-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is NOT a typical effect of cortisol:
Your Answer: Increased lipolysis
Correct Answer: Decreased protein catabolism
Explanation:Cortisol is a steroid hormone produced in the zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex. It is released in response to stress and low blood glucose concentrations.Cortisol acts to: raise plasma glucose by stimulating glycolysis and gluconeogenesis in the liver and inhibiting peripheral glucose uptake into storage tissues, increase protein breakdown in skeletal muscle, skin and bone to release amino acids, increase lipolysis from adipose tissues to release fatty acidsand at higher levels and mimic the actions of aldosterone on the kidney to retain Na+ and water and lose K+ ionssuppress the action of immune cells
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine
- Physiology
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
During anaerobic respiration, what is the net generation of ATP molecules:
Your Answer: 2
Explanation:In anaerobic respiration, two ATP molecules are produced for every glucose molecule, as opposed to the 38 molecules of ATP produced in aerobic respiration.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Cellular
- Physiology
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 70-year-old woman presents with exacerbation of her chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), increased cough, wheeze and chest tightness. On examination, she is tachypnoeic and oxygen saturation is 86%. You plan to administer supplemental oxygen.Which oxygen delivery system is most appropriate to use initially?
Your Answer: Non-rebreather mask
Correct Answer: Venturi mask
Explanation:In life-threatening emergencies, oxygen should be started immediately otherwise, it should be prescribed like any other drug. The prescription should include a target saturation range.Until blood gases can be measured, initial oxygen should be administered using a controlled concentration of 24% or 28%. The ideal mask is a Venturi mask. The other mask are not ideal for initial use
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
- Respiratory Pharmacology
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
Which of the following could denote a diagnosis of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) in a patient infected with HIV:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CD4 count < 200 cells/uL
Explanation:A diagnosis of AIDS can be made in a patient infected with HIV if the patient has a CD4 count < 200 cells/uL, or an AIDS-defining illness. Antiretroviral treatment should be considered in patients with CD4 counts < 350 cells/uL. Oral candidiasis is not an AIDS defining illness – candidiasis of the bronchi, trachea or lungs or of the oesophagus is an AIDS defining illness. A positive p24 antigen test seen in early HIV infection and does not indicate the development of AIDS.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathogens
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is correct regarding anti-D immunoglobulin?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is administered as part of routine antenatal care for rhesus-negative mothers.
Explanation:In all non-sensitised pregnant women who are RhD-negative, it is recommended that routine antenatal anti-D prophylaxis is offered. Even if there is previous anti-D prophylaxis, use of routine antenatal anti-D prophylaxis should be given for a sensitising event early in the same pregnancy. Postpartum anti-D prophylaxis should also be given even if there has been previous routine antenatal anti-D prophylaxis or antenatal anti-D prophylaxis for a sensitising event in the same pregnancy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunoglobulins And Vaccines
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is NOT a common side effect of diazepam:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bradycardia
Explanation:Adverse effects include:Drowsiness and lightheadednessConfusion and ataxia (especially in the elderly), amnesia, muscle weaknessHeadache, vertigo, tremor, dysarthria, hypotension, decreased libido, erectile dysfunction, gynaecomastia, urinary retentionParadoxical effects such as talkativeness, excitement, irritability, aggression, anti-social behaviour, and suicidal ideationWithdrawal symptoms, for example anxiety, depression, anorexia, impaired concentration, insomnia, abdominal cramps, palpitations, tremor, tinnitus and perceptual disturbancesTolerance and dependence (people who use benzodiazepines longer term can develop tolerance and eventual dependence)
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
During swallowing, which of the following structures primarily closes the tracheal opening:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Epiglottis
Explanation:The vocal cords of the larynx are stronglyapproximated, and the larynx is pulled upwardand anteriorly by the neck muscles. These actions,combined with the presence of ligaments thatprevent upward movement of the epiglottis, causethe epiglottis to swing back over the openingof the larynx. All these effects acting togetherprevent the passage of food into the nose andtrachea. Most essential is the tight approximationof the vocal cords, but the epiglottis helps toprevent food from ever getting as far as the vocalcords. Destruction of the vocal cords or of themuscles that approximate them can causestrangulation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
Which of the following muscles is NOT involved in depression of the mandible:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Masseter
Explanation:Depression of the mandible is generated by the digastric, geniohyoid, mylohyoid and lateral pterygoid muscles on both side, assisted by gravity. The lateral pterygoid muscles are also involved as this movement also involves protraction of the mandible. The masseter muscle is a powerful elevator of the mandible.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head And Neck
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
All of the following statement about the microcirculation are correct except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Over the capillary bed, there is a net absorption of fluid.
Explanation:The hydrostatic pressure along the length of the capillary is usually greater than plasma oncotic pressure. As a result, there is a small net filtration of fluid from the capillary into the interstitial space. The regulation of blood flow into the microcirculation is via the vasoconstriction of small arterioles, which is activated by the sympathetic nervous system through numerous nerve endings in their walls. Unlike proteins, most ions and small molecules diffuse easily across capillary walls and thus the crystalloid osmotic pressure they exert is roughly the same on either side of the capillary wall. Because the plasma colloid osmotic pressure is higher than interstitial colloid osmotic, fