-
Question 1
Correct
-
What was the main reason for categorizing antipsychotics into typical and atypical groups?
Your Answer: Propensity for EPS
Explanation:Antipsychotics were initially classified as typical of atypical based on their propensity for EPS, with only clozapine and quetiapine being considered fully atypical due to their low risk of EPS. However, a more recent classification system categorizes antipsychotics as first- of second-generation (FGAs/SGAs) based on their introduction date.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
Who coined the term 'psychopathic inferiority'?
Your Answer: Prichard
Correct Answer: Koch
Explanation:History of Psychiatric Terms
In the exams, it is important to be familiar with the individuals associated with certain psychiatric terms. For example, Kraepelin is associated with dementia praecox and manic depression, while Bleuler is associated with schizophrenia. Other terms and their associated individuals include Hebephrenia (Hecker), Catatonia (Kahlbaum), Schizoaffective (Kasanin), Neurasthenia (Beard), Unipolar and bipolar (Kleist), Hypnosis (Braid), Group dynamics (Lewin), Group psychotherapy (Moreno), Psychopathic inferiority (Koch), Psychiatry (Reil), and Institutional Neurosis (Barton).
It should be noted that there is some debate over the origins of certain terms. While Kraepelin is often credited with coining the term dementia praecox, some sources suggest that it was first used in its Latin form by Arnold Pick in 1891. The original term demence precoce was first used by Morel in 1852. Despite this, the College appears to favor the Kraepelin attribution.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
What medication prescribed for depression is most likely to result in decreased sexual drive?
Your Answer: Venlafaxine
Explanation:Antidepressants can cause sexual dysfunction as a side-effect, although the rates vary. The impact on sexual desire, arousal, and orgasm can differ depending on the type of antidepressant. It is important to rule out other causes and consider non-pharmacological strategies such as reducing the dosage of taking drug holidays. If necessary, switching to a lower risk antidepressant of using pharmacological options such as phosphodiesterase inhibitors of mirtazapine augmentation can be considered. The Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition provides a helpful table outlining the risk of sexual dysfunction for different antidepressants.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
Which drug was introduced into clinical practice by Kane?
Your Answer: Chlorpromazine
Correct Answer: Clozapine
Explanation:Clozapine has a unique past, having been initially utilized in Europe during the early 1970s. Its effectiveness was notable, particularly due to its lack of causing EPSE’s. However, its popularity declined after several instances of agranulocytosis. In 1988, Kane conducted a study that demonstrated its safe use with proper blood monitoring, leading to its introduction in both the UK and the US.
A Historical Note on the Development of Zimelidine, the First Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor
In 1960s, evidence began to emerge suggesting a significant role of serotonin in depression. This led to the development of zimelidine, the first selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). Zimelidine was derived from pheniramine and was marketed in Europe in 1982. However, it was removed from the market in 1983 due to severe side effects such as hypersensitivity reactions and Guillain-Barre syndrome.
Despite its short-lived availability, zimelidine paved the way for the development of other SSRIs such as fluoxetine, which was approved by the FDA in 1987 and launched in the US market in 1988 under the trade name Prozac. The development of SSRIs revolutionized the treatment of depression and other mood disorders, providing a safer and more effective alternative to earlier antidepressants such as the tricyclics and MAO inhibitors.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
What strategies can be used to distinguish between normal grief and major depression?
Your Answer: Generalised guilt
Explanation:Understanding Grief: Normal and Abnormal Phases
Grief is a natural response to loss, and it is a complex process that can take different forms and durations. John Bowlby and Kubler-Ross have proposed models to describe the typical phases of grief, which can vary in intensity and duration for each individual. Bowlby’s model includes shock-numbness, yearning-searching, disorganization-despair, and reorganization, while Kubler-Ross’s model includes denial-dissociation-isolation, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.
However, some people may experience abnormal grief, which can be categorized as inhibited, delayed, of chronic/prolonged. Inhibited grief refers to the absence of expected grief symptoms at any stage, while delayed grief involves avoiding painful symptoms within two weeks of loss. Chronic/prolonged grief is characterized by continued significant grief-related symptoms six months after loss.
It is important to distinguish between normal grief and major depression, as a high proportion of people may meet the criteria for major depression in the first year following bereavement. Some features that can help differentiate between the two include generalized guilt, thoughts of death unrelated to the deceased, feelings of worthlessness, psychomotor retardation, and prolonged functional impairment.
Overall, understanding the phases and types of grief can help individuals and their loved ones navigate the grieving process and seek appropriate support and resources.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
What type of dysarthria is typically caused by damage to the lower motor neurons related to a tumor?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Flaccid dysarthria
Explanation:Dysarthria is a speech disorder that affects the volume, rate, tone, of quality of spoken language. There are different types of dysarthria, each with its own set of features, associated conditions, and localisation. The types of dysarthria include spastic, flaccid, hypokinetic, hyperkinetic, and ataxic.
Spastic dysarthria is characterised by explosive and forceful speech at a slow rate and is associated with conditions such as pseudobulbar palsy and spastic hemiplegia.
Flaccid dysarthria, on the other hand, is characterised by a breathy, nasal voice and imprecise consonants and is associated with conditions such as myasthenia gravis.
Hypokinetic dysarthria is characterised by slow, quiet speech with a tremor and is associated with conditions such as Parkinson’s disease.
Hyperkinetic dysarthria is characterised by a variable rate, inappropriate stoppages, and a strained quality and is associated with conditions such as Huntington’s disease, Sydenham’s chorea, and tardive dyskinesia.
Finally, ataxic dysarthria is characterised by rapid, monopitched, and slurred speech and is associated with conditions such as Friedreich’s ataxia and alcohol abuse. The localisation of each type of dysarthria varies, with spastic and flaccid dysarthria affecting the upper and lower motor neurons, respectively, and hypokinetic, hyperkinetic, and ataxic dysarthria affecting the extrapyramidal and cerebellar regions of the brain.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old Indian-born woman reports feeling as though others can read her thoughts and know her intentions. She believes this to be true because when she looks at people, they seem to send thoughts into her head. Additionally, she has experienced being targeted by individuals using powerful dark magic in the past, which has caused her to feel as though her movements and behavior are being controlled. What is the best way to describe her experiences?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Passivity phenomena
Explanation:Passivity Phenomena in a Patient: An Example
The patient in question experiences the sensation of an external force attempting to interfere with his thoughts and actions. This is an example of passivity phenomena. Although he holds a belief in black magic, this may be considered a secondary delusional belief. The patient may also exhibit formal thought disorder, but the combination of thought passivity and the belief in external influence is more consistent with an overall description of passivity phenomena.
While overvalued ideas can interfere with normal social functioning, they may be considered culturally appropriate to a lesser degree. However, the nature of the patient’s experiences precludes this possibility. There is no evidence of pseudo of other hallucinatory experiences.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- History And Mental State
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
What mechanism is believed to be responsible for the weight gain induced by antipsychotic medications?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Histamine receptor antagonist
Explanation:Side Effects of Psychotropic Drugs (Receptor Based)
The use of psychotropic drugs can lead to various side effects, which are often receptor-based. Some of the most common side effects are listed below:
Antidopaminergic Effects: These effects include galactorrhoea, gynecomastia, menstrual disturbance, lowered sperm count, reduced libido, Parkinsonism, dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia.
Anticholinergic Central M1: This can cause memory impairment and confusion.
Anticholinergic Peripheral M1: This can lead to dry mouth, blurred vision, glaucoma, sinus tachycardia, urinary retention, and constipation.
Histaminergic H1: This can result in weight gain and sedation.
Adrenergic Alpha 1 Antagonist: This can cause orthostatic hypotension, sexual dysfunction, and sedation.
5HT2a and 5-HT2c Antagonism: This can lead to weight gain.
It is important to note that these are just some of the more common side effects and that individuals may experience different side effects depending on their unique physiology and the specific drug they are taking. It is always important to discuss any concerns of side effects with a healthcare provider.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
What is the name of the opioid antagonist that is used for the treatment of opioid and alcohol dependence and has a long-lasting effect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Naltrexone
Explanation:There exist two primary opioid antagonists.
Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs
Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
What type of adverse drug reaction is typically associated with blood abnormalities like neutropenia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type II
Explanation:Immunologic Adverse Drug Reactions
Immunologic adverse drug reactions account for a small percentage of all adverse drug reactions, ranging from 5 to 10%. These reactions are classified using the Gell and Coombs system, which categorizes them into four groups: Type I, Type II, Type III, and Type IV reactions.
Type I reactions occur when a drug-IgE complex binds to mast cells, leading to the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators. These reactions typically cause anaphylaxis, urticaria, and bronchospasm and occur within minutes to hours after exposure.
Type II reactions occur when an IgG of IgM antibody binds to a cell that has been altered by a drug-hapten. These reactions often manifest as blood abnormalities, such as thrombocytopenia and neutropenia, and their timing is variable.
Type III reactions occur when drug-antibody complexes activate the complement system, leading to fever, rash, urticaria, and vasculitis. These reactions occur 1 to 3 weeks after exposure.
Type IV reactions arise when the MHC system presents drug molecules to T cells, resulting in allergic contact dermatitis and rashes. These reactions occur 2 to 7 days after cutaneous exposure.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
What is the accurate statement regarding the epidemiology of bipolar disorder, considering age and language modifications and maintaining paragraph spacing?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The mean age of onset is 17 years in community studies
Explanation:The disorder is often chronic, as the six month prevalence is only slightly lower than the lifetime prevalence. Additionally, bipolar disorder frequently co-occurs with other conditions such as substance misuse and anxiety disorders. Prevalence rates can be determined using structured diagnostic interviews like the diagnostic interview schedule (DIS), and the disorder affects both men and women equally with a lifetime risk ranging from 0.3% to 1.5%. Onset typically occurs around age 17 in community studies.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A concerned parent of a 25-year-old daughter with schizophrenia wants to know what the biggest challenge is for individuals living with this condition and how it affects their overall quality of life.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: People with schizophrenia live with the stigma of the illness and are often seen as dangerous by society
Explanation:Norman Sartorius highlights the iatrogenic stigma of mental illness as the main obstacle to a better life for those suffering from mental disorders. NICE guidelines on schizophrenia also acknowledge the stigma associated with the condition, which is often seen as dangerous and best dealt with away from society. However, research has shown that the fear of violence arising from people with schizophrenia is misplaced. Other factors that may contribute to feelings of exclusion and isolation include compulsory treatment under mental health legislation, medication side effects, and less careful use of diagnostic labels.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Stigma And Culture
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is not classified as a distinct personality disorder in the DSM-5?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Multiple personality disorder
Explanation:Personality Disorder Classification
A personality disorder is a persistent pattern of behavior and inner experience that deviates significantly from cultural expectations, is inflexible and pervasive, and causes distress of impairment. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 have different approaches to classifying personality disorders. DSM-5 divides them into 10 categories, grouped into clusters A, B, and C, while ICD-11 has a general category with six trait domains that can be added. To diagnose a personality disorder, the general diagnostic threshold must be met before determining the subtype(s) present. The criteria for diagnosis include inflexibility and pervasiveness of the pattern, onset in adolescence of early adulthood, stability over time, and significant distress of impairment. The disturbance must not be better explained by another mental disorder, substance misuse, of medical condition.
Course
Borderline and antisocial personality disorders tend to become less evident of remit with age, while others, particularly obsessive-compulsive and schizotypal, may persist.
Classification
The DSM-5 divides personality disorders into separate clusters A, B, and C, with additional groups for medical conditions and unspecified disorders. The ICD-11 dropped the separate categories and instead lists six trait domains that can be added to the general diagnosis.
UK Epidemiology
The prevalence of personality disorders in Great Britain, according to the British National Survey of Psychiatric Morbidity, is 4.4%, with cluster C being the most common at 2.6%, followed by cluster A at 1.6% and cluster B at 1.2%. The most prevalent specific personality disorder is obsessive-compulsive (anankastic) at 1.9%.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
Who differentiated genuine delusions from ideas that resemble delusions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Karl Jaspers
Explanation:Karl Theodor Jaspers, a prominent German psychiatrist and philosopher, made significant contributions to modern psychiatry and philosophy. His book General Psychopathology, published in 1913, introduced many of the diagnostic criteria used today. Jaspers distinguished between primary delusions, which are inexplicable and sudden, and secondary delusions, which can be understood based on the patient’s internal and external environment. Other notable figures in the field include Eugen Bleuler, who coined the term schizophrenia, Emil Kraepelin, who introduced dementia praecox, and Kurt Schneider, who developed the first rank symptoms of schizophrenia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- History Of Psychiatry
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
Which part of a neuron is accountable for generating energy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mitochondria
Explanation:Melanin
Melanin is a pigment found in various parts of the body, including the skin, hair, and eyes. It is produced by specialized cells called melanocytes, which are located in the skin’s basal layer. The function of melanin in the body is not fully understood, but it is thought to play a role in protecting the skin from the harmful effects of ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the sun. Additionally, melanin may be a by-product of neurotransmitter synthesis, although this function is not well established. Overall, the role of melanin in the body is an area of ongoing research.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
What evidence indicates a diagnosis of dementia pugilistica?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A history of recurrent head injury
Explanation:Dementia Pugilistica: A Neurodegenerative Condition Resulting from Neurotrauma
Dementia pugilistica, also known as chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE), is a neurodegenerative condition that results from neurotrauma. It is commonly seen in boxers and NFL players, but can also occur in anyone with neurotrauma. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as gait ataxia, slurred speech, impaired hearing, tremors, disequilibrium, neurobehavioral disturbances, and progressive cognitive decline.
