabbed...

    Correct

    • A teenage boy gets into a brawl at a pub and is stabbed with a shattered bottle in his back, resulting in a spinal cord injury where half of the spinal cord is severed.

      What will be the impact on pain perception after this injury?

      Your Answer: Loss on the opposite side below the injury

      Explanation:

      When the spinothalamic tract is damaged on one side of the spinal cord, the pain sensation is lost on the opposite side of the body below the injury. This is because the spinothalamic tract crosses over (decusates) in the spinal cord one level above where the stimulus enters. The spinothalamic tract is responsible for transmitting pain signals from the dorsal horns on the opposite side of the spinal cord where the primary sensory neuron enters. However, sensation above the injury remains unaffected. This can be a confusing concept, but in practice, it means that pain sensation is lost on one side of the body below the injury.

      The Spinothalamic Tract and its Function in Sensory Transmission

      The spinothalamic tract is responsible for transmitting impulses from receptors that measure crude touch, pain, and temperature. It is composed of two tracts, the lateral and anterior spinothalamic tracts, with the former transmitting pain and temperature and the latter crude touch and pressure.

      Before decussating in the spinal cord, neurons transmitting these signals ascend by one or two vertebral levels in Lissaurs tract. Once they have crossed over, they pass rostrally in the cord to connect at the thalamus. This pathway is crucial in the transmission of sensory information from the body to the brain, allowing us to perceive and respond to various stimuli.

      Overall, the spinothalamic tract plays a vital role in our ability to sense and respond to our environment. Its function in transmitting sensory information is essential for our survival and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 29-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a worsening cough and...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a worsening cough and haemoptysis. He also reports dark urine, reduced urine output and generally feels tired.

      On examination, he has crackles on auscultation of the chest and bipedal oedema. His heart rate is 120 beats/min, blood pressure 148/78 mmHg, respiratory rate 28 breaths/min. He is apyrexial.

      Na+ 136 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 5.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Bicarbonate 24 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      Urea 14 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 250 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      Which antibodies characteristic of this condition are targeted, given the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Collagen type IV

      Explanation:

      Goodpasture’s syndrome is caused by autoantibodies targeting collagen type IV, specifically anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies (anti-GBM). This condition is characterized by symptoms such as cough, haemoptysis, crackles on auscultation, oedema, and impaired renal function.

      In contrast, anti-dsDNA antibodies target double-stranded DNA and are commonly found in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), which presents with rash, photosensitivity, hair loss, and other systemic signs.

      p-ANCA antibodies typically target myeloperoxidase and are associated with eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA), which presents with a history of asthma and/or allergic rhinitis.

      c-ANCA antibodies target proteinase 3 and are associated with granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA), which presents with sinusitis and other upper airway signs.

      Antibodies against streptolysin O are involved in the immune response against streptococcal infection and are associated with post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, which is preceded by streptococcal infection and presents with renal impairment but not the other symptoms seen in Goodpasture’s syndrome.

      Understanding Collagen and its Associated Disorders

      Collagen is a vital protein found in connective tissue and is the most abundant protein in the human body. Although there are over 20 types of collagen, the most important ones are types I, II, III, IV, and V. Collagen is composed of three polypeptide strands that are woven into a helix, with numerous hydrogen bonds providing additional strength. Vitamin C plays a crucial role in establishing cross-links, and fibroblasts synthesize collagen.

      Disorders of collagen can range from acquired defects due to aging to rare congenital disorders. Osteogenesis imperfecta is a congenital disorder that has eight subtypes and is caused by a defect in type I collagen. Patients with this disorder have bones that fracture easily, loose joints, and other defects depending on the subtype. Ehlers Danlos syndrome is another congenital disorder that has multiple subtypes and is caused by an abnormality in types 1 and 3 collagen. Patients with this disorder have features of hypermobility and are prone to joint dislocations and pelvic organ prolapse, among other connective tissue defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      53.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 20-year-old woman currently completing her exams presents to her GP with fatigue...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old woman currently completing her exams presents to her GP with fatigue and generalised weakness. She has also noted that her skin and the whites of her eyes appear yellow. The GP suspects the patient may have Gilbert’s syndrome and orders liver function tests to determine the patient’s baseline liver function. The GP advises the patient that no treatment is necessary for this condition.

      Reference range
      Bilirubin 3 - 17 µmol/L
      ALP 30 - 100 u/L
      ALT 3 - 40 u/L
      γGT 8 - 60 u/L
      Albumin 35 - 50 g/L
      LDH 100 - 190 U/L

      What set of results would be expected from this patient?

      Your Answer: Bilirubin 40 umol/l, ALT 15 U/L, LDH 160 U/L, GGT 25 U/L

      Explanation:

      Jaundice becomes visible when bilirubin levels exceed 35 umol/l. Therefore, the correct option is the one with a bilirubin level of 40 umol/l, as this is typically the range where jaundice becomes visible. Furthermore, all other liver function values in this option are within the normal range. The other options are incorrect because they have bilirubin levels that are too low to cause visible jaundice, and the liver function results are usually normal in cases of Gilbert’s syndrome.

      Understanding Bilirubin and Its Role in Jaundice

      Bilirubin is a chemical by-product that is produced when red blood cells break down heme, a component found in these cells. This chemical is also found in other hepatic heme-containing proteins like myoglobin. The heme is processed within macrophages and oxidized to form biliverdin and iron. Biliverdin is then reduced to form unconjugated bilirubin, which is released into the bloodstream.

      Unconjugated bilirubin is bound to albumin in the blood and then taken up by hepatocytes, where it is conjugated to make it water-soluble. From there, it is excreted into bile and enters the intestines to be broken down by intestinal bacteria. Bacterial proteases produce urobilinogen from bilirubin within the intestinal lumen, which is further processed by intestinal bacteria to form urobilin and stercobilin and excreted via the faeces. A small amount of bilirubin re-enters the portal circulation to be finally excreted via the kidneys in urine.

      Jaundice occurs when bilirubin levels exceed 35 umol/l. Raised levels of unconjugated bilirubin may occur due to haemolysis, while hepatocyte defects, such as a compromised hepatocyte uptake of unconjugated bilirubin and/or defective conjugation, may occur in liver disease or deficiency of glucuronyl transferase. Raised levels of conjugated bilirubin can result from defective excretion of bilirubin, for example, Dubin-Johnson Syndrome, or cholestasis.

      Cholestasis can result from a wide range of pathologies, which can be largely divided into physical causes, for example, gallstones, pancreatic and cholangiocarcinoma, or functional causes, for example, drug-induced, pregnancy-related and postoperative cholestasis. Understanding bilirubin and its role in jaundice is important in diagnosing and treating various liver and blood disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      27.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which one of the following nerves is not found in the posterior triangle...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following nerves is not found in the posterior triangle of the neck?

      Your Answer: Phrenic nerve

      Correct Answer: Ansa cervicalis

      Explanation:

      The anterior triangle of the neck contains the ansa cervicalis.

      The posterior triangle of the neck is an area that is bound by the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles, the occipital bone, and the middle third of the clavicle. Within this triangle, there are various nerves, vessels, muscles, and lymph nodes. The nerves present include the accessory nerve, phrenic nerve, and three trunks of the brachial plexus, as well as branches of the cervical plexus such as the supraclavicular nerve, transverse cervical nerve, great auricular nerve, and lesser occipital nerve. The vessels found in this area are the external jugular vein and subclavian artery. Additionally, there are muscles such as the inferior belly of omohyoid and scalene, as well as lymph nodes including the supraclavicular and occipital nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What is the carrier rate of cystic fibrosis in the United Kingdom? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the carrier rate of cystic fibrosis in the United Kingdom?

      Your Answer: 1 in 100

      Correct Answer: 1 in 25

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cystic Fibrosis

      Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that causes thickened secretions in the lungs and pancreas. It is an autosomal recessive condition that occurs due to a defect in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator gene (CFTR), which regulates a chloride channel. In the UK, 80% of CF cases are caused by delta F508 on chromosome 7, and the carrier rate is approximately 1 in 25.

      CF patients are at risk of colonization by certain organisms, including Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Burkholderia cepacia (previously known as Pseudomonas cepacia), and Aspergillus. These organisms can cause infections and exacerbate symptoms in CF patients. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor and manage these infections to prevent further complications.

