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  • Question 1 - An academic clinician is investigating whether the use of clot retrieval after thrombolysis...

    Correct

    • An academic clinician is investigating whether the use of clot retrieval after thrombolysis provides significant improvements in patient outcomes compared to using thrombolysis alone in elderly patients with recent ischaemic stroke. She is testing the null hypothesis that there is no significant difference in patient outcomes between the two treatment methods.

      Your Answer: The use of clot retrieval in addition to thrombolysis provides no additional benefit

      Explanation:

      The null hypothesis for this study is that the addition of clot retrieval to thrombolysis does not result in a significant improvement in patient outcomes compared to thrombolysis alone.

      Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      52.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - By what means do viruses enter human cells? ...

    Incorrect

    • By what means do viruses enter human cells?

      Your Answer: Inject genomic material through cell membrane

      Correct Answer: Specific surface protein-protein interaction

      Explanation:

      How Viruses Enter Cells

      Viruses have specific proteins on their surface that bind to cell surface proteins, allowing them to enter the cell and release their genomic material. Sometimes, the viral genomic material is injected through a protein channel, while the capsid remains outside the cell. In other cases, the entire virus enters the cell. Viruses only cause membrane lysis when they have multiplied inside cells and kill them to release viral particles.

      The viral envelope is formed when virus particles bud off from cells, taking some membrane with them. While it can play a role in permitting viral entry, a protein-protein interaction must still occur for the capsid and genome to enter. Viruses are too large to pass through cell membrane pores.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      26.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - As a neurology doctor, you have been requested to assess a 36-year-old woman...

    Correct

    • As a neurology doctor, you have been requested to assess a 36-year-old woman who was in a car accident and suffered a significant head injury.

      Upon arrival, she is unconscious, and there are some minor twitching movements in her right arm and leg. When she wakes up, these movements become more severe, with her right arm and leg repeatedly flinging out with different amplitudes.

      Based on the likely diagnosis, where is the lesion most likely located?

      Your Answer: Left basal ganglia

      Explanation:

      The patient is exhibiting signs of hemiballismus, which is characterized by involuntary and sudden jerking movements on one side of the body. These movements typically occur on the side opposite to the lesion and may decrease in intensity during periods of relaxation or sleep. The most common location for the lesion causing hemiballismus is the basal ganglia, specifically on the contralateral side. A lesion in the left motor cortex would result in decreased function on the right side of the body, and psychosomatic factors are not the cause of this movement disorder. A lesion in the right basal ganglia would cause movement disorders on the left side of the body.

      Understanding Hemiballism

      Hemiballism is a condition that arises from damage to the subthalamic nucleus. It is characterized by sudden, involuntary, and jerking movements that occur on the side opposite to the lesion. The movements primarily affect the proximal limb muscles, while the distal muscles may display more choreiform-like movements. Interestingly, the symptoms may decrease while the patient is asleep.

      The main treatment for hemiballism involves the use of antidopaminergic agents such as Haloperidol. These medications help to reduce the severity of the symptoms and improve the patient’s quality of life. It is important to note that early diagnosis and treatment are crucial in managing this condition. With proper care and management, individuals with hemiballism can lead fulfilling lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      71.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A young woman presents with symptoms indicative of infective endocarditis. She has no...

    Incorrect

    • A young woman presents with symptoms indicative of infective endocarditis. She has no history of injecting drug use, but her dentist notes that she has poor oral hygiene. What organism is most likely responsible for this infection?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Correct Answer: Streptococci viridans

      Explanation:

      Infective endocarditis is most frequently caused by Streptococci viridans, which is commonly found in the oral cavity. This type of infection is often linked to patients with inadequate dental hygiene or those who have undergone dental procedures.

      Aetiology of Infective Endocarditis

      Infective endocarditis is a condition that affects patients with previously normal valves, rheumatic valve disease, prosthetic valves, congenital heart defects, intravenous drug users, and those who have recently undergone piercings. The strongest risk factor for developing infective endocarditis is a previous episode of the condition. The mitral valve is the most commonly affected valve.

      The most common cause of infective endocarditis is Staphylococcus aureus, particularly in acute presentations and intravenous drug users. Historically, Streptococcus viridans was the most common cause, but this is no longer the case except in developing countries. Coagulase-negative Staphylococci such as Staphylococcus epidermidis are commonly found in indwelling lines and are the most common cause of endocarditis in patients following prosthetic valve surgery. Streptococcus bovis is associated with colorectal cancer, with the subtype Streptococcus gallolyticus being most linked to the condition.

