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  • Question 1 - A 52-year-old businessman returns from a visit to Los Angeles with difficulty breathing...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old businessman returns from a visit to Los Angeles with difficulty breathing and chest pain that worsens with deep breaths. The results of his arterial blood gas (ABG) on room air are as follows:

      pH: 7.48
      pO2: 7.4 kPa
      PCO2: 3.1 kPa
      HCO3-: 24.5 mmol/l

      Which ONE statement about his ABG is correct?

      Your Answer: He has a respiratory acidosis

      Correct Answer: He has a respiratory alkalosis

      Explanation:

      Arterial blood gas (ABG) interpretation is crucial in evaluating a patient’s respiratory gas exchange and acid-base balance. While the normal values on an ABG may slightly vary between analysers, they generally fall within the following ranges: pH of 7.35 – 7.45, pO2 of 10 – 14 kPa, PCO2 of 4.5 – 6 kPa, HCO3- of 22 – 26 mmol/l, and base excess of -2 – 2 mmol/l.

      In this particular case, the patient’s medical history raises concerns about a potential diagnosis of pulmonary embolism. The relevant ABG findings are as follows: significant hypoxia (indicating type 1 respiratory failure), elevated pH (alkalaemia), low PCO2, and normal bicarbonate levels. These findings suggest that the patient is experiencing primary respiratory alkalosis.

      By analyzing the ABG results, healthcare professionals can gain valuable insights into a patient’s respiratory function and acid-base status, aiding in the diagnosis and management of various conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 70-year-old nursing home resident is brought to the Emergency Department because she...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old nursing home resident is brought to the Emergency Department because she has rapidly declined in the past 24 hours. She appears extremely ill and has a temperature of 39.3°C. She has a history of stroke, is typically confined to bed, and struggles with communication. During the examination, she exhibits rapid heart rate, rapid breathing, and coarse crackles in the right middle and lower areas.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Aspiration pneumonia

      Explanation:

      This patient presents with clinical features that are indicative of a right middle/lower lobe pneumonia. Considering her past medical history of a stroke and the specific location of the chest signs, it is highly probable that she is suffering from aspiration pneumonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      22.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Following the passing of a young patient treated for an extended cardiac arrest...

    Correct

    • Following the passing of a young patient treated for an extended cardiac arrest after a near-drowning incident, your supervisor requests that you arrange a training session for the junior physicians. Which of the following statements accurately reflects the management of near-drowning patients?

      Your Answer: Patients should be extricated from the water in the horizontal position

      Explanation:

      When rescuing drowning patients, it is important to extricate them from the water in a horizontal position whenever possible. This is because the pressure of the water on the body when submerged increases the flow of blood back to the heart, which in turn increases cardiac output. However, when the patient is removed from the water, this pressure effect is lost, which can lead to a sudden drop in blood pressure and circulatory collapse due to the loss of peripheral resistance and pooling of blood in the veins. By extricating the patient in a horizontal position, we can help counteract this effect.

      It is worth noting that the amount of water in the lungs after drowning is typically small, usually less than 4 milliliters per kilogram of body weight. Therefore, attempting to drain the water from the lungs is ineffective and not recommended.

      In cases of fresh water drowning, pneumonia may occur due to unusual pathogens such as aeromonas spp, burkholderia pseudomallei, chromobacterium spp, pseudomonas species, and leptospirosis.

      If the patient experiences bronchospasm, nebulized bronchodilators can be used as a treatment.

      To prevent secondary brain injury, it is important to prevent hyperthermia. This can be achieved by maintaining the patient’s core body temperature below 36 degrees Celsius during the rewarming process.

      Further Reading:

      Drowning is the process of experiencing respiratory impairment from submersion or immersion in liquid. It can be classified as cold-water or warm-water drowning. Risk factors for drowning include young age and male sex. Drowning impairs lung function and gas exchange, leading to hypoxemia and acidosis. It also causes cardiovascular instability, which contributes to metabolic acidosis and cell death.

      When someone is submerged or immersed, they will voluntarily hold their breath to prevent aspiration of water. However, continued breath holding causes progressive hypoxia and hypercapnia, leading to acidosis. Eventually, the respiratory center sends signals to the respiratory muscles, forcing the individual to take an involuntary breath and allowing water to be aspirated into the lungs. Water entering the lungs stimulates a reflex laryngospasm that prevents further penetration of water. Aspirated water can cause significant hypoxia and damage to the alveoli, leading to acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).

      Complications of drowning include cardiac ischemia and infarction, infection with waterborne pathogens, hypothermia, neurological damage, rhabdomyolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).

      In children, the diving reflex helps reduce hypoxic injury during submersion. It causes apnea, bradycardia, and peripheral vasoconstriction, reducing cardiac output and myocardial oxygen demand while maintaining perfusion of the brain and vital organs.

      Associated injuries with drowning include head and cervical spine injuries in patients rescued from shallow water. Investigations for drowning include arterial blood gases, chest X-ray, ECG and cardiac monitoring, core temperature measurement, and blood and sputum cultures if secondary infection is suspected.

      Management of drowning involves extricating the patient from water in a horizontal position with spinal precautions if possible. Cardiovascular considerations should be taken into account when removing patients from water to prevent hypotension and circulatory collapse. Airway management, supplemental oxygen, and ventilation strategies are important in maintaining oxygenation and preventing further lung injury. Correcting hypotension, electrolyte disturbances, and hypothermia is also necessary. Attempting to drain water from the lungs is ineffective.

      Patients without associated physical injury who are asymptomatic and have no evidence of respiratory compromise after six hours can be safely discharged home. Ventilation strategies aim to maintain oxygenation while minimizing ventilator-associated lung injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      31.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 30 year old female is brought into the emergency department in a...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old female is brought into the emergency department in a comatose state. After initial investigations, it is determined that mechanical ventilation should be initiated. What is a characteristic of a lung protective ventilation approach?

      Your Answer: Utilise humidification chamber on ventilator

      Correct Answer: Permissible hypercapnia

      Explanation:

      Lung protective ventilation is a strategy that involves using smaller amounts of air during each breath (low tidal volumes) and restricting the maximum pressure applied during inhalation (plateau pressure). This approach also allows for a certain level of increased carbon dioxide levels in the body (hypercapnia).

      Further Reading:

      Mechanical ventilation is the use of artificial means to assist or replace spontaneous breathing. It can be invasive, involving instrumentation inside the trachea, or non-invasive, where there is no instrumentation of the trachea. Non-invasive mechanical ventilation (NIV) in the emergency department typically refers to the use of CPAP or BiPAP.

      CPAP, or continuous positive airways pressure, involves delivering air or oxygen through a tight-fitting face mask to maintain a continuous positive pressure throughout the patient’s respiratory cycle. This helps maintain small airway patency, improves oxygenation, decreases airway resistance, and reduces the work of breathing. CPAP is mainly used for acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema.

      BiPAP, or biphasic positive airways pressure, also provides positive airway pressure but with variations during the respiratory cycle. The pressure is higher during inspiration than expiration, generating a tidal volume that assists ventilation. BiPAP is mainly indicated for type 2 respiratory failure in patients with COPD who are already on maximal medical therapy.

      The pressure settings for CPAP typically start at 5 cmH2O and can be increased to a maximum of 15 cmH2O. For BiPAP, the starting pressure for expiratory pressure (EPAP) or positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) is 3-5 cmH2O, while the starting pressure for inspiratory pressure (IPAP) is 10-15 cmH2O. These pressures can be titrated up if there is persisting hypoxia or acidosis.

      In terms of lung protective ventilation, low tidal volumes of 5-8 ml/kg are used to prevent atelectasis and reduce the risk of lung injury. Inspiratory pressures (plateau pressure) should be kept below 30 cm of water, and permissible hypercapnia may be allowed. However, there are contraindications to lung protective ventilation, such as unacceptable levels of hypercapnia, acidosis, and hypoxemia.

      Overall, mechanical ventilation, whether invasive or non-invasive, is used in various respiratory and non-respiratory conditions to support or replace spontaneous breathing and improve oxygenation and ventilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      31.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a persistent dry cough...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a persistent dry cough and fever for the past few days. She has noticed that her cough does not produce any phlegm. Today, she has also experienced multiple episodes of diarrhea and has developed sharp chest pain on both sides. She mentions feeling short of breath, especially when she exerts herself. She works as a Jacuzzi and whirlpool installer and smokes 10 cigarettes per day.

      What is the SINGLE most probable causative organism in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Legionella longbeachae

      Correct Answer: Legionella pneumophila

      Explanation:

      Legionella pneumophila, a Gram-negative bacterium, can be found in natural water supplies and soil. It is responsible for causing Legionnaires’ disease, a serious illness. Outbreaks of this disease have been associated with poorly maintained air conditioning systems, whirlpool spas, and hot tubs.

      The pneumonic form of Legionnaires’ disease presents with specific clinical features. Initially, there may be a mild flu-like prodrome lasting for 1-3 days. A non-productive cough, occurring in approximately 90% of cases, is also common. Pleuritic chest pain, haemoptysis, headache, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, and anorexia are other symptoms that may be experienced.

