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  • Question 1 - Whilst assessing a patient in the Emergency Department, you observe a diastolic murmur.
    Which...

    Incorrect

    • Whilst assessing a patient in the Emergency Department, you observe a diastolic murmur.
      Which of the following is NOT a potential cause of a diastolic murmur?

      Your Answer: Mitral stenosis

      Correct Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation

      Explanation:

      Tricuspid regurgitation leads to a pansystolic murmur that is most pronounced in the tricuspid area during inhalation. The primary cause of tricuspid regurgitation is right ventricular failure.

      Other clinical signs that may be present in tricuspid regurgitation include a raised jugular venous pressure (JVP) and giant C-V waves. Additionally, features of increased right atrial pressure, such as ascites and dependent edema, may be observed. Pulsatile hepatomegaly and a thrill at the left sternal edge are also possible indicators. Reverse splitting of the second heart sound, due to early closure of the pulmonary valve, and a third heart sound, caused by rapid right ventricular filling, may be heard as well.

      Aortic regurgitation, on the other hand, produces an early diastolic murmur that is most audible at the lower left sternal edge when the patient is sitting forward and exhaling.

      In the case of mitral stenosis, a rumbling mid-diastolic murmur is best heard at the apex while the patient is in the left lateral position and exhaling, using the bell of the stethoscope.

      Atrial myxomas are benign tumors that can develop in the heart. Most commonly found on the left side, they may obstruct the mitral valve, resulting in a mid-diastolic murmur similar to that of mitral stenosis.

      Lastly, left anterior descending artery stenosis can cause an early diastolic murmur, also known as Dock’s murmur. This murmur is similar to that of aortic regurgitation and is best heard at the left 2nd or 3rd intercostal space.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 2 - A 70 year old male visits the emergency department with a complaint of...

    Incorrect

    • A 70 year old male visits the emergency department with a complaint of increasing shortness of breath. You observe that the patient had moderate aortic regurgitation on an echocardiogram conducted 12 months ago.

      What is a characteristic symptom of aortic regurgitation (AR)?

      Your Answer: Ejection systolic murmur

      Correct Answer: Water hammer pulse

      Explanation:

      A collapsing pulse, also known as a water hammer pulse, is a common clinical feature associated with aortic regurgitation (AR). In AR, the pulse rises rapidly and forcefully before quickly collapsing. This pulsation pattern may also be referred to as Watson’s water hammer pulse or Corrigan’s pulse. Heart sounds in AR are typically quiet, and the second heart sound (S2) may even be absent if the valve fails to fully close. A characteristic early to mid diastolic murmur is often present. Other typical features of AR include a wide pulse pressure, a mid-diastolic Austin-Flint murmur in severe cases, a soft S1 and S2 (with S2 potentially being absent), a hyperdynamic apical pulse, and signs of heart failure such as lung creases, raised jugular venous pressure (JVP), and tachypnea.

      Further Reading:

      Valvular heart disease refers to conditions that affect the valves of the heart. In the case of aortic valve disease, there are two main conditions: aortic regurgitation and aortic stenosis.

      Aortic regurgitation is characterized by an early diastolic murmur, a collapsing pulse (also known as a water hammer pulse), and a wide pulse pressure. In severe cases, there may be a mid-diastolic Austin-Flint murmur due to partial closure of the anterior mitral valve cusps caused by the regurgitation streams. The first and second heart sounds (S1 and S2) may be soft, and S2 may even be absent. Additionally, there may be a hyperdynamic apical pulse. Causes of aortic regurgitation include rheumatic fever, infective endocarditis, connective tissue diseases like rheumatoid arthritis and systemic lupus erythematosus, and a bicuspid aortic valve. Aortic root diseases such as aortic dissection, spondyloarthropathies like ankylosing spondylitis, hypertension, syphilis, and genetic conditions like Marfan’s syndrome and Ehler-Danlos syndrome can also lead to aortic regurgitation.

      Aortic stenosis, on the other hand, is characterized by a narrow pulse pressure, a slow rising pulse, and a delayed ESM (ejection systolic murmur). The second heart sound (S2) may be soft or absent, and there may be an S4 (atrial gallop) that occurs just before S1. A thrill may also be felt. The duration of the murmur is an important factor in determining the severity of aortic stenosis. Causes of aortic stenosis include degenerative calcification (most common in older patients), a bicuspid aortic valve (most common in younger patients), William’s syndrome (supravalvular aortic stenosis), post-rheumatic disease, and subvalvular conditions like hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM).