      Overall, understanding cystic fibrosis and its associated risks can help healthcare providers provide better care for patients with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 63-year-old woman comes to her physician complaining of bloating, early satiety, change...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old woman comes to her physician complaining of bloating, early satiety, change in bowel habit, and weight loss that have been going on for 3 months. During a physical examination, an irregular adnexal mass and shifting dullness are discovered. Her doctor orders a pelvic ultrasound scan, and her serum levels of CA-125 are significantly elevated. She is then referred to the regional gynaecological cancer centre for a staging laparotomy, and her surgeon informs her that her cancer has spread to her lymph nodes.

      Which group of lymph nodes is most likely affected by this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Para-aortic lymph nodes

      Explanation:

      Metastatic ovarian cancer can be detected in the para-aortic lymph nodes as the ovaries drain to this lymphatic group. This is different from other pelvic organs, which usually drain to the internal and external iliac lymph nodes. The external iliac lymph nodes do not drain the ovary, while the internal iliac lymph nodes do not drain the ovary but drain other pelvic viscera. The deep inguinal lymph nodes drain the clitoris and glans penis, while the superficial inguinal lymph nodes drain the anal canal (below pectinate line), skin below the umbilicus, scrotum, and vulva, but are not significant in the lymphatic drainage of the ovary.

      Lymphatic Drainage of Female Reproductive Organs

      The lymphatic drainage of the female reproductive organs is a complex system that involves multiple nodal stations. The ovaries drain to the para-aortic lymphatics via the gonadal vessels. The uterine fundus has a lymphatic drainage that runs with the ovarian vessels and may thus drain to the para-aortic nodes. Some drainage may also pass along the round ligament to the inguinal nodes. The body of the uterus drains through lymphatics contained within the broad ligament to the iliac lymph nodes. The cervix drains into three potential nodal stations; laterally through the broad ligament to the external iliac nodes, along the lymphatics of the uterosacral fold to the presacral nodes and posterolaterally along lymphatics lying alongside the uterine vessels to the internal iliac nodes. Understanding the lymphatic drainage of the female reproductive organs is important for the diagnosis and treatment of gynecological cancers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      26.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following hypersensitivity reactions, commonly known as delayed hypersensitivity reaction, is...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following hypersensitivity reactions, commonly known as delayed hypersensitivity reaction, is caused by Th1 T cells attracting and activating macrophages without the involvement of antibodies?

      Your Answer: Goodpasture's syndrome

      Correct Answer: A circular rash in the antecubital fossa after giving a blood sample

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest that they may be experiencing an allergic reaction to Elastoplast, known as contact dermatitis. This type of reaction falls under the category of delayed hypersensitivity reactions, specifically type 4 according to the Gell and Coombs classification.

      It is important to note that Goodpasture’s syndrome, which is a type 2 reaction, involves the binding of IgG or IgM to cells. On the other hand, post-streptococcus glomerulonephritis and rheumatoid arthritis are examples of type 3 reactions that are mediated by immune complexes.

      Classification of Hypersensitivity Reactions

      Hypersensitivity reactions are classified into four types according to the Gell and Coombs classification. Type I, also known as anaphylactic hypersensitivity, occurs when an antigen reacts with IgE bound to mast cells. This type of reaction is commonly seen in atopic conditions such as asthma, eczema, and hay fever. Type II hypersensitivity occurs when cell-bound IgG or IgM binds to an antigen on the cell surface, leading to autoimmune conditions such as autoimmune hemolytic anemia, ITP, and Goodpasture’s syndrome. Type III hypersensitivity occurs when free antigen and antibody (IgG, IgA) combine to form immune complexes, leading to conditions such as serum sickness, systemic lupus erythematosus, and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Type IV hypersensitivity is T-cell mediated and includes conditions such as tuberculosis, graft versus host disease, and allergic contact dermatitis.