      Fortunately, Legionella pneumophila infections can be effectively treated with macrolide antibiotics like erythromycin, or quinolones such as ciprofloxacin. Tetracyclines, including doxycycline, can also be used as a treatment option.

      While the majority of Legionnaires’ disease cases are caused by Legionella pneumophila, there are several other species of Legionella that have been identified. One such species is Legionella longbeachae, which is less commonly encountered. It is primarily found in soil and potting compost and has been associated with outbreaks of Pontiac fever, a milder variant of Legionnaires’ disease that does not primarily affect the respiratory system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      23.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 32-year-old patient with asthma is transferred to the resuscitation area of your...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old patient with asthma is transferred to the resuscitation area of your Emergency Department due to a worsening of their symptoms. Your consultant administers an initial dose of IV aminophylline, and the patient's symptoms start to improve. Your consultant requests that you monitor the patient's theophylline levels after a suitable period of time.
      What is the recommended therapeutic range for theophylline in plasma?

      Your Answer: 5-10 mg/litre

      Correct Answer: 10-20 mg/litre

      Explanation:

      In order to achieve satisfactory bronchodilation, most individuals require a plasma theophylline concentration of 10-20 mg/litre (55-110 micromol/litre). However, it is possible for a lower concentration to still be effective. Adverse effects can occur within the range of 10-20 mg/litre, and their frequency and severity increase when concentrations exceed 20 mg/litre.

      To measure plasma theophylline concentration, a blood sample should be taken five days after starting oral treatment and at least three days after any dose adjustment. For modified-release preparations, the blood sample should typically be taken 4-6 hours after an oral dose (specific sampling times may vary, so it is advisable to consult local guidelines). If aminophylline is administered intravenously, a blood sample should be taken 4-6 hours after initiating treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      49
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 45-year-old woman comes in with a one-week history of fatigue, fever, headache,...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman comes in with a one-week history of fatigue, fever, headache, muscle aches, and a dry cough that has now started to produce a small amount of sputum. She has also been experiencing occasional episodes of diarrhea for the past two days. During the examination, audible crackles are heard at the base of her lungs. Her blood test results today show evidence of hemolytic anemia and the presence of cold agglutinins.

      What is the SINGLE most appropriate antibiotic to prescribe for this patient?

      Your Answer: Doxycycline

      Correct Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      This patient presents with symptoms and signs that are consistent with an atypical pneumonia, most likely caused by an infection with Mycoplasma pneumoniae. The clinical features of Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection include a flu-like illness that precedes respiratory symptoms, along with fever, myalgia, headache, diarrhea, and cough (initially dry but often becoming productive). Focal chest signs typically develop later in the course of the illness.

      Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection is commonly associated with the development of erythema multiforme, a rash characterized by multiple red lesions on the limbs that evolve into target lesions a few days after the rash appears. Additionally, this infection can also cause Steven-Johnson syndrome. It is worth noting that haemolytic anaemia with cold agglutinins can complicate Mycoplasma pneumoniae infections, providing further evidence for the diagnosis.

      The recommended first-line antibiotic for treating this case would be a macrolide, such as clarithromycin. Doxycycline can also be used but is generally considered a second-line option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      32.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 32-year-old individual presents with a sudden worsening of asthma symptoms. You conduct...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old individual presents with a sudden worsening of asthma symptoms. You conduct an arterial blood gas test, and their PaCO2 level is 6.3 kPa.
      How would you categorize this asthma exacerbation?

      Your Answer: Acute severe asthma

      Correct Answer: Near-fatal asthma

      Explanation:

      This individual has presented with an episode of acute asthma. Their PaCO2 levels are elevated at 6.3 kPa, indicating a near-fatal exacerbation. According to the BTS guidelines, acute asthma can be classified as moderate, acute severe, life-threatening, or near-fatal.

      Moderate asthma is characterized by increasing symptoms and a PEFR (peak expiratory flow rate) of 50-75% of the best or predicted value. There are no features of acute severe asthma present in this classification.

      Acute severe asthma can be identified by any one of the following criteria: a PEFR of 33-50% of the best or predicted value, a respiratory rate exceeding 25 breaths per minute, a heart rate surpassing 110 beats per minute, or the inability to complete sentences in one breath.

      Life-threatening asthma is determined by any one of the following indicators: a PEFR below 33% of the best or predicted value, an SpO2 (oxygen saturation) level below 92%, a PaO2 (partial pressure of oxygen) below 8 kPa, normal PaCO2 levels (ranging from 4.6-6.0 kPa), a silent chest, cyanosis, poor respiratory effort, arrhythmia, exhaustion, altered conscious level, or hypotension.