      Management of aortic valve disease depends on the severity of symptoms. Asymptomatic patients are generally observed, while symptomatic patients may require valve replacement. Surgery may also be considered for asymptomatic patients with a valvular gradient greater than 40 mmHg and features such as left ventricular systolic dysfunction. Balloon valvuloplasty is limited to patients with critical aortic stenosis who are not fit for valve replacement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 3 - A 42-year-old Caucasian man presents with gradually worsening shortness of breath on exertion...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old Caucasian man presents with gradually worsening shortness of breath on exertion that has been ongoing for the past four weeks. The breathlessness is worse when lying flat, and he has noticed his ankles have become swollen. This morning he had a small amount of blood in his sputum. He is currently 32 weeks pregnant, and his pregnancy is progressing normally. On examination, you note that he has a tapping apex beat and a low-volume pulse. On auscultation, you note a loud first heart sound and a mid-diastolic murmur at the apex.
      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mitral regurgitation

      Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis

      Explanation:

      The clinical symptoms of mitral stenosis include shortness of breath, which tends to worsen during exercise and when lying flat. Tiredness, palpitations, ankle swelling, cough, and haemoptysis are also common symptoms. Chest discomfort is rarely reported.

      The clinical signs of mitral stenosis can include a malar flush, an irregular pulse if atrial fibrillation is present, a tapping apex beat that can be felt as the first heart sound, and a left parasternal heave if there is pulmonary hypertension. The first heart sound is often loud, and a mid-diastolic murmur can be heard best at the apex in the left lateral position during expiration using the bell of the stethoscope.

      Mitral stenosis is typically caused by rheumatic heart disease, with about two-thirds of patients being female. During pregnancy, the increase in plasma volume can lead to elevated left atrial and pulmonary venous pressures. This can exacerbate any symptoms related to mitral stenosis and potentially result in pulmonary edema, as seen in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 4 - A 72-year-old woman presents with severe central chest pain. An ECG is performed,...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman presents with severe central chest pain. An ECG is performed, which shows ST elevation in the anterolateral leads. She was given aspirin and morphine upon arrival. Her observations are as follows: SaO2 99% on air, HR 89 bpm, and BP 149/87 mmHg. Upon discussion with the cardiology team, a decision is made to perform an urgent percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI).
      Which of the following medications could you also consider administering to this patient?

      Your Answer: Fondaparinux

      Correct Answer: Bivalirudin

      Explanation:

      This patient is displaying symptoms consistent with a diagnosis of an acute myocardial infarction. It is important to provide pain relief as soon as possible. One option for pain relief is GTN, which can be taken sublingually or buccally. However, if there is suspicion of an acute myocardial infarction, it is recommended to offer intravenous opioids such as morphine.

      Aspirin should be offered to all patients with unstable angina or NSTEMI as soon as possible and should be continued indefinitely, unless there are contraindications such as a bleeding risk or aspirin hypersensitivity. A loading dose of 300 mg should be administered promptly after presentation.

      For patients without a high bleeding risk who do not have coronary angiography planned within 24 hours of admission, fondaparinux should be administered. However, for patients who are likely to undergo coronary angiography within 24 hours, unfractionated heparin can be offered as an alternative to fondaparinux. In cases of significant renal impairment (creatinine above 265 micromoles per litre), unfractionated heparin with dose adjustment guided by clotting function monitoring can also be considered as an alternative to fondaparinux.

      Routine administration of oxygen is no longer recommended, but it is important to monitor oxygen saturation using pulse oximetry as soon as possible, preferably before hospital admission. Supplemental oxygen should only be offered to individuals with an oxygen saturation (SpO2) of less than 94% who are not at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure, with a target SpO2 range of 94-98%. For individuals with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease who are at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure, a target SpO2 range of 88-92% should be aimed for until blood gas analysis is available.

      Bivalirudin, a specific and reversible direct thrombin inhibitor (DTI), is recommended by NICE as a possible treatment for adults with STEMI who are undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention.

      For more information, please refer to the NICE guidelines on the assessment and diagnosis of chest pain of recent onset.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Your hospital’s neurology department is currently evaluating the utility of a triple marker...

    Incorrect

    • Your hospital’s neurology department is currently evaluating the utility of a triple marker test for use in diagnosing patients with suspected stroke. The test will use brain natriuretic peptide (BNP), neuron-specific enolase (NSE), and S100B protein.
      How long after a stroke do levels of glial fibrillary acidic protein (GFAP) start to increase?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4-8 hours

      Explanation:

      The timing of the initial rise, peak, and return to normality of various cardiac enzymes can serve as a helpful guide. Creatine kinase, the main cardiac isoenzyme, typically experiences an initial rise within 4-8 hours, reaches its peak at 18 hours, and returns to normal within 2-3 days. Myoglobin, which lacks specificity due to its association with skeletal muscle damage, shows an initial rise within 1-4 hours, peaks at 6-7 hours, and returns to normal within 24 hours. Troponin I, known for its sensitivity and specificity, exhibits an initial rise within 3-12 hours, reaches its peak at 24 hours, and returns to normal within 3-10 days. HFABP, or heart fatty acid binding protein, experiences an initial rise within 1.5 hours, peaks at 5-10 hours, and returns to normal within 24 hours. Lastly, LDH, predominantly found in cardiac muscle, shows an initial rise at 10 hours, peaks at 24-48 hours, and returns to normal within 14 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 6 - Your hospital’s pediatrics department is currently evaluating the utility of a triple marker...

