00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - Which of these is not a part of MELAS syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Which of these is not a part of MELAS syndrome?

      Your Answer: Asystole

      Explanation:

      Non-Mendelian inheritance patterns include mitochondrial inheritance, trinucleotide expansion, mosaicism, and genomic imprinting. These patterns do not follow the typical Mendelian principles. Examples of non-Mendelian mitochondrial inheritance include Leber’s hereditary optic neuropathy and MELAS syndrome, which is characterized by mitochondrial myopathy, encephalopathy, lactic acidosis, and recurrent stroke.

      On the other hand, Mendelian genetic inheritance patterns include autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive, and sex-linked disorders such as X-linked dominant and X-linked recessive.

      Mitochondrial DNA abnormalities can lead to various diseases, including MELAS syndrome. Mitochondrial DNA is inherited solely from the mother’s ovum, and the embryo’s mitochondria are entirely maternally derived. Most mitochondrial diseases manifest as myopathies and neuropathies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following is the most probable outcome of muscarinic receptor antagonism?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the most probable outcome of muscarinic receptor antagonism?

      Your Answer: Diarrhoea

      Correct Answer: Memory impairment

      Explanation:

      The sole anticholinergic side effect is memory impairment, while the remaining choices are instances of cholinergic side effects.

      Receptors and Side-Effects

      Histamine H1 Blockade:
      – Weight gain
      – Sedation

      Alpha 1 Blockade:
      – Orthostatic hypotension
      – Sedation
      – Sexual dysfunction
      – Priapism

      Muscarinic Central M1 Blockade:
      – Agitation
      – Delirium
      – Memory impairment
      – Confusion
      – Seizures

      Muscarinic Peripheral M1 Blockade:
      – Dry mouth
      – Ataxia
      – Blurred vision
      – Narrow angle glaucoma
      – Constipation
      – Urinary retention
      – Tachycardia

      Each receptor has specific effects on the body, but they can also have side-effects. Histamine H1 blockade can cause weight gain and sedation. Alpha 1 blockade can lead to orthostatic hypotension, sedation, sexual dysfunction, and priapism. Muscarinic central M1 blockade can cause agitation, delirium, memory impairment, confusion, and seizures. Muscarinic peripheral M1 blockade can result in dry mouth, ataxia, blurred vision, narrow angle glaucoma, constipation, urinary retention, and tachycardia. It is important to be aware of these potential side-effects when using medications that affect these receptors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      154.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What assessment would you select to evaluate the functioning of the frontal lobe?...

    Incorrect

    • What assessment would you select to evaluate the functioning of the frontal lobe?

      Your Answer: The Stanford-Binet test

      Correct Answer: The Wisconsin card sorting test

      Explanation:

      The tests that assess frontal lobe function include the Trail making test, Wisconsin card sorting test, Controlled oral word association, Verbal fluency, Tower of London (of Hanoi) tests, Rule shift cards test, Cognitive estimates test, Stroop test, Hayling test, Brixton test, Action programme test, Zoo map test, and The modified six elements test. On the other hand, the two point discrimination test evaluates somatosensory function, which is associated with the parietal lobe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cognitive Assessment
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What is a true statement about first rank symptoms? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about first rank symptoms?

      Your Answer: They were suggested by Jaspers

      Correct Answer: They have been reported in personality disorders

      Explanation:

      Although first rank symptoms are commonly associated with schizophrenia, they are not considered diagnostic of pathognomonic of the disorder, as they can also be present in other conditions. It is important to note that these symptoms were not originally designed for diagnostic purposes, but rather as a screening tool.

      First Rank Symptoms: Their Significance in Identifying Schizophrenia

      First rank symptoms were introduced by Kurt Schneider in 1938 as a practical tool for non-psychiatrists to identify schizophrenia. While they are highly suggestive of schizophrenia, they are not pathognomonic and can also be seen in affective and personality disorders. Additionally, there is no evidence to support their prognostic significance.

      A systematic review in 2015 found that first rank symptoms differentiated schizophrenia from nonpsychotic mental health disorders with a sensitivity of 61.8% and a specificity of 94.1%. They also differentiated schizophrenia from other types of psychosis with a sensitivity of 58% and a specificity of 74.7%.

      The first rank symptoms include running commentary, thought echo, voices heard arguing, thought insertion, thought withdrawal, thought broadcast, delusional perception, somatic passivity, made affect, and made volition. While they can be helpful in identifying schizophrenia, they should not be relied upon as the sole diagnostic criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      44.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What is the essential enzyme involved in the process of transcription? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the essential enzyme involved in the process of transcription?