      Near-fatal asthma is characterized by a raised PaCO2 level and/or the need for mechanical ventilation with elevated inflation pressures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      12.5
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  • Question 9 - A child presents with a severe acute asthma attack. After a poor response...

    Correct

    • A child presents with a severe acute asthma attack. After a poor response to their initial salbutamol nebulizer, you administer a second nebulizer that also contains ipratropium bromide.
      What is the estimated duration of action for ipratropium bromide?

      Your Answer: 3-6 hours

      Explanation:

      Ipratropium bromide is a medication that falls under the category of antimuscarinic drugs. It is commonly used to manage acute asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). While it can provide short-term relief for chronic asthma, it is generally recommended to use short-acting β2 agonists as they act more quickly and are preferred.

      According to the guidelines set by the British Thoracic Society (BTS), nebulized ipratropium bromide (0.5 mg every 4-6 hours) can be added to β2 agonist treatment for patients with acute severe or life-threatening asthma, or those who do not respond well to initial β2 agonist therapy.

      For mild cases of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, aerosol inhalation of ipratropium can be used for short-term relief, as long as the patient is not already using a long-acting antimuscarinic drug like tiotropium. The maximum effect of ipratropium occurs within 30-60 minutes after use, and its bronchodilating effects can last for 3-6 hours. Typically, treatment with ipratropium is recommended three times a day to maintain bronchodilation.

      The most common side effect of ipratropium bromide is dry mouth. Other potential side effects include constipation, cough, paroxysmal bronchospasm, headache, nausea, and palpitations. It is important to note that ipratropium can cause urinary retention in patients with prostatic hyperplasia and bladder outflow obstruction. Additionally, it can trigger acute closed-angle glaucoma in susceptible patients.

      For more information on the management of asthma, it is recommended to refer to the BTS/SIGN Guideline on the Management of Asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 6-month-old baby boy is brought to the Emergency Department with a 3-day...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old baby boy is brought to the Emergency Department with a 3-day history of cold symptoms. He is coughing frequently, and his mother has noticed that he is wheezing. He is now having difficulty with feeding and appears fatigued. On examination, his respiratory rate is 60, and you can see flaring of the nostrils and chest wall retractions. Chest examination reveals bilateral fine crackles and high-pitched expiratory wheezing in both lung fields.

      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute bronchitis

      Correct Answer: Bronchiolitis

      Explanation:

      Bronchiolitis is a common respiratory infection that primarily affects infants. It typically occurs between the ages of 3-6 months and is most prevalent during the winter months from November to March. The main culprit behind bronchiolitis is the respiratory syncytial virus, accounting for about 70% of cases. However, other viruses like parainfluenza, influenza, adenovirus, coronavirus, and rhinovirus can also cause this infection.

      The clinical presentation of bronchiolitis usually starts with symptoms resembling a common cold, which last for the first 2-3 days. Infants may experience poor feeding, rapid breathing (tachypnoea), nasal flaring, and grunting. Chest wall recessions, bilateral fine crepitations, and wheezing may also be observed. In severe cases, apnoea, a temporary cessation of breathing, can occur.

      Bronchiolitis is a self-limiting illness, meaning it resolves on its own over time. Therefore, treatment mainly focuses on supportive care. However, infants with oxygen saturations below 92% may require oxygen administration. If an infant is unable to maintain oral intake or hydration, nasogastric feeding should be considered. Nasal suction is recommended to clear secretions in infants experiencing respiratory distress due to nasal blockage.

      It is important to note that there is no evidence supporting the use of antivirals (such as ribavirin), antibiotics, beta 2 agonists, anticholinergics, or corticosteroids in the management of bronchiolitis. These interventions are not recommended for this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      31
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 32 year old is brought into the emergency department after being rescued...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old is brought into the emergency department after being rescued from the water by a lifeguard at a nearby beach following signs of distress and submersion. In terms of drowning, what is the primary determinant of prognosis?

      Your Answer: Submersion time

      Explanation:

      The duration of submersion is the most crucial factor in predicting the outcome of drowning incidents. If the submersion time is less than 10 minutes, it is considered a positive indicator for prognosis, while if it exceeds 25 minutes, it is considered a negative indicator. There are other factors that are associated with higher rates of illness and death, such as a low Glasgow Coma Score, absence of pupillary response, pH imbalance (acidosis), and low blood pressure (hypotension). However, it is important to note that these prognostic factors have not been consistently validated in studies and cannot reliably predict the outcome of drowning incidents.