    Incorrect

    • Your hospital’s pediatrics department is currently evaluating the utility of a triple marker test for use in risk stratification of patients with a suspected heart condition. The test will use troponin I, myoglobin, and heart-type fatty acid-binding protein (HFABP).
      How long after a heart event do troponin I levels reach their highest point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 24 hours

      Explanation:

      The timing of the initial rise, peak, and return to normality of various cardiac enzymes can serve as a helpful guide. Creatine kinase, the main cardiac isoenzyme, typically experiences an initial rise within 4-8 hours, reaches its peak at 18 hours, and returns to normal within 2-3 days. Myoglobin, which lacks specificity due to its association with skeletal muscle damage, shows an initial rise within 1-4 hours, peaks at 6-7 hours, and returns to normal within 24 hours. Troponin I, known for its sensitivity and specificity, exhibits an initial rise within 3-12 hours, reaches its peak at 24 hours, and returns to normal within 3-10 days. HFABP, or heart fatty acid binding protein, experiences an initial rise within 1.5 hours, peaks at 5-10 hours, and returns to normal within 24 hours. Lastly, LDH, predominantly found in cardiac muscle, shows an initial rise at 10 hours, peaks at 24-48 hours, and returns to normal within 14 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 7 - A 55-year-old male with a past medical history of high blood pressure arrives...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male with a past medical history of high blood pressure arrives at the emergency department complaining of sudden chest and interscapular pain that feels like tearing. You suspect aortic dissection. Which of the following signs and symptoms aligns with the diagnosis of aortic dissection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blood pressure differential of more than 10 mmHg between left and right arms

      Explanation:

      A significant proportion of the population experiences a difference of 10 mmHg or more in blood pressure between their upper limbs. Pericarditis can be identified by the presence of saddle-shaped ST elevation and pain in the trapezius ridge. Aortic dissection is characterized by a diastolic murmur with a decrescendo pattern, which indicates aortic incompetence.

      Further Reading:

      Aortic dissection is a life-threatening condition in which blood flows through a tear in the innermost layer of the aorta, creating a false lumen. Prompt treatment is necessary as the mortality rate increases by 1-2% per hour. There are different classifications of aortic dissection, with the majority of cases being proximal. Risk factors for aortic dissection include hypertension, atherosclerosis, connective tissue disorders, family history, and certain medical procedures.

      The presentation of aortic dissection typically includes sudden onset sharp chest pain, often described as tearing or ripping. Back pain and abdominal pain are also common, and the pain may radiate to the neck and arms. The clinical picture can vary depending on which aortic branches are affected, and complications such as organ ischemia, limb ischemia, stroke, myocardial infarction, and cardiac tamponade may occur. Common signs and symptoms include a blood pressure differential between limbs, pulse deficit, and a diastolic murmur.

      Various investigations can be done to diagnose aortic dissection, including ECG, CXR, and CT with arterial contrast enhancement (CTA). CT is the investigation of choice due to its accuracy in diagnosis and classification. Other imaging techniques such as transoesophageal echocardiography (TOE), magnetic resonance imaging/angiography (MRI/MRA), and digital subtraction angiography (DSA) are less commonly used.

      Management of aortic dissection involves pain relief, resuscitation measures, blood pressure control, and referral to a vascular or cardiothoracic team. Opioid analgesia should be given for pain relief, and resuscitation measures such as high flow oxygen and large bore IV access should be performed. Blood pressure control is crucial, and medications such as labetalol may be used to reduce systolic blood pressure. Hypotension carries a poor prognosis and may require careful fluid resuscitation. Treatment options depend on the type of dissection, with type A dissections typically requiring urgent surgery and type B dissections managed by thoracic endovascular aortic repair (TEVAR) and blood pressure control optimization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old Caucasian woman comes in with complaints of headaches, blurry vision, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old Caucasian woman comes in with complaints of headaches, blurry vision, and occasional chest pain over the past few weeks. During her fundoscopic examination, retinal hemorrhages and bilateral papilledema are observed. Her initial vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 89, blood pressure of 228/134, oxygen saturation of 98% on room air, blood glucose level of 8.2, and a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15/15.