      Culture negative causes of infective endocarditis include prior antibiotic therapy, Coxiella burnetii, Bartonella, Brucella, and HACEK organisms (Haemophilus, Actinobacillus, Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, Kingella). It is important to note that systemic lupus erythematosus and malignancy, specifically marantic endocarditis, can also cause non-infective endocarditis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      23.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old woman presents with sudden chest pain and difficulty breathing. She recently...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with sudden chest pain and difficulty breathing. She recently returned from a trip to Italy with her family. She has no significant medical history but takes oral contraceptives. On examination, her pulse is 100 bpm, temperature is 37°C, oxygen saturation is 95%, respiratory rate is 28/min, and blood pressure is 116/76 mmHg. Chest examination is unremarkable and chest x-ray is normal. What is the most appropriate diagnostic test to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: CT pulmonary angiogram (CTPA)

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Pulmonary Embolism in a Woman with Chest Pain and Dyspnoea

      This woman is experiencing chest pain and difficulty breathing, with a rapid heart rate and breathing rate. However, there are no visible signs on chest examination and her chest x-ray appears normal. Despite having no fever, her oxygen levels are lower than expected for a healthy person. To rule out a pulmonary embolism, doctors must consider risk factors such as recent air travel and use of oral contraceptives.

      The gold standard for diagnosing a pulmonary embolism is a CT pulmonary angiogram, as it can detect even large saddle embolus near the pulmonary arteries. While VQ scanning was previously used, it can miss these larger emboli. Additionally, doctors may perform Doppler ultrasounds of the venous system to check for deep vein thrombosis.

      This presentation is not indicative of atypical pneumonia, such as Legionella, as the patient’s temperature would be expected to be high and chest signs would be present. Overall, a thorough evaluation is necessary to accurately diagnose and treat a pulmonary embolism in a patient with chest pain and dyspnoea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      46.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency department with vomiting blood. The medical...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency department with vomiting blood. The medical team suspects bleeding oesophageal varices and prescribes terlipressin. The patient has a history of alcohol abuse and examination reveals ascites.

      Why was terlipressin prescribed in this case?

      Your Answer: Vasoconstriction of splanchnic vessels

      Explanation:

      Terlipressin works by constricting the splanchnic vessels, which increases systemic vascular resistance and promotes renal fluid reabsorption. This leads to an increase in arterial pressure and helps to treat hypovolaemic hypotension. Terlipressin also has a sympathetic stimulating effect and is an analogue of vasopressin.

      Variceal haemorrhage is a serious condition that requires prompt and effective management. The initial treatment involves resuscitation of the patient, correction of clotting abnormalities, and administration of vasoactive agents such as terlipressin or octreotide. Prophylactic IV antibiotics are also recommended to reduce mortality in patients with liver cirrhosis. Endoscopic variceal band ligation is the preferred method for controlling bleeding, and the use of a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube or Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt (TIPSS) may be necessary if bleeding cannot be controlled. However, TIPSS can lead to exacerbation of hepatic encephalopathy, which is a common complication.

      To prevent variceal haemorrhage, prophylactic measures such as propranolol and endoscopic variceal band ligation (EVL) are recommended. Propranolol has been shown to reduce rebleeding and mortality compared to placebo. EVL is superior to endoscopic sclerotherapy and should be performed at two-weekly intervals until all varices have been eradicated. Proton pump inhibitor cover is given to prevent EVL-induced ulceration. NICE guidelines recommend offering endoscopic variceal band ligation for the primary prevention of bleeding for people with cirrhosis who have medium to large oesophageal varices.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      66.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 42-year-old woman is undergoing left kidney donation surgery for her sister. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman is undergoing left kidney donation surgery for her sister. During the procedure, which structure will be located most anteriorly at the hilum of the left kidney?

      Your Answer: Left renal artery

      Correct Answer: Left renal vein

      Explanation:

      The anterior position is occupied by the renal veins, while the artery and ureter are located posteriorly.

      Anatomy of the Renal Arteries

      The renal arteries are blood vessels that supply the kidneys with oxygenated blood. They are direct branches off the aorta and enter the kidney at the hilum. The right renal artery is longer than the left renal artery. The renal vein, artery, and pelvis also enter the kidney at the hilum.

      The right renal artery is related to the inferior vena cava, right renal vein, head of the pancreas, and descending part of the duodenum. On the other hand, the left renal artery is related to the left renal vein and tail of the pancreas.

      In some cases, there may be accessory arteries, mainly on the left side. These arteries usually pierce the upper or lower part of the kidney instead of entering at the hilum.

      Before reaching the hilum, each renal artery divides into four or five segmental branches that supply each pyramid and cortex. These segmental branches then divide within the sinus into lobar arteries. Each vessel also gives off small inferior suprarenal branches to the suprarenal gland, ureter, and surrounding tissue and muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 26-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after being rescued at...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after being rescued at sea following a sailing accident. He is currently unresponsive with a Glasgow Coma Score of 9 (E2 V3 M4).

      His vital signs include a heart rate of 110 beats per minute, blood pressure of 110/76 mmHg, oxygen saturation of 93%, and temperature of 34.8 ÂșC. An ECG is unremarkable and venous blood indicates type 2 respiratory failure. The patient's oxygen dissociation curve shows a leftward shift.

      What is the cause of the leftward shift in this 26-year-old patient's oxygen dissociation curve?