      Further Reading:

      Drowning is the process of experiencing respiratory impairment from submersion or immersion in liquid. It can be classified as cold-water or warm-water drowning. Risk factors for drowning include young age and male sex. Drowning impairs lung function and gas exchange, leading to hypoxemia and acidosis. It also causes cardiovascular instability, which contributes to metabolic acidosis and cell death.

      When someone is submerged or immersed, they will voluntarily hold their breath to prevent aspiration of water. However, continued breath holding causes progressive hypoxia and hypercapnia, leading to acidosis. Eventually, the respiratory center sends signals to the respiratory muscles, forcing the individual to take an involuntary breath and allowing water to be aspirated into the lungs. Water entering the lungs stimulates a reflex laryngospasm that prevents further penetration of water. Aspirated water can cause significant hypoxia and damage to the alveoli, leading to acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).

      Complications of drowning include cardiac ischemia and infarction, infection with waterborne pathogens, hypothermia, neurological damage, rhabdomyolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).

      In children, the diving reflex helps reduce hypoxic injury during submersion. It causes apnea, bradycardia, and peripheral vasoconstriction, reducing cardiac output and myocardial oxygen demand while maintaining perfusion of the brain and vital organs.

      Associated injuries with drowning include head and cervical spine injuries in patients rescued from shallow water. Investigations for drowning include arterial blood gases, chest X-ray, ECG and cardiac monitoring, core temperature measurement, and blood and sputum cultures if secondary infection is suspected.

      Management of drowning involves extricating the patient from water in a horizontal position with spinal precautions if possible. Cardiovascular considerations should be taken into account when removing patients from water to prevent hypotension and circulatory collapse. Airway management, supplemental oxygen, and ventilation strategies are important in maintaining oxygenation and preventing further lung injury. Correcting hypotension, electrolyte disturbances, and hypothermia is also necessary. Attempting to drain water from the lungs is ineffective.

      Patients without associated physical injury who are asymptomatic and have no evidence of respiratory compromise after six hours can be safely discharged home. Ventilation strategies aim to maintain oxygenation while minimizing ventilator-associated lung injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      13.8
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  • Question 12 - You evaluate a 48-year-old teacher with a persistent dry cough that has been...

    Correct

    • You evaluate a 48-year-old teacher with a persistent dry cough that has been ongoing for several months. The patient also reports mild shortness of breath while walking around the school. They used to smoke but quit ten years ago. The patient has a normal body temperature and all other vital signs are within normal limits. During the examination, finger clubbing is noted on their hands. Chest examination reveals bilateral fine inspiratory crackles at the bases of both lungs, but no wheezing is detected. Spirometry results came back normal.

      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical features of this individual, it is highly likely that they have pulmonary fibrosis. The key to determining the correct diagnosis is to differentiate between extrinsic allergic alveolitis (EAA) and idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF), also known as cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis (CFA).

      In this case, the gentleman does not have any occupational risk factors for EAA and exhibits digital clubbing. While clubbing is not commonly seen in EAA, it is a frequent occurrence in IPF. Therefore, based on these factors, IPF is the more probable diagnosis.

      Spirometry results in IPF can either be normal or show a restrictive pattern, whereas an obstructive pattern would be expected in COPD. The history and clinical features presented do not align with the other diagnoses mentioned in this question.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      18.6
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  • Question 13 - You assess a 65-year-old woman with a history of progressively increasing shortness of...

    Correct

    • You assess a 65-year-old woman with a history of progressively increasing shortness of breath. As part of the patient's treatment plan, your supervisor requests that you carry out a pleural aspiration.
      Based on the BTS guidelines, what is one of the indications for performing a pleural aspiration?

      Your Answer: Unilateral exudative pleural effusion

      Explanation:

      A pleural effusion refers to an excess accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity, which is the space between the parietal and visceral pleura. Normally, this cavity contains a small amount of lubricating fluid, around 5-10 ml, that allows the pleurae to slide smoothly over each other. This fluid also creates surface tension, bringing the two membranes together and ensuring that as the thorax expands, the lungs expand and fill with air. However, when there is too much fluid in the pleural cavity, it hinders breathing by limiting lung expansion.

      Percutaneous pleural aspiration is commonly performed for two main reasons. Firstly, it is used to investigate pleural effusion, particularly when it is unilateral and exudative in nature. Secondly, it provides symptomatic relief for breathlessness caused by pleural effusion. However, the British Thoracic Society (BTS) guidelines recommend that pleural aspiration should not be carried out if there is suspicion of unilateral or bilateral transudative effusion, unless there are atypical features or failure of response to therapy. In urgent cases where respiratory distress is caused by pleural effusion, pleural aspiration can also be used to quickly decompress the pleural space.