      In recent times, a fifth category has been added to the classification of hypersensitivity reactions. Type V hypersensitivity occurs when antibodies recognize and bind to cell surface receptors, either stimulating them or blocking ligand binding. This type of reaction is seen in conditions such as Graves’ disease and myasthenia gravis. Understanding the classification of hypersensitivity reactions is important in the diagnosis and management of these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 25-year-old man is being assessed on the ward after 10 days of...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man is being assessed on the ward after 10 days of laparotomy. The wound is examined and appears to be healing properly. What process is unlikely to be happening in the wound at this point?

      Your Answer: Necrosis of fibroblasts

      Explanation:

      Vasculogenesis involves the formation of new blood vessels from existing mesenchyme, while angiogenesis is the process of sprouting off new vessels from pre-existing arteries. Fibroblasts play a crucial role in wound healing by proliferating in the early stages and releasing matrix metalloproteinases to aid in matrix remodelling. Necrosis is uncommon in healing wounds as angiogenesis typically occurs by this point.

      The Stages of Wound Healing and Common Problems with Scars

      Wound healing is a complex process that involves several stages, including haemostasis, inflammation, regeneration, and remodeling. During haemostasis, the body forms a clot to stop bleeding. Inflammation occurs next, where immune cells migrate to the wound and release growth factors to stimulate the production of new tissue. Regeneration involves the formation of new blood vessels and the production of collagen to rebuild the damaged tissue. Finally, during remodeling, the body remodels the new tissue to form a scar.

      However, several factors can affect the wound healing process, including vascular disease, shock, sepsis, and jaundice. Additionally, some scars may develop problems, such as hypertrophic scars, which contain excessive amounts of collagen within the scar and may develop contractures. Keloid scars are another type of problematic scar that extends beyond the boundaries of the original injury and does not regress over time.

      Several drugs can also impair wound healing, including non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, steroids, immunosuppressive agents, and anti-neoplastic drugs. Closure of the wound can occur through delayed primary closure or secondary closure, depending on the timing of the closure and the presence of granulation tissue.

      In summary, wound healing is a complex process that involves several stages, and several factors can affect the process and lead to problematic scars. Understanding the stages of wound healing and common problems with scars can help healthcare professionals provide better care for patients with wounds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      25.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - What is a true statement about the way local anaesthetics work during minor...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about the way local anaesthetics work during minor surgical procedures?

      Your Answer: Adrenaline is sometimes co-administered to prolong the local action of local anaesthetics

      Explanation:

      Lidocaine and Procaine Target VGIC in Sensory Neurons

      Lidocaine and procaine are two drugs that target voltage-gated ion channels (VGIC) in sensory neurons. These drugs are particularly effective against sensory neurons with small diameters, low myelination, and low conduction velocity, such as C and Ad fibers. In contrast, large motor neurons with Aß fibers are less affected by these drugs.

      VGIC have three states: closed, transiently open, and inactivated. Lidocaine binds preferentially to the inactivated state of VGIC and stabilizes it. This mechanism of action is known as use dependence, which means that the drug is more effective when the neuron is firing rapidly.

      Overall, lidocaine and procaine are useful drugs for treating pain and other sensory disorders by targeting VGIC in sensory neurons. Their selective action on inactivated VGIC and use dependence make them effective and safe for clinical use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 67-year-old man is admitted for a below knee amputation. He is taking...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man is admitted for a below knee amputation. He is taking digoxin. The patient presents with an irregularly irregular pulse. What would be your expectation when examining the jugular venous pressure?

      Your Answer: Slow y descent

      Correct Answer: Absent a waves

      Explanation:

      The pressure in the jugular vein.

      Understanding Jugular Venous Pressure

      Jugular venous pressure (JVP) is a useful tool for assessing right atrial pressure and identifying underlying valvular disease. The waveform of the jugular vein can provide valuable information about the heart’s function. A non-pulsatile JVP may indicate superior vena caval obstruction, while Kussmaul’s sign describes a paradoxical rise in JVP during inspiration seen in constrictive pericarditis.

      The ‘a’ wave of the jugular vein waveform represents atrial contraction. A large ‘a’ wave may indicate conditions such as tricuspid stenosis, pulmonary stenosis, or pulmonary hypertension. However, an absent ‘a’ wave is common in atrial fibrillation.