      Your Answer: Helicase

      Correct Answer: Polymerase

      Explanation:

      Enzymes known as RNA polymerases are responsible for transcribing RNA from DNA. The role of RNA is crucial in the process of protein synthesis. Messenger RNA, a specific type of RNA, carries genetic information from DNA to ribosomes. Ribosomes are composed of ribosomal RNAs and proteins, and they function as a molecular apparatus that can interpret messenger RNAs and convert the information they contain into proteins.

      Genomics: Understanding DNA, RNA, Transcription, and Translation

      Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is a molecule composed of two chains that coil around each other to form a double helix. DNA is organised into chromosomes, and each chromosome is made up of DNA coiled around proteins called histones. RNA, on the other hand, is made from a long chain of nucleotide units and is usually single-stranded. RNA is transcribed from DNA by enzymes called RNA polymerases and is central to protein synthesis.

      Transcription is the synthesis of RNA from a DNA template, and it consists of three main steps: initiation, elongation, and termination. RNA polymerase binds at a sequence of DNA called the promoter, and the transcriptome is the collection of RNA molecules that results from transcription. Translation, on the other hand, refers to the synthesis of polypeptides (proteins) from mRNA. Translation takes place on ribosomes in the cell cytoplasm, where mRNA is read and translated into the string of amino acid chains that make up the synthesized protein.

      The process of translation involves messenger RNA (mRNA), transfer RNA (tRNA), and ribosomal RNA (rRNA). Transfer RNAs, of tRNAs, connect mRNA codons to the amino acids they encode, while ribosomes are the structures where polypeptides (proteins) are built. Like transcription, translation also consists of three stages: initiation, elongation, and termination. In initiation, the ribosome assembles around the mRNA to be read and the first tRNA carrying the amino acid methionine. In elongation, the amino acid chain gets longer, and in termination, the finished polypeptide chain is released.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      22.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A GP contacts you with concerns about a patient who was prescribed phenelzine...

    Incorrect

    • A GP contacts you with concerns about a patient who was prescribed phenelzine during their hospital stay and has now been hospitalized due to significant hypertension. Which medication taken by the patient is the most probable cause of this interaction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dextromethorphan

      Explanation:

      Dextromethorphan is a medication used to suppress coughing and is commonly found in various cold and cough remedies available without a prescription. It is important to note that it can interact with MAOIs, which are a type of medication used to treat depression and other mental health conditions.

      MAOIs: A Guide to Mechanism of Action, Adverse Effects, and Dietary Restrictions

      First introduced in the 1950s, MAOIs were the first antidepressants introduced. However, they are not the first choice in treating mental health disorders due to several dietary restrictions and safety concerns. They are only a treatment option when all other medications are unsuccessful. MAOIs may be particularly useful in atypical depression (over eating / over sleeping, mood reactivity).

      MAOIs block the monoamine oxidase enzyme, which breaks down different types of neurotransmitters from the brain: norepinephrine, serotonin, dopamine, as well as tyramine. There are two types of monoamine oxidase, A and B. The MOA A are mostly distributed in the placenta, gut, and liver, but MOA B is present in the brain, liver, and platelets. Selegiline and rasagiline are irreversible and selective inhibitors of MAO type B, but safinamide is a reversible and selective MAO B inhibitor.

      The most common adverse effects of MAOIs occurring early in treatment are orthostatic hypotension, daytime sleepiness, insomnia, and nausea; later common effects include weight gain, muscle pain, myoclonus, paraesthesia, and sexual dysfunction.

      Pharmacodynamic interactions with MAOIs can cause two types of problem: serotonin syndrome (mainly due to SSRIs) and elevated blood pressure (caused by indirectly acting sympathomimetic amines releasers, like pseudoephedrine and phenylephrine). The combination of MAOIs and some TCAs appears safe. Only those TCAs with significant serotonin reuptake inhibition (clomipramine and imipramine) are likely to increase the risk of serotonin syndrome.

      Tyramine is a monoamine found in various foods, and is an indirect sympathomimetic that can cause a hypertensive reaction in patients receiving MAOI therapy. For this reason, dietary restrictions are required for patients receiving MAOIs. These restrictions include avoiding matured/aged cheese, fermented sausage, improperly stored meat, fava of broad bean pods, and certain drinks such as on-tap beer. Allowed foods include fresh cottage cheese, processed cheese slices, fresh packaged of processed meat, and other alcohol (no more than two bottled or canned beers of two standard glasses of wine, per day).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 79-year-old man has been out of contact with his daughter for several...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old man has been out of contact with his daughter for several weeks whilst she has been on vacation. Upon her return, she finds him confused and unclothed on the couch in his apartment. He is unsteady on his feet and unable to recall how long he has been there, suggesting that he has also just returned from vacation. He points to rats on the floor of his apartment, which his daughter cannot see. He is taken to the hospital, where he is diagnosed with ataxia and ophthalmoplegia. Which of the following conditions would make this man more susceptible to the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alcohol dependence

