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Question 1
Correct
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Which of the following best describes the process of opsonisation:
Your Answer: The coating of foreign particles with molecules which allow easier recognition of that cell by phagocytes
Explanation:An opsonin is any molecule that enhances phagocytosis by marking an antigen for an immune response, for example, immunoglobulin or complement. Opsonisation is the molecular mechanism whereby molecules, microbes, or apoptotic cells are chemically modified to have a stronger attraction to the cell surface receptors on phagocytes and natural killer cells. With the antigen coated in opsonins, binding to immune cells is greatly enhanced. Opsonisation also mediates phagocytosis via signal cascades from cell surface receptors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immune Responses
- Pathology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old woman presents with symptoms of increase in weight, proximal muscular weakening and withering, easy bruising, and acne. You notice that she has a full, plethoric aspect to her face, as well as significant supraclavicular fat pads, when you examine her. She has previously been diagnosed with Cushing's syndrome.Cushing's syndrome is most commonly caused by which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Iatrogenic administration of corticosteroids
Explanation:Cushing’s syndrome is a group of symptoms and signs brought on by long-term exposure to high amounts of endogenous or exogenous glucocorticoids. Cushing’s syndrome affects about 10-15 persons per million, and it is more common in those who have had a history of obesity, hypertension, or diabetes.Iatrogenic corticosteroid injection is the most prevalent cause of Cushing’s syndrome. Cushing’s illness is the second most prevalent cause of Cushing’s syndrome. Cushing’s disease is distinct from Cushing’s syndrome in that it refers to a single cause of the illness, a pituitary adenoma that secretes high quantities of ACTH, which raises cortisol levels.Cushing’s syndrome has several endogenous sources, including:Cushing’s disease is caused by a pituitary adenoma.Adrenal adenoma Ectopic corticotropin syndrome, e.g. small cell cancer of the lungAdrenal carcinoma is a cancer of the adrenal gland.Hyperplasia of the adrenal glands
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Which of the following does NOT affect the rate of flow of a liquid through a tube:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Surface tension
Explanation:Flow through a tube is dependent upon:The pressure difference across the ends of the tube (P1– P2)The resistance to flow provided by the tube (R)This is Darcy’s law, which is analogous to Ohm’s law in electronics:Flow = (P1– P2) / RResistance in the tube is defined by Poiseuille’s law, which is determined by the diameter of the tube and the viscosity of the fluid. Poiseuille’s law is as follows:Resistance = (8VL) / (πR4)Where:V = The viscosity of the fluidL = The length of the tubeR = The radius of the tubeTherefore, in simple terms, resistance is directly proportional to the viscosity of the fluid and the length of the tube and inversely proportional to the radius of the tube. Of these three factors, the most important quantitatively and physiologically is vessel radius.It can be seen that small changes in the radius can have a dramatic effect on the flow of the fluid. For example, the constriction of an artery by 20% will decrease the flow by approximately 60%.Another important and frequently quoted example of this inverse relationship is that of the radius of an intravenous cannula. Doubling the diameter of a cannula increases the flow rate by 16-fold (r4). This is the reason the diameter of an intravenous cannula in resuscitation scenarios is so important.*Please note that knowledge of the detail of Poiseuille’s law is not a requirement of the RCEM Basic Sciences Curriculum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Cellular
- Physiology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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The most common source of healthcare-associated bacteraemia is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intravenous cannula
Explanation:Healthcare-associated bacteraemia is most commonly caused by intravenous access. Any intravenous device that is left in place for a long time increases the risk of infection. It allows bacteria like Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis to enter the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Principles
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Regarding bronchiolitis, which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chest x-ray may show hyperinflation and increased peribronchial markings.