      Cannon ‘a’ waves are caused by atrial contractions against a closed tricuspid valve. They are seen in conditions such as complete heart block, ventricular tachycardia/ectopics, nodal rhythm, and single chamber ventricular pacing.

      The ‘c’ wave represents the closure of the tricuspid valve and is not normally visible. The ‘v’ wave is due to passive filling of blood into the atrium against a closed tricuspid valve. Giant ‘v’ waves may indicate tricuspid regurgitation.

      Finally, the ‘x’ descent represents the fall in atrial pressure during ventricular systole, while the ‘y’ descent represents the opening of the tricuspid valve. Understanding the jugular venous pressure waveform can provide valuable insights into the heart’s function and help diagnose underlying conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 25-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a 4-hour history of...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a 4-hour history of headache, confusion, and neck stiffness. In the department, she appears to become increasingly lethargic and has a seizure.

      She has no past medical history and takes no regular medications. Her friend reports that no one else in their apartment complex has been unwell recently.

      Her observations show heart rate 112/min, blood pressure of 98/78 mmHg, 98% oxygen saturations in room air, a temperature of 39.1ºC, and respiratory rate of 20/min.

      She has bloods including cultures sent and is referred to the medical team for further management.

      What is the most likely organism causing this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      Aetiology of Meningitis in Adults

      Meningitis is a condition that can be caused by various infectious agents such as bacteria, viruses, and fungi. However, this article will focus on bacterial meningitis. The most common bacteria that cause meningitis in adults is Streptococcus pneumoniae, which can develop after an episode of otitis media. Another bacterium that can cause meningitis is Neisseria meningitidis. Listeria monocytogenes is more common in immunocompromised patients and the elderly. Lastly, Haemophilus influenzae type b is also a known cause of meningitis in adults. It is important to identify the causative agent of meningitis to provide appropriate treatment and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      24.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which one of the following statements relating to the regulation of cardiac blood...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements relating to the regulation of cardiac blood flow is not true?

      Your Answer: Systolic blood pressures of less than 65mmHg will cause the mesangial cells to secrete aldosterone

      Explanation:

      The kidney has the ability to regulate its own blood supply within a certain range of systolic blood pressures. If the arterial pressure drops, the juxtaglomerular cells detect this and release renin, which activates the renin-angiotensin system. Mesangial cells, which are located in the tubule, do not have any direct endocrine function but are able to contract.

      The Loop of Henle and its Role in Renal Physiology

      The Loop of Henle is a crucial component of the renal system, located in the juxtamedullary nephrons and running deep into the medulla. Approximately 60 litres of water containing 9000 mmol sodium enters the descending limb of the loop of Henle in 24 hours. The osmolarity of fluid changes and is greatest at the tip of the papilla. The thin ascending limb is impermeable to water, but highly permeable to sodium and chloride ions. This loss means that at the beginning of the thick ascending limb the fluid is hypo osmotic compared with adjacent interstitial fluid. In the thick ascending limb, the reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions occurs by both facilitated and passive diffusion pathways. The loops of Henle are co-located with vasa recta, which have similar solute compositions to the surrounding extracellular fluid, preventing the diffusion and subsequent removal of this hypertonic fluid. The energy-dependent reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the thick ascending limb helps to maintain this osmotic gradient. Overall, the Loop of Henle plays a crucial role in regulating the concentration of solutes in the renal system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      36.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - What respiratory disorder is identified by the existence of Curschmann's spirals and Charcot-Leyden...

    Incorrect

    • What respiratory disorder is identified by the existence of Curschmann's spirals and Charcot-Leyden crystals?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary fibrosis

      Correct Answer: Asthma

      Explanation:

      Respiratory Pathologies and Their Pathological Features

      Asthma is a respiratory pathology that is characterized by an excessive inflammatory response of the small bronchial airways to harmless stimuli. This response involves the infiltration of eosinophils, which can aggregate and form Charcot-Leyden crystals. The accumulation of mucus in the airways can lead to the formation of Curschmann spirals. Bronchiectasis is another respiratory pathology that involves the progressive dilation of the small airways. COPD shares similar features with chronic asthma, but with more marked smooth muscle hyperplasia. Cystic fibrosis has pathological features similar to bronchiectasis, but it predominantly affects the upper lobes. Pulmonary fibrosis is a pathological term for the deposition of excess connective and fibrous tissue in the pulmonary interstitial space. Although there are multiple causes, the underlying pathology is the same.