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause of the patient’s symptoms is alcohol dependence, which can lead to a depletion of B1 stores and result in Wernicke’s encephalopathy. While hypertension and type 2 diabetes are risk factors for vascular disease, they typically present with focal neurological signs rather than confusion. The patient’s triad of confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia, along with visual hallucinations and confabulation, suggest a Korsakoff’s psychosis, which can result from a thiamine deficiency. While anorexia nervosa can also cause B1 deficiency, it is an unlikely condition in an elderly gentleman, and other conditions causing malabsorption can also trigger Wernicke’s. While diabetics can experience delirium from low blood sugars and infections, the specific symptoms described here are not typical of these causes. While people with learning difficulties may be more prone to delirium with concurrent illness, it is not likely to cause the specific triad of symptoms seen in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Diagnosis
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Can you identify a personality test that measures traits using numerical values? ...

    Incorrect

    • Can you identify a personality test that measures traits using numerical values?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory

      Explanation:

      As long as you comprehend the distinction between quantitative (involving a specific measure) and qualitative (involving a description), you should be able to answer this question without difficulty.

      Personality Testing

      There are two main types of personality tests: projective and objective. Projective tests aim to assess unconscious material by presenting subjects with ambiguous pictures of phrases to elicit an unconscious response. Examples of projective tests include the Rorschach Inkblot, Thematic Apperception Test, Draw-A-Person test, and sentence completion tests. On the other hand, objective tests have structured and clear questions and aims. Examples of objective tests include the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory, Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire (16PF), NEO Personality Inventory, and Eysenck Personality Test (EPQ).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - In a patient with chronic schizophrenia on a stable dose of 2mg risperidone...

    Incorrect

    • In a patient with chronic schizophrenia on a stable dose of 2mg risperidone for 2 years, who develops worsening symptoms and is given an increased dose of 4 mg risperidone, what is the most likely cause of his current presentation of stiffness, fever, breathlessness, and sweating?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

      Explanation:

      Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyper-reflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following refers to a continuous stream of slow, flowing, writhing...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following refers to a continuous stream of slow, flowing, writhing involuntary movements?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Athetosis

      Explanation:

      Movement Disorders: Key Features

      Movement disorders refer to a range of conditions that affect voluntary muscle movements. These disorders can be caused by various factors, including neurological conditions, medication side effects, and metabolic imbalances. The following table outlines some of the key features of common movement disorders:

      Akinesia: Absence of loss of control of voluntary muscle movements, often seen in severe Parkinson’s disease.

      Bradykinesia: Slowness of voluntary movement, a core symptom of Parkinson’s disease.

      Akathisia: Subjective feeling of inner restlessness, often caused by antipsychotic medication use.

      Athetosis: Continuous stream of slow, flowing, writhing involuntary movements, often seen in cerebral palsy, stroke, and Huntington’s disease.

      Chorea: Brief, quasi-purposeful, irregular contractions that appear to flow from one muscle to the next, often seen in Huntington’s disease and Wilson’s disease.

      Dystonia: Involuntary sustained of intermittent muscle contractions that cause twisting and repetitive movements, abnormal postures, of both.

      Dyskinesia: General term referring to problems with voluntary movements and the presence of involuntary movements, often drug-induced.

      Myoclonus: A sequence of repeated, often non-rhythmic, brief shock-like jerks due to sudden involuntary contraction of relaxation of one of more muscles.

      Parkinsonism: Syndrome characterized by tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia.

      Tic: Sudden, repetitive, non-rhythmic, stereotyped motor movement of vocalization involving discrete muscle groups, often seen in Tourette’s syndrome.

      Tremor: Involuntary, rhythmic, alternating movement of one of more body parts, often seen in essential tremor, Parkinson’s disease, and alcohol withdrawal.

      Hemiballismus: Repetitive, but constantly varying, large amplitude involuntary movements of the proximal parts of the limbs, often seen in stroke and traumatic brain injury.

      Stereotypies: Repetitive, simple movements that can be voluntarily suppressed, often seen in autism and intellectual disability.

      It is important to consider the underlying conditions and factors that may contribute to movement disorders in order to properly diagnose and treat these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Genetics (1/1) 100%
Diagnosis (0/1) 0%
Social Psychology (1/1) 100%
Psychopharmacology (1/1) 100%
Classification And Assessment (0/1) 0%
Passmed