      Your Answer: Hypercapnia

      Correct Answer: Hypothermia

      Explanation:

      The only answer that causes a leftward shift in the oxygen dissociation curve is hypothermia. When tissues undergo aerobic respiration, they generate heat, which changes the shape of the haemoglobin molecule and reduces its affinity for oxygen. This results in the release of oxygen at respiring tissues. In contrast, lower temperatures in the lungs cause a leftward shift in the oxygen dissociation curve, which increases the binding of oxygen to haemoglobin.

      Hypercapnia is not the correct answer because it causes a rightward shift in the oxygen dissociation curve. Hypercapnia lowers blood pH, which changes the shape of haemoglobin and reduces its affinity for oxygen.

      Hypoxaemia is not the correct answer because the partial pressure of oxygen does not affect the oxygen dissociation curve. The partial pressure of oxygen does not change the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen.

      Increased concentration of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG) is not the correct answer because higher concentrations of 2,3-DPG reduce haemoglobin’s affinity for oxygen, causing a right shift in the oxygen dissociation curve.

      Understanding the Oxygen Dissociation Curve

      The oxygen dissociation curve is a graphical representation of the relationship between the percentage of saturated haemoglobin and the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood. It is not influenced by the concentration of haemoglobin. The curve can shift to the left or right, indicating changes in oxygen delivery to tissues. When the curve shifts to the left, there is increased saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, resulting in decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. Conversely, when the curve shifts to the right, there is reduced saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, leading to enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues.

      The L rule is a helpful mnemonic to remember the factors that cause a shift to the left, resulting in lower oxygen delivery. These factors include low levels of hydrogen ions (alkali), low partial pressure of carbon dioxide, low levels of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, and low temperature. On the other hand, the mnemonic ‘CADET, face Right!’ can be used to remember the factors that cause a shift to the right, leading to raised oxygen delivery. These factors include carbon dioxide, acid, 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, exercise, and temperature.

      Understanding the oxygen dissociation curve is crucial in assessing the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and the delivery of oxygen to tissues. By knowing the factors that can shift the curve to the left or right, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions in managing patients with respiratory and cardiovascular diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      41.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - The following results were obtained on a 57-year-old male who complains of fatigue:
    Free...

    Incorrect

    • The following results were obtained on a 57-year-old male who complains of fatigue:
      Free T4 9.8 pmol/L (9.0-25.0)
      TSH 50.02 mU/L (0.27-4.20)
      What physical signs would you anticipate during the examination?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Slow relaxation of tendon jerks

      Explanation:

      Symptoms and Signs of Hypothyroidism

      Hypothyroidism is a condition that is characterized by an underactive thyroid gland, which leads to a decrease in the production of thyroid hormones. This condition is associated with several symptoms and signs, including a relative bradycardia, slow relaxation of tendon jerks, pale complexion, thinning of the hair, and weight gain. In severe cases of hypothyroidism, hypothermia may also be present.

      A relative bradycardia refers to a slower than normal heart rate, which is a common symptom of hypothyroidism. Additionally, slow relaxation of tendon jerks is another sign of this condition. This refers to a delay in the relaxation of muscles after a reflex is elicited. Other physical signs of hypothyroidism include a pale complexion and thinning of the hair, which can be attributed to a decrease in metabolic activity.

      Weight gain is also a common symptom of hypothyroidism, as the decrease in thyroid hormone production can lead to a slower metabolism and decreased energy expenditure. In severe cases of hypothyroidism, hypothermia may also be present, which refers to a body temperature that is lower than normal.

      It is important to note that while a thyroid bruit is typical of Graves’ thyrotoxicosis, it is not a common sign of hypothyroidism. Overall, the symptoms and signs of hypothyroidism can vary in severity and may require medical intervention to manage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      0
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  • Question 10 - A 14-year-old boy with juvenile idiopathic arthritis is visiting the eye clinic for...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy with juvenile idiopathic arthritis is visiting the eye clinic for a screening.

      What is the purpose of his visit and what complication is he being screened for?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic anterior uveitis

      Explanation:

      Complications of Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis

      Patients with Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA) are regularly screened for chronic anterior uveitis, which can lead to scarring and blindness if left untreated. However, this condition may be asymptomatic in some cases, making annual screening using a slit-lamp essential.

      One of the long-term complications of JIA is the development of flexion contractures of joints due to persistent joint inflammation. This occurs because pain is partly related to increased intra-articular pressure, which is at its lowest when joints are held at 30-50 degrees.

      While corticosteroids may be used to manage joint inflammation, they are used sparingly in children due to the risk of cataract development. Conjunctivitis is not typically associated with JIA, but reactive arthritis. Keratitis, on the other hand, tends to be an infective process caused by bacteria or viruses.

      Lastly, pterygium is an overgrowth of the conjunctiva towards the iris and is often seen in individuals exposed to windy or dusty conditions, such as surfers.

      In summary, JIA can lead to various complications, including chronic anterior uveitis, joint contractures, and cataract development. Regular screening and management are crucial to prevent long-term damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      0
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

General Principles (1/1) 100%
Microbiology (0/1) 0%
Neurological System (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular System (0/1) 0%
Respiratory System (1/2) 50%
Gastrointestinal System (1/1) 100%
Renal System (0/1) 0%
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