Explanation:Acute bronchiolitis is caused most commonly by respiratory syncytial virus, occurring mostly in children aged 6 months to 2 years. Children with bronchiolitis are febrile and tachypnoeic with a dry cough and difficulty feeding. Examination may reveal chest hyperinflation, respiratory distress, wheezing and fine end-inspiratory crepitations. Chest x-ray may show hyperinflation and increased peribronchial markings (although CXR should only performed if there is diagnostic uncertainty or an atypical course). Treatment is usually supportive, aerosolized ribavirin is reserved for severely ill or immunocompromised patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathogens
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Question 6
Incorrect
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What is the pathophysiology of a phaeochromocytoma:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Catecholamine-secreting tumour
Explanation:Phaeochromocytomas are catecholamine-secreting tumours which occur in about 0.1% of patients with hypertension. In about 90% of cases they arise from the adrenal medulla. The remaining 10%, which arise from extra-adrenal chromaffin tissue, are termed paragangliomas. Common presenting symptoms include one or more of headache, sweating, pallor and palpitations. Less commonly, patients describe anxiety, panic attacks and pyrexia. Hypertension, whether sustained or episodic, is present in at least 90% of patients. Left untreated phaeochromocytoma can occasionally lead to hypertensive crisis, encephalopathy, hyperglycaemia, pulmonary oedema, cardiac arrhythmias, or even death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine
- Physiology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A young female was diagnosed with a urinary tract infection and was sent home with medications. However, after 48 hours of discharge, she returned to the hospital because there had been no relief from her symptoms. The urine sensitivity test report is still unavailable. Fresh blood tests were sent, and her estimated GFR is calculated to be >60 ml/minute. She was prescribed nitrofurantoin 100 mg modified-release orally twice a day for two days.Out of the following, which antibiotic is most appropriate to be prescribed to this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fosfomycin
Explanation:The NICE guidelines for women with lower UTIs who are not pregnant are:1. Consider prescribing a different antibiotic if symptoms do not improve within 48 hours or worsen at any time 2. If the urine culture and susceptibility test results are available, review the choice of antibiotic according to the results and change the antibiotic accordingly if symptoms are not improving or bacteria is resistant to the prescribed antibioticThe first choice of antibiotics for non-pregnant women aged 16 years and over is:1. Nitrofurantoin100 mg modified-release PO BD for 3 days – if eGFR >45 ml/minute2. Trimethoprim 200 mg PO BD for three daysThe second-choice (no improvement in lower UTI symptoms on first-choice for at least 48 hours, or when first-choice is not suitable) are:1. Nitrofurantoin100 mg modified-release PO BD for three days – if eGFR >45 ml/minute2. Pivmecillinam400 mg PO initial dose, then 200 mg PO TDS for three days3. Fosfomycin 3 g single sachet dose
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which of the following is NOT a typical clinical feature of osteomalacia:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypercalcaemia
Explanation:Features of osteomalacia include: Bone pain (particularly bone, pelvis, ribs)Neuromuscular dysfunction (particularly in the gluteal muscles, leading to waddling gaitPseudofractures on x-ray (looser zones)Elevated alkaline phosphatase, hypocalcaemia and low phosphate due to secondary hyperparathyroidism
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine
- Physiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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The resting membrane potential of a neurone is usually about:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: -70 mV
Explanation:In most neurones the resting potential has a value of approximately -70 mV. The threshold potential is generally around -55 mV. Initial depolarisation occurs as a result of a Na+influx through ligand-gated Na+channels. Action potential is an all or nothing response; because the size of the action potential is constant, the intensity of the stimulus is coded by the frequency of firing of a neuron. Repolarisation occurs primarily due to K+efflux.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Cellular
- Physiology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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The most important nerve for plantar flexion of the foot at the ankle joint is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tibial nerve
Explanation:Muscles of the posterior compartment of the leg, innervated by the tibial nerve, perform plantar flexion of the foot at the ankle joint. The fibularis longus (innervated by the superficial fibular nerve) assists in plantar flexion but is not the most important.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old female with a past history of rheumatic fever and a prosthetic mitral valve presents to you with fever and an episode of expressive dysphasia that lasted around 30 minutes. There is no history of known drug allergies On examination you note a systolic murmur and you suspect it is infective endocarditis.Which antibacterial agents would be the most appropriate to prescribe in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vancomycin, rifampicin and gentamicin
Explanation:Endocarditis is infective or non infective inflammation (marantic endocarditis) of the inner layer of the heart and it often involves the heart valves.Risk factors include:Prosthetic heart valvesCongenital heart defectsPrior history of endocarditisRheumatic feverIllicit intravenous drug useIn the presentation of endocarditis, the following triad is often quoted:Persistent feverEmbolic phenomenaNew or changing murmurA combination of vancomycin, rifampicin and gentamicin is advised if the patient has a cardiac prostheses, is penicillin allergic, or if methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is suspected. In this case the patient has a prosthetic valve making this the most appropriate initial treatment regimen.Flucloxacillin and gentamicin are current recommended by NICE and the BNF for the initial ‘blind’ therapy in endocarditis. This patient has prostheses and this is not the most appropriate initial treatment regimen.Other features that may be present include heart failure, splenomegaly, finger clubbing, renal features (haematuria, proteinuria, nephritis), and vasculitic features (splinter haemorrhages, Osler’s nodes, Janeway lesions, Roth’s spots).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A new blood test is being developed to diagnose DVT. 1000 people presenting to ED with suspected DVT undergo the new blood test and the gold standard doppler ultrasound to confirm the diagnosis. Of the 1000 people, 77 are confirmed to have a DVT. Of the patients diagnosed with DVT, 75 test positive with the new diagnostic test and of the patients not diagnosed with DVT, 125 test positive with the new diagnostic test. What is the negative predictive value of this test:DVT YesDVT NoTotalPositive testa= 75b = 125200Negative testc = 2d = 798800Total779231000