      In summary, respiratory pathologies can have different pathological features, but they all involve some form of inflammation or structural damage to the airways. Asthma, bronchiectasis, COPD, cystic fibrosis, and pulmonary fibrosis are some of the most common respiratory pathologies. their underlying pathology is crucial for developing effective treatments and improving patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Can you provide a definition for fungal mycelium? ...

    Correct

    • Can you provide a definition for fungal mycelium?

      Your Answer: Interconnecting mesh of hyphae

      Explanation:

      The Structure and Reproduction of Fungi

      Fungi are composed of hyphae, which are Multinucleated cells that are only partially separated from each other by septae. These cellular structures contain multiple membrane-bound nuclei and all other organelles, including vacuoles. Hyphae grow at their tips, branch, and connect with other hyphae to form a mesh called the fungal mycelium. While some fungi reproduce only asexually, most also demonstrate a form of sexual reproduction that involves the combination of two haploid structures, such as a hyphae and a spore.

      There are some fungi that exist as single cells, but they do not form a mycelium. Patients at risk of fungal infections include those on prolonged immunosuppression, prolonged steroid treatment, prolonged neutropenia, or those with congenital or acquired immunodeficiency disorders. Unlike plants, fungi do not have an organized system for transporting water. The fungal cell wall is different in composition from bacterial and plant cell walls, but it is still referred to with the same term.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which one of the following is a branch of the fourth part of...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following is a branch of the fourth part of the axillary artery?

      Your Answer: Posterior circumflex humeral

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Axilla

      The axilla, also known as the armpit, is a region of the body that contains important structures such as nerves, veins, and lymph nodes. It is bounded medially by the chest wall and serratus anterior, laterally by the humeral head, and anteriorly by the lateral border of the pectoralis major. The floor of the axilla is formed by the subscapularis muscle, while the clavipectoral fascia forms its fascial boundary.

      One of the important nerves that passes through the axilla is the long thoracic nerve, which supplies the serratus anterior muscle. The thoracodorsal nerve and trunk, on the other hand, innervated and vascularize the latissimus dorsi muscle. The axillary vein, which is the continuation of the basilic vein, lies at the apex of the axilla and becomes the subclavian vein at the outer border of the first rib. The intercostobrachial nerves, which provide cutaneous sensation to the axillary skin, traverse the axillary lymph nodes and are often divided during axillary surgery.

      The axilla is also an important site of lymphatic drainage for the breast. Therefore, any pathology or surgery involving the breast can affect the lymphatic drainage of the axilla and lead to lymphedema. Understanding the anatomy of the axilla is crucial for healthcare professionals who perform procedures in this region, as damage to any of the structures can lead to significant complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 15-year-old boy fell from a height of 2 meters while climbing a...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy fell from a height of 2 meters while climbing a tree and caught himself with his right arm on a branch just before hitting the ground. He immediately felt pain in his hand and lower neck. Despite the pain, he managed to lower himself to the ground and make his way to the hospital.

      Upon examination, there are no visible wounds or fractures, but there is a noticeable reduction in movement and power of the intrinsic hand muscles. All other joints in the upper limb appear to be normal.

      What nerve root injury pattern did the boy sustain?

      Your Answer: T1

      Explanation:

      Brachial Plexus Injuries: Erb-Duchenne and Klumpke’s Paralysis

      Erb-Duchenne paralysis is a type of brachial plexus injury that results from damage to the C5 and C6 roots. This can occur during a breech presentation, where the baby’s head and neck are pulled to the side during delivery. Symptoms of Erb-Duchenne paralysis include weakness or paralysis of the arm, shoulder, and hand, as well as a winged scapula.

      On the other hand, Klumpke’s paralysis is caused by damage to the T1 root of the brachial plexus. This type of injury typically occurs due to traction, such as when a baby’s arm is pulled during delivery. Klumpke’s paralysis can result in a loss of intrinsic hand muscles, which can affect fine motor skills and grip strength.