      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Malignant hypertension

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis in this particular case is malignant (accelerated) hypertension. The patient’s blood pressure is greater than 220/110, and they also have retinal haemorrhages and papilloedema. During the examination, it is important to look for other features such as the presence of a 3rd heart sound, ankle oedema, bilateral basal crepitations, and any focal neurological deficit.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 9 - A 72 year old male attends the emergency department complaining of feeling lightheaded,...

    Incorrect

    • A 72 year old male attends the emergency department complaining of feeling lightheaded, experiencing shortness of breath, and having irregular heartbeats. He states that these symptoms started six hours ago. Upon listening to his chest, clear lung fields are detected but an irregularly irregular pulse is observed. The patient has type 2 diabetes, which is currently controlled through diet. The only medications he takes are:
      - Lisinopril 2.5 mg once daily
      - Simvastatin 20 mg once daily
      There is no history of heart disease, vascular disease, or stroke. The recorded observations are as follows:
      - Blood pressure: 148/92 mmHg
      - Pulse rate: 86 bpm
      - Respiration rate: 15 bpm
      - Oxygen saturation: 97% on room air
      An ECG is performed, confirming atrial fibrillation. As part of the management, you need to calculate the patient's CHA2DS2-VASc score.

      What is this patient's score?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4

      Explanation:

      The patient is currently taking 20 mg of Atorvastatin once daily. They do not have a history of heart disease, vascular disease, or stroke. Their blood pressure is 148/92 mmHg, pulse rate is 86 bpm, and respiration rate is 1.

      Further Reading:

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is the most common sustained cardiac arrhythmia, affecting around 5% of patients over the age of 70-75 years and 10% of patients aged 80-85 years. While AF can cause palpitations and inefficient cardiac function, the most important aspect of managing patients with AF is reducing the increased risk of stroke.

      AF can be classified as first detected episode, paroxysmal, persistent, or permanent. First detected episode refers to the initial occurrence of AF, regardless of symptoms or duration. Paroxysmal AF occurs when a patient has 2 or more self-terminating episodes lasting less than 7 days. Persistent AF refers to episodes lasting more than 7 days that do not self-terminate. Permanent AF is continuous atrial fibrillation that cannot be cardioverted or if attempts to do so are deemed inappropriate. The treatment goals for permanent AF are rate control and anticoagulation if appropriate.

      Symptoms of AF include palpitations, dyspnea, and chest pain. The most common sign is an irregularly irregular pulse. An electrocardiogram (ECG) is essential for diagnosing AF, as other conditions can also cause an irregular pulse.

      Managing patients with AF involves two key parts: rate/rhythm control and reducing stroke risk. Rate control involves slowing down the irregular pulse to avoid negative effects on cardiac function. This is typically achieved using beta-blockers or rate-limiting calcium channel blockers. If one drug is not effective, combination therapy may be used. Rhythm control aims to restore and maintain normal sinus rhythm through pharmacological or electrical cardioversion. However, the majority of patients are managed with a rate control strategy.

      Reducing stroke risk in patients with AF is crucial. Risk stratifying tools, such as the CHA2DS2-VASc score, are used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy. Anticoagulation is recommended for patients with a score of 2 or more. Clinicians can choose between warfarin and novel oral anticoagulants (NOACs) for anticoagulation.

      Before starting anticoagulation, the patient’s bleeding risk should be assessed using tools like the HAS-BLED score or the ORBIT tool. These tools evaluate factors such as hypertension, abnormal renal or liver function, history of bleeding, age, and use of drugs that predispose to bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 10 - A 52-year-old woman comes in with a history of two episodes of atrial...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman comes in with a history of two episodes of atrial fibrillation (AF). The most recent episode lasted for six days before resolving on its own. How would you classify the type of AF she has experienced?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paroxysmal

      Explanation:

      In order to gain a comprehensive understanding of AF management, it is crucial to familiarize oneself with the terminology used to describe its various subtypes. These terms help categorize different episodes of AF based on their characteristics and outcomes.

      Acute AF refers to any episode that occurs within the previous 48 hours. It can manifest with or without symptoms and may or may not recur. On the other hand, paroxysmal AF describes episodes that spontaneously end within 7 days, typically within 48 hours. While these episodes are often recurrent, they can progress into a sustained form of AF.

      Recurrent AF is defined as experiencing two or more episodes of AF. If the episodes self-terminate, they are classified as paroxysmal AF. However, if the episodes do not self-terminate, they are categorized as persistent AF. Persistent AF lasts longer than 7 days or has occurred after a previous cardioversion. To terminate persistent AF, electrical or pharmacological intervention is required. In some cases, persistent AF can progress into permanent AF.

      Permanent AF, also known as Accepted AF, refers to episodes that cannot be successfully terminated, have relapsed after termination, or where cardioversion is not pursued. This subtype signifies a more chronic and ongoing form of AF.

      By understanding and utilizing these terms, healthcare professionals can effectively communicate and manage the different subtypes of AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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