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 0.99
Explanation:Negative predictive value (NPV) is the proportion of individuals with a negative test result who do not have the disease.Negative predictive value (NPV) = d/(c+d) = 798/800 = 0.99 = 99%This means there is a 99% chance, if the test is negative, that the patient does not have a DVT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Medicine
- Statistics
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Regarding inflammatory bowel disease, acute mild to moderate disease of the rectum or rectosigmoid should be treated initially with:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Local aminosalicylate
Explanation:Acute mild to moderate disease affecting the rectum (proctitis) or the rectosigmoid is treated initially with local application of an aminosalicylate; alternatively, a local corticosteroid can be used but it is less effective. A combination of a local aminosalicylate and a local corticosteroid can be used for proctitis that does not respond to a local aminosalicylate alone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Pharmacology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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You review a patient with urinary sepsis and decide to start her on gentamicin.Which statement about gentamicin is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ototoxicity is a dose-related effect
Explanation:Gentamicin, an aminoglycoside antibiotic, acts by binding to the 30S subunit of the bacterial ribosome inhibiting the binding of aminoacyl-tRNA, and thus prevents initiation of protein synthesis.Gentamicin is given by injection because it is NOT absorbed orally. It is excreted in the kidneys by glomerular filtrationGentamicin is not to be used for the treatment of Neisseria meningitidis, Neisseria gonorrhoea, or Legionella pneumophila.There is a risk of patient going into shock from lipid A endotoxin release.Two of its most notable side effects are hearing loss reversible nephrotoxicity and which are both dose-related and levels should be monitored in patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Regarding Legionella species which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: They are Gram-negative organisms.
Explanation:Legionella pneumophilais a Gram negative bacterium that is found in natural water supplies and in the soil, transmitted predominantly via inhalation of aerosols generated from contaminated water (direct person-to-person spread of infected patients does not occur). It is the cause of Legionnaires’ disease. Outbreaks of Legionnaires’ disease have been linked to poorly maintained air conditioning systems, whirlpool spas and hot tubs.The clinical features of the pneumonic form of Legionnaires’ disease include:Mild flu-like prodrome for 1-3 daysCough (usually non-productive and occurs in approximately 90%)Pleuritic chest painHaemoptysisHeadacheNausea, vomiting and diarrhoeaAnorexiaLegionella pneumophilainfections can be successfully treated with macrolide antibiotics, such as erythromycin, or quinolones, such as ciprofloxacin. Tetracyclines, such as doxycycline, can also be used.The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) can occur with Legionnaires’ disease and will result in hyponatraemia as is seen in this case.Legionella pneumophilainfections are resistant to amoxicillin but can be successfully treated with macrolide antibiotics, such as erythromycin, or quinolones, such as ciprofloxacin. Tetracyclines, such as doxycycline, can also be used. The majority of cases of Legionnaires’ disease are caused by Legionella pneumophila, however many other species of Legionella have been identified.Legionella longbeachae is another less commonly encountered species that has also been implicated in outbreaks. It is predominantly found in soil and potting compost, and has caused outbreaks of Pontiac fever, the non-respiratory and less severe variant of Legionnaires’ disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathogens
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which of the following is caused by an alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Early onset emphysema
Explanation:Mucus contains chemicals such as alpha-1-antitrypsin, lysozyme, and IgA that protect the airway from pathogens and damaging proteases released from dead bacteria and immune cells. Early-onset emphysema results from a genetic deficit of alpha-1-antitrypsin, which is caused by unregulated protease activity in the lungs, which results in the degradation of elastin in the alveoli.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of chest pain pointing to angina. A dose of glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) was administered, rapidly resolving her symptoms. Unfortunately, she develops a side-effect of the drug.Which one of the following is the side effect she is most likely to have developed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Flushing
Explanation:Angina pectoris is the most common symptom of ischemic heart disease and presents with chest pain relieved by rest and nitro-glycerine. Nitrates are the first-line treatment to relieve chest pain caused by angina. The commonly used nitrates are: 1. Glyceryl trinitrate 2. Isosorbide dinitrate Side effects to nitrate therapy are common especially The most common side effects are:1. Headaches2. Feeling dizzy, weak, or tired3. Nausea4. Flushing The serious but less likely to occur side effects are:1. Methemoglobinemia (rare)2. Syncope3. Prolonged bleeding time4. Exfoliative dermatitis5. Unstable angina6. Rebound hypertension7. ThrombocytopeniaDry eyes, bradycardia, and metabolic acidosis have not been reported.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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In adults, the conus medullaris of the spinal cord lies at which of the following vertebral levels:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: L1/L2
Explanation:At birth, the conus medullaris lies at L3. By the age of 21, it sits at L1/L2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head And Neck
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Regarding bias, which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bias leads to the systematic difference between the results from a study and the true states of affair.