Most cases of dementia pugilistica present with early onset cognitive deficits, and behavioral signs exhibited by patients include aggression, suspiciousness, paranoia, childishness, hypersexuality, depression, and restlessness. The progression of the condition leads to more prominent behavioral symptoms such as difficulty with impulse control, irritability, inappropriateness, and explosive outbursts of aggression.
Neuropathological abnormalities have been identified in CTE, with the most unique feature being the abnormal accumulation of tau in neurons and glia in an irregular, focal, perivascular distribution and at the depths of cortical sulci. Abnormalities of the septum pellucidum, such as cavum and fenestration, are also a common feature.
While the condition has become increasingly rare due to the progressive improvement in sports safety, it is important to recognize the potential long-term consequences of repeated head injuries and take steps to prevent them.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A father is concerned that his daughter keeps repeating the same phrase, even when he asks her a different question she still responds with the same phrase. He wants to know what this is called so he can research it online. What term describes her behavior?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Perseveration
Explanation:Verbigeration is the act of repeating words of phrases without any significant meaning, and it does not necessarily require an external stimulus to trigger it. This is different from perseveration, which is an inappropriate and persistent response to a stimulus.
– Catatonia is a psychiatric syndrome characterized by disturbed motor functions, mood, and thought.
– Key behaviors associated with catatonia include stupor, posturing, waxy flexibility, negativism, automatic obedience, mitmachen, mitgehen, ambitendency, psychological pillow, forced grasping, obstruction, echopraxia, aversion, mannerisms, stereotypies, motor perseveration, echolalia, and logorrhoea.
– These behaviors are often tested in exam questions.
– Karl Ludwig Kahlbaum is credited with the original clinical description of catatonia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A child explains during a conversation that 'When I saw the man holding a glass of wine, I knew my father was dead'.
This is most indicative of what?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Delusional perception
Explanation:Borderline Learning Disability
Borderline learning disability is a term used to describe individuals with an IQ between 70-85. This category is not officially recognized as a diagnosis by the ICD-11. It is estimated that approximately 15% of the population falls within this range (Chaplin, 2005). Unlike mild learning disability, borderline learning disability is not typically associated with deficits in adaptive functioning, such as grooming, dressing, safety, of money management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
What is the cause of a hypertensive crisis in a patient taking an MAOI who ingests tyramine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Norepinephrine
Explanation:Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a condition caused by the blockade of dopamine receptors.
MAOIs: A Guide to Mechanism of Action, Adverse Effects, and Dietary Restrictions
First introduced in the 1950s, MAOIs were the first antidepressants introduced. However, they are not the first choice in treating mental health disorders due to several dietary restrictions and safety concerns. They are only a treatment option when all other medications are unsuccessful. MAOIs may be particularly useful in atypical depression (over eating / over sleeping, mood reactivity).
MAOIs block the monoamine oxidase enzyme, which breaks down different types of neurotransmitters from the brain: norepinephrine, serotonin, dopamine, as well as tyramine. There are two types of monoamine oxidase, A and B. The MOA A are mostly distributed in the placenta, gut, and liver, but MOA B is present in the brain, liver, and platelets. Selegiline and rasagiline are irreversible and selective inhibitors of MAO type B, but safinamide is a reversible and selective MAO B inhibitor.
The most common adverse effects of MAOIs occurring early in treatment are orthostatic hypotension, daytime sleepiness, insomnia, and nausea; later common effects include weight gain, muscle pain, myoclonus, paraesthesia, and sexual dysfunction.
Pharmacodynamic interactions with MAOIs can cause two types of problem: serotonin syndrome (mainly due to SSRIs) and elevated blood pressure (caused by indirectly acting sympathomimetic amines releasers, like pseudoephedrine and phenylephrine). The combination of MAOIs and some TCAs appears safe. Only those TCAs with significant serotonin reuptake inhibition (clomipramine and imipramine) are likely to increase the risk of serotonin syndrome.
Tyramine is a monoamine found in various foods, and is an indirect sympathomimetic that can cause a hypertensive reaction in patients receiving MAOI therapy. For this reason, dietary restrictions are required for patients receiving MAOIs. These restrictions include avoiding matured/aged cheese, fermented sausage, improperly stored meat, fava of broad bean pods, and certain drinks such as on-tap beer. Allowed foods include fresh cottage cheese, processed cheese slices, fresh packaged of processed meat, and other alcohol (no more than two bottled or canned beers of two standard glasses of wine, per day).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
Which drug does not belong to the category of NMDA antagonists?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rivastigmine
Explanation:Rivastigmine inhibits cholinesterase in a reversible manner.
Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs
Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)