      It is important to note that brachial plexus injuries can have long-term effects on a person’s mobility and quality of life. Treatment options may include physical therapy, surgery, or a combination of both. Early intervention is key to improving outcomes and minimizing the impact of these injuries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 20-year-old male patient complains of lethargy and night sweats. During examination, left...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old male patient complains of lethargy and night sweats. During examination, left supraclavicular lymphadenopathy is detected. A biopsy of the left supraclavicular lymph node is performed by a surgical registrar, and the pathologist identifies Reed-Sternberg cells on the subsequent histology sections. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hodgkin's lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Hodgkin’s disease is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells in histological examination.

      Causes of Generalised Lymphadenopathy

      Generalised lymphadenopathy refers to the enlargement of multiple lymph nodes throughout the body. There are various causes of this condition, including infectious, neoplastic, and autoimmune conditions. Infectious causes include infectious mononucleosis, HIV, eczema with secondary infection, rubella, toxoplasmosis, CMV, tuberculosis, and roseola infantum. Neoplastic causes include leukaemia and lymphoma. Autoimmune conditions such as SLE and rheumatoid arthritis, graft versus host disease, and sarcoidosis can also cause generalised lymphadenopathy. Additionally, certain drugs like phenytoin and to a lesser extent allopurinol and isoniazid can also lead to this condition. It is important to identify the underlying cause of generalised lymphadenopathy to determine the appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      34.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 28-year-old woman visits the sexual health clinic with complaints of altered vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman visits the sexual health clinic with complaints of altered vaginal discharge and a burning sensation while urinating. She is worried about contracting sexually transmitted infections due to a recent sexual encounter.

      During the examination, a high vaginal swab is taken, and stippled vaginal epithelial cells are observed under the microscope. Additionally, the whiff test yields a positive result.

      Which organism is the probable culprit behind her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis

      Correct Answer: Gardnerella vaginalis

      Explanation:

      Bacterial vaginosis is caused by an overgrowth of Gardnerella vaginalis, which leads to a decrease in aerobic lactobacilli and an increase in vaginal pH. Although not a sexually transmitted infection, BV is commonly found in sexually active women. Clue cells, or stippled vaginal epithelial cells, are a characteristic finding in BV, and a positive whiff test (fishy odor after the addition of potassium hydroxide) is also indicative of the condition. Yeast infections are caused by Candida, while Chlamydia trachomatis causes chlamydia, and lactobacilli are naturally occurring in the vagina.

      Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition where there is an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms, particularly Gardnerella vaginalis, in the vagina. This leads to a decrease in the amount of lactobacilli, which produce lactic acid, resulting in an increase in vaginal pH. BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but it is commonly seen in sexually active women. Symptoms include a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge, although some women may not experience any symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made using Amsel’s criteria, which includes the presence of thin, white discharge, clue cells on microscopy, a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and a positive whiff test. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, with a cure rate of 70-80%. However, relapse rates are high, with over 50% of women experiencing a recurrence within 3 months. Topical metronidazole or clindamycin may be used as alternatives.

      Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor, low birth weight, chorioamnionitis, and late miscarriage. It was previously recommended to avoid oral metronidazole in the first trimester and use topical clindamycin instead. However, recent guidelines suggest that oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy. The British National Formulary (BNF) still advises against using high-dose metronidazole regimes. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, can be seen on microscopy in women with BV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - What is the obligate intracellular pathogen that can cause respiratory and genital tract...

    Correct

    • What is the obligate intracellular pathogen that can cause respiratory and genital tract infections?

      Your Answer: Chlamydia species

      Explanation:

      The obligate intracellular pathogen that can cause respiratory and genital tract infections is Chlamydia trachomatis.

      Chlamydia trachomatis is a bacterium that can cause a variety of infections in humans, including respiratory infections such as pneumonia and genital tract infections such as urethritis, cervicitis, and pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). It is transmitted through sexual contact and can also be transmitted from mother to newborn during childbirth, leading to neonatal conjunctivitis and pneumonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 4-month-old child presents with a cleft palate, recurrent infections, and hypocalcemia. On...