Explanation:Bias is the term used to describe an error at any stage of the study that was not due to chance. Bias leads to the systematic difference between the results from a study and the true states of affair. Bias may be introduced at all stages of the research process, from study design, through to analysis and publication. Bias can create a spurious association or mask a real association.Good research design can reduce the effect of bias (e.g. blinding, randomisation) but they cannot eliminate it completely. Increasing the sample size does not reduce bias.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Medicine
- Study Methodology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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The triage nurse asks if you will prescribe a dose of codeine phosphate for a patient who is in a lot of pain. You discover that you are unable to prescribe it due to a contra-indication after evaluating the patient.The use of codeine phosphate is contraindicated in which of the following situations?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Age under 12 years
Explanation:Codeine phosphate is a mild opiate that can be used to treat mild to moderate pain when other pain relievers like paracetamol or ibuprofen have failed. It can also be used to treat diarrhoea and coughs that are dry or painful.The use of all opioids is contraindicated for the following reasons:Respiratory depression (acute)Patients who are comatoseHead injury (opioid analgesics impair pupillary responses, which are crucial for neurological evaluation)Intracranial pressure has risen (opioid analgesics interfere with pupillary responses vital for neurological assessment)There’s a chance you’ll get paralytic ileus.The use of codeine phosphate is contraindicated in the following situations:Because of the significant risk of respiratory side effects in children under the age of 12, it is not recommended for children under the age of 12.Patients of any age who have been identified as ultra-rapid codeine metabolizers (CYP2D6 ultra-rapid metabolizers)Because codeine can pass through breast milk to the baby and because mothers’ ability to metabolise codeine varies greatly, it is especially dangerous in breastfeeding mothers.If other painkillers, such as paracetamol or ibuprofen, fail to relieve acute moderate pain in children over the age of 12, codeine should be used. In children with obstructive sleep apnoea who received codeine after tonsillectomy or adenoidectomy, a significant risk of serious and life-threatening adverse reactions has been identified.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- CNS Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man presented to the emergency room after an incident of slipping and falling onto his back and left hip. Upon physical examination, it was noted that he has pain on hip adduction, but normal hip flexion. Which of the following muscles was most likely injured in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pectineus
Explanation:The hip adductors are a group of five muscles located in the medial compartment of the thigh. These muscles are the adductor longus, adductor brevis, adductor magnus, gracilis, and pectineus.The hip flexors consist of 5 key muscles that contribute to hip flexion: iliacus, psoas, pectineus, rectus femoris, and sartorius.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman presents with a red, scaly, itchy rash around her navel that occurred after contact with a nickel belt buckle. A diagnosis of allergic contact dermatitis is made. Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is this?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type IV hypersensitivity reaction
Explanation:A type IV hypersensitivity reaction occurred in this patient. Allergic contact dermatitis is an inflammatory skin reaction occurring in response to an external stimulus, acting either as an allergen or an irritant, caused by a type IV or delayed hypersensitivity reaction. They usually take several days to develop.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old student presents with a headache and petechial rash. A diagnosis of meningitis was suspected, with a causative agent of Neisseria meningitidis. Which of the following statements is considered correct regarding Neisseria meningitidis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The antiphagocytic polysaccharide capsule is the main determinant of its pathogenicity
Explanation:N. meningitidis is a Gram-negative cocci and can be found as a commensal as well as an invasive pathogen. It is an important etiologic agent of endemic and epidemic meningitis and meningococcaemia and rarely pneumonia, purulent arthritis, or endophthalmitis. N. meningitidis has also been recovered from urogenital and rectal sites as a result of oral-genital contact. Meningococcal carriage, usually involving nonencapsulated strains, may cause an increase in protective antibody against the pathogenic strains. Of the 12 meningococcal encapsulated serogroups, A, B, C, Y, and W-135 account for most cases of disease in the world. N. meningitidis possesses a polysaccharide capsule that is antiphagocytic and serves as an important virulence factor.It can be found on the mucosal surfaces of the nasopharynx and oropharynx in 30% of the human population. The organism is transmitted by close contact with respiratory droplet secretions from a carrier to a new host. Only a few newly colonized hosts develop meningococcal disease, with the highest incidence being found in infants and adolescents.The quadrivalent vaccine Menactra is a polysaccharide-protein conjugated vaccine with antigens to serogroups A, C, Y, and W-135. This conjugate vaccine is licensed for people 2 to 55 years old. This vaccine does not protect against meningitis caused by serogroup B because group B polysaccharide is a very poor immunogen in humans.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 25