      During the procedure, the patient is typically seated upright with a pillow supporting their arms and head. It is important for the patient not to lean too far forward, as this increases the risk of injury to the liver and spleen. The conventional site for aspiration is in the mid-scapular line, about 10 cm lateral to the spine, and one or two spaces below the upper level of the fluid. To avoid damaging the intercostal nerves and vessels that run just below the rib, the needle should be inserted just above the upper border of the chosen rib.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      27.6
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  • Question 14 - A 45-year-old woman presents with increasing difficulty breathing, coughing up blood, and swelling...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents with increasing difficulty breathing, coughing up blood, and swelling in her arms and hands. Upon examination, you observe that her face is also swollen and she has multiple enlarged veins and telangiectasia on her chest. She has a history of long-term smoking.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Thoracic outlet syndrome

      Correct Answer: Superior vena cava syndrome

      Explanation:

      This patient has come in with worsening shortness of breath and coughing up blood. They have a long history of smoking, and the likely diagnosis is superior vena cava obstruction caused by a primary bronchial tumor.

      The typical symptoms of superior vena cava obstruction include breathlessness, chest pain, swelling in the neck, face, and arms, dilated veins and telangiectasia on the arms, neck, and chest wall, facial flushing, stridor due to laryngeal edema, and cyanosis.

      Given the severity of the symptoms, this man needs to be urgently referred and admitted to the hospital. To provide immediate relief, his head should be elevated and he should be given supplemental oxygen. Corticosteroids and diuretics may also be administered. Further investigation through CT scanning is necessary, and radiotherapy may be recommended as a treatment option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 32-year-old woman comes in with a history of worsening wheezing for the...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman comes in with a history of worsening wheezing for the past three days. She has a history of seasonal allergies during the spring months, which have been more severe than usual in recent weeks. Upon listening to her chest, you can hear scattered polyphonic wheezes. Her peak flow at the time of presentation is 280 L/min, and her personal best peak flow is 550 L/min.
      What classification would you assign to this asthma exacerbation?

      Your Answer: Acute severe asthma

      Explanation:

      This man is experiencing an acute episode of asthma. His initial peak flow measurement is 46% of his best, indicating a severe exacerbation. According to the BTS guidelines, acute asthma can be classified as moderate, acute severe, life-threatening, or near-fatal.

      Moderate asthma is characterized by increasing symptoms and a peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) between 50-75% of the individual’s best or predicted value. There are no signs of acute severe asthma in this case.

      Acute severe asthma is identified by any one of the following criteria: a PEFR between 33-50% of the best or predicted value, a respiratory rate exceeding 25 breaths per minute, a heart rate over 110 beats per minute, or the inability to complete sentences in one breath.

      Life-threatening asthma is indicated by any one of the following: a PEFR below 33% of the best or predicted value, oxygen saturation (SpO2) below 92%, arterial oxygen pressure (PaO2) below 8 kPa, normal arterial carbon dioxide pressure (PaCO2) between 4.6-6.0 kPa, a silent chest, cyanosis, poor respiratory effort, arrhythmia, exhaustion, altered conscious level, or hypotension.

      Near-fatal asthma is characterized by elevated PaCO2 levels and/or the need for mechanical ventilation with increased inflation pressures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      19.2
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  • Question 16 - A 42-year-old chronic smoker comes in with a chronic productive cough, difficulty breathing,...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old chronic smoker comes in with a chronic productive cough, difficulty breathing, and wheezing. Blood tests reveal an elevated packed cell volume (PCV). A chest X-ray shows more than 6 ribs visible above the diaphragm in the midclavicular line. An arterial blood gas indicates slightly low pO2 levels.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Wegener’s granulomatosis

      Correct Answer: COPD

      Explanation:

      Based on the provided information, it is highly probable that this patient is suffering from chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). This conclusion is supported by several factors. Firstly, the patient has a history of chronic productive cough and wheezing, which are common symptoms of COPD. Additionally, the patient has a long-term smoking history, which is a major risk factor for developing this condition.

      Furthermore, the patient’s raised packed cell volume (PCV) is likely a result of chronic hypoxemia, a common complication of COPD. This indicates that the patient’s body is trying to compensate for the low oxygen levels in their blood.

      Moreover, the chest X-ray reveals evidence of hyperinflation, which is a characteristic finding in patients with COPD. This suggests that the patient’s lungs are overinflated and not functioning optimally.

      Lastly, the arterial blood gas analysis shows hypoxemia, indicating that the patient has low levels of oxygen in their blood. This is another significant finding that aligns with a diagnosis of COPD.