    Correct

    • A 4-month-old child presents with a cleft palate, recurrent infections, and hypocalcemia. On chest x-ray, there is a decreased thymic shadow. The diagnosis is a primary immunodeficiency disorder. Which embryological structure abnormal development is most likely responsible for this condition?

      Your Answer: 3rd and 4th branchial pouches

      Explanation:

      Abnormal development of the 3rd and 4th branchial pouches is the underlying cause of 22q11 deletion syndromes, including DiGeorge syndrome. This patient exhibits clinical symptoms consistent with DiGeorge syndrome, which is characterized by the improper formation of these pouches.

      The 3rd branchial pouch typically develops into the thymus and inferior parathyroids, while the 4th branchial pouch gives rise to the superior parathyroids. When the thymus fails to develop properly, it can result in a deficiency of T cells and recurrent infections. Additionally, inadequate parathyroid development can lead to hypocalcemia.

      DiGeorge syndrome, also known as velocardiofacial syndrome and 22q11.2 deletion syndrome, is a primary immunodeficiency disorder that results from a microdeletion of a section of chromosome 22. This autosomal dominant condition is characterized by T-cell deficiency and dysfunction, which puts individuals at risk of viral and fungal infections. Other features of DiGeorge syndrome include hypoplasia of the parathyroid gland, which can lead to hypocalcaemic tetany, and thymic hypoplasia.

      The presentation of DiGeorge syndrome can vary, but it can be remembered using the mnemonic CATCH22. This stands for cardiac abnormalities, abnormal facies, thymic aplasia, cleft palate, hypocalcaemia/hypoparathyroidism, and the fact that it is caused by a deletion on chromosome 22. Overall, DiGeorge syndrome is a complex disorder that affects multiple systems in the body and requires careful management and monitoring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 57-year-old male presents to the urology clinic with painless haematuria and requires...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old male presents to the urology clinic with painless haematuria and requires an urgent assessment. He undergoes a flexible cystoscopy, during which the neck and trigone of the bladder are visualised. What structures make up the trigone of the bladder?

      Your Answer: Two ureteric orifices and the internal urethral orifice

      Explanation:

      The triangular area of the bladder is made up of muscles and is located above the urethra. It is formed by the openings of the two ureters and the internal urethral opening.

      Bladder Anatomy and Innervation

      The bladder is a three-sided pyramid-shaped organ located in the pelvic cavity. Its apex points towards the symphysis pubis, while the base lies anterior to the rectum or vagina. The bladder’s inferior aspect is retroperitoneal, while the superior aspect is covered by peritoneum. The trigone, the least mobile part of the bladder, contains the ureteric orifices and internal urethral orifice. The bladder’s blood supply comes from the superior and inferior vesical arteries, while venous drainage occurs through the vesicoprostatic or vesicouterine venous plexus. Lymphatic drainage occurs mainly to the external iliac and internal iliac nodes, with the obturator nodes also playing a role. The bladder is innervated by parasympathetic nerve fibers from the pelvic splanchnic nerves and sympathetic nerve fibers from L1 and L2 via the hypogastric nerve plexuses. The parasympathetic fibers cause detrusor muscle contraction, while the sympathetic fibers innervate the trigone muscle. The external urethral sphincter is under conscious control, and voiding occurs when the rate of neuronal firing to the detrusor muscle increases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 20-year-old man visits his GP with a complaint of right arm weakness...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old man visits his GP with a complaint of right arm weakness that he noticed upon waking up after a night out. He is concerned that he may be experiencing a stroke, as his uncle had died from one.

      During the examination, the doctor observes that the patient's right arm is drooping to the side. There is a decrease in power for elbow and wrist extension, but elbow and wrist flexion remain intact.

      Which anatomical structure is most likely damaged, resulting in this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      15.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular System (3/6) 50%
Basic Sciences (0/1) 0%
Rheumatology (1/1) 100%
Neurological System (3/4) 75%
Clinical Sciences (0/2) 0%
General Principles (3/5) 60%
Gastrointestinal System (1/1) 100%
Respiratory System (0/1) 0%
Haematology And Oncology (2/2) 100%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Renal System (2/2) 100%
Microbiology (2/2) 100%
Musculoskeletal System And Skin (2/2) 100%
Passmed