Incorrect
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The neurotransmitter in the synaptic cleft is either eliminated or deactivated after the postsynaptic cell responds to the neurotransmitter.Which of the following enzymes catalyses the breakdown of noradrenaline?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT)
Explanation:The neurotransmitter in the synaptic cleft is either eliminated or deactivated after the post-synaptic cell responds to the neurotransmitter. This can be accomplished in a variety of ways:Re-uptakeBreakdownDiffusionSerotonin is an example of a neurotransmitter that is uptake. Serotonin is absorbed back into the presynaptic neuron via the serotonin transporter (SERT), which is found in the presynaptic membrane. Re-uptake neurotransmitters are either recycled by repackaging into vesicles or broken down by enzymes.Specific enzymes found in the synaptic cleft can also break down neurotransmitters. The following enzymes are examples of these enzymes:Acetylcholinesterase (AChE) catalyses the acetylcholine breakdown (ACh)The enzyme catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT) catalyses the breakdown of catecholamines like adrenaline , dopamine and noradrenaline. The breakdown of catecholamines, as well as other monoamines like serotonin, tyramine, and tryptamine, is catalysed by monoamine oxidases (MOA).Diffusion of neurotransmitters into nearby locations can also be used to eliminate them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Cellular Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Pancreatic acinar digestive enzyme secretion is mainly stimulated by which of the following hormones:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cholecystokinin
Explanation:Exocrine pancreatic secretion is controlled by:Parasympathetic stimulation which enhances secretion of both the enzyme and aqueous componentsSympathetic stimulation which inhibits pancreatic secretionSecretin which stimulates secretion of the alkaline-rich fluid from ductal cellsCholecystokinin which stimulates secretion of the enzyme-rich fluid from acinar cellsSomatostatin which inhibits secretion from both acinar and ductal cellsGastrin which stimulates pancreatic acinar cells to secrete digestive enzymes
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A patient presents with pain in the wrist and a tingling in the hand. On examination Tinel's test is positive and you diagnose carpal tunnel syndrome. Regarding the carpal tunnel, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The tendons of the flexor digitorum profundus, flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor pollicis longus lie within a single synovial sheath.
Explanation:Free movement of the tendons in the carpal tunnel is facilitated by synovial sheaths, which surround the tendons. All of the tendons of the FDP and FDS are contained within a single synovial sheath with a separate sheath enclosing the tendon of the FPL.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Stimulation of J receptors located on alveolar and bronchial walls results in all of the following EXCEPT for:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tachycardia
Explanation:Juxtapulmonary or ‘J’ receptors are located on alveolar and bronchial walls close to the capillaries. Their afferents are small unmyelinated C-fibres or myelinated nerves in the vagus nerve. Activation causes depression of somatic and visceral activity by producing apnoea or rapid shallow breathing, a fall in heart rate and blood pressure, laryngeal constriction and relaxation of skeletal muscles via spinal neurones. J receptors are stimulated by increased alveolar wall fluid, pulmonary congestion and oedema, microembolism and inflammatory mediators. J receptors are thought to be involved in the sensation of dyspnoea in lung disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which of the following cytokines is important for the maintenance of granulomatous inflammation:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: TNF-alpha
Explanation:Granulomatous inflammation is a distinctive pattern of chronic inflammation that is encountered in a limited number of infectious and some non-infectious conditions. Briefly, a granuloma is a cellular attempt to contain an offending agent that is difficult to eradicate. In this attempt, there is often strong activation of T lymphocytes leading to macrophage activation, which can cause injury to normal tissues. IL-1 is important in initiating granuloma formation, IL-2 can cause them to enlarge and TNF-α maintains them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Inflammatory Responses
- Pathology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