      In summary, based on the patient’s history, smoking habits, raised PCV, chest X-ray findings, and arterial blood gas results, it is highly likely that they have COPD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      41.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - You assess a patient who complained of chest discomfort and difficulty breathing. Upon...

    Correct

    • You assess a patient who complained of chest discomfort and difficulty breathing. Upon examination, it is determined that the patient has developed a spontaneous pneumothorax on the right side, and an unsuccessful pleural aspiration was attempted. The pneumothorax remains significant in size, and the patient continues to experience breathlessness. A Seldinger chest tube is inserted, but shortly after, it begins to drain bright red blood.

      Which complication is the most probable cause of this occurrence?

      Your Answer: Intercostal artery laceration

      Explanation:

      Intercostal artery laceration during the insertion of a chest drain is a potentially life-threatening complication. Although rare, it occurs more frequently than other complications mentioned. To minimize the risk of damage to underlying structures and unsightly scarring, the British Thoracic Society (BTS) recommends inserting chest drains within the safe triangle. This triangle is defined by the base of the axilla, the lateral border of the latissimus dorsi, the lateral border of the pectoralis major, and the 5th intercostal space.

      Possible complications associated with the insertion of small-bore chest drains include puncture of the intercostal artery, organ perforation due to over-introduction of the dilator into the chest cavity, hospital-acquired pleural infection from non-aseptic techniques, inadequate stay suture leading to the chest tube falling out, and tube blockage, which may be more common with smaller bore Argyle drains.

      When using an intercostal approach, it is important to place the chest drain closer to the superior border of the rib below in the intercostal space. This positioning helps avoid injury to the intercostal neurovascular bundle located under the costal groove of the rib above.

      For more information, refer to the British Thoracic Society pleural disease guidelines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 72 year old female who is a known heavy smoker visits the...

    Correct

    • A 72 year old female who is a known heavy smoker visits the emergency department. She has experienced a worsening productive cough for the past week and feels breathless. An arterial blood gas is obtained and the results are as follows:

      Parameter Result
      pH 7.31
      pO2 9.1 kPa
      pCO2 6.5 kPa
      Bicarbonate 32 mmol/l
      Base Excess +4

      Which of the following options most accurately characterizes this blood gas result?

      Your Answer: Respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation

      Explanation:

      The typical pH range for blood is 7.35-7.45. The blood gases indicate a condition called respiratory acidosis, which is partially corrected by metabolic processes. This condition may also be referred to as type 2 respiratory failure, characterized by low oxygen levels and high carbon dioxide levels in the blood.

      Further Reading:

      Arterial blood gases (ABG) are an important diagnostic tool used to assess a patient’s acid-base status and respiratory function. When obtaining an ABG sample, it is crucial to prioritize safety measures to minimize the risk of infection and harm to the patient. This includes performing hand hygiene before and after the procedure, wearing gloves and protective equipment, disinfecting the puncture site with alcohol, using safety needles when available, and properly disposing of equipment in sharps bins and contaminated waste bins.

      To reduce the risk of harm to the patient, it is important to test for collateral circulation using the modified Allen test for radial artery puncture. Additionally, it is essential to inquire about any occlusive vascular conditions or anticoagulation therapy that may affect the procedure. The puncture site should be checked for signs of infection, injury, or previous surgery. After the test, pressure should be applied to the puncture site or the patient should be advised to apply pressure for at least 5 minutes to prevent bleeding.

      Interpreting ABG results requires a systematic approach. The core set of results obtained from a blood gas analyser includes the partial pressures of oxygen and carbon dioxide, pH, bicarbonate concentration, and base excess. These values are used to assess the patient’s acid-base status.

      The pH value indicates whether the patient is in acidosis, alkalosis, or within the normal range. A pH less than 7.35 indicates acidosis, while a pH greater than 7.45 indicates alkalosis.

      The respiratory system is assessed by looking at the partial pressure of carbon dioxide (pCO2). An elevated pCO2 contributes to acidosis, while a low pCO2 contributes to alkalosis.

      The metabolic aspect is assessed by looking at the bicarbonate (HCO3-) level and the base excess. A high bicarbonate concentration and base excess indicate alkalosis, while a low bicarbonate concentration and base excess indicate acidosis.

      Analyzing the pCO2 and base excess values can help determine the primary disturbance and whether compensation is occurring. For example, a respiratory acidosis (elevated pCO2) may be accompanied by metabolic alkalosis (elevated base excess) as a compensatory response.

      The anion gap is another important parameter that can help determine the cause of acidosis. It is calculated by subtracting the sum of chloride and bicarbonate from the sum of sodium and potassium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - You are evaluating a 68-year-old patient with a known history of COPD who...

    Correct

    • You are evaluating a 68-year-old patient with a known history of COPD who has come to the emergency department due to worsening shortness of breath and a cough producing green sputum. An arterial blood gas is obtained and the results are as follows:

      Parameter Result
      pH 7.31
      pO2 9.1 kPa
      pCO2 6.5 kPa
      Bicarbonate 32 mmol/l
      Base Excess +4

      The patient is given immediate doses of prednisone and amoxicillin, and nebulized salbutamol is administered. After one hour of treatment, a repeat blood gas is obtained with the patient receiving 40% inspired oxygen via venturi. The results are as follows:

      Parameter Result
      pH 7.27
      pO2 9.0 kPa
      pCO2 7.2 kPa
      Bicarbonate 33 mmol/l
      Base Excess +5

      Which of the following interventions would be the most appropriate to implement next?

      Your Answer: Non-invasive ventilation

      Explanation:

      According to the brit-thoracic guidelines, if a patient with COPD continues to experience respiratory acidosis even after receiving standard medical therapy for one hour, it is recommended to consider using non-invasive ventilation (NIV). This is especially important if the patient’s hypoxia and hypercapnia are worsening despite the initial treatment.

      Further Reading:

      Arterial blood gases (ABG) are an important diagnostic tool used to assess a patient’s acid-base status and respiratory function. When obtaining an ABG sample, it is crucial to prioritize safety measures to minimize the risk of infection and harm to the patient. This includes performing hand hygiene before and after the procedure, wearing gloves and protective equipment, disinfecting the puncture site with alcohol, using safety needles when available, and properly disposing of equipment in sharps bins and contaminated waste bins.

      To reduce the risk of harm to the patient, it is important to test for collateral circulation using the modified Allen test for radial artery puncture. Additionally, it is essential to inquire about any occlusive vascular conditions or anticoagulation therapy that may affect the procedure. The puncture site should be checked for signs of infection, injury, or previous surgery. After the test, pressure should be applied to the puncture site or the patient should be advised to apply pressure for at least 5 minutes to prevent bleeding.

      Interpreting ABG results requires a systematic approach. The core set of results obtained from a blood gas analyser includes the partial pressures of oxygen and carbon dioxide, pH, bicarbonate concentration, and base excess. These values are used to assess the patient’s acid-base status.

      The pH value indicates whether the patient is in acidosis, alkalosis, or within the normal range. A pH less than 7.35 indicates acidosis, while a pH greater than 7.45 indicates alkalosis.

      The respiratory system is assessed by looking at the partial pressure of carbon dioxide (pCO2). An elevated pCO2 contributes to acidosis, while a low pCO2 contributes to alkalosis.

      The metabolic aspect is assessed by looking at the bicarbonate (HCO3-) level and the base excess. A high bicarbonate concentration and base excess indicate alkalosis, while a low bicarbonate concentration and base excess indicate acidosis.

      Analyzing the pCO2 and base excess values can help determine the primary disturbance and whether compensation is occurring. For example, a respiratory acidosis (elevated pCO2) may be accompanied by metabolic alkalosis (elevated base excess) as a compensatory response.

      The anion gap is another important parameter that can help determine the cause of acidosis. It is calculated by subtracting the sum of chloride and bicarbonate from the sum of sodium and potassium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 3-year-old girl presents with stridor and a barking cough. Her mother reports...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old girl presents with stridor and a barking cough. Her mother reports that she has had a slight cold for a few days and her voice had been hoarse. Her vital signs are as follows: temperature 38.1°C, heart rate 135, respiratory rate 30, oxygen saturation 97% on room air. Her chest examination is unremarkable, but you observe the presence of stridor at rest.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Croup

      Explanation:

      Croup, also known as laryngo-tracheo-bronchitis, is typically caused by the parainfluenza virus. Other viruses such as rhinovirus, influenza, and respiratory syncytial viruses can also be responsible. Before the onset of stridor, there is often a mild cold-like illness that lasts for 1-2 days. Symptoms usually reach their peak within 1-3 days, with the cough often being more troublesome at night. A milder cough may persist for another 7-10 days.

      A distinctive feature of croup is a barking cough, but it does not indicate the severity of the condition. To reduce airway swelling, dexamethasone and prednisolone are commonly prescribed. If a child is experiencing vomiting, nebulized budesonide can be used as an alternative. However, it is important to note that steroids do not shorten the duration of the illness. In severe cases, nebulized adrenaline can be administered.

      Hospitalization for croup is uncommon and typically reserved for children who are experiencing worsening respiratory distress or showing signs of drowsiness or agitation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      11.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory (11/20) 55%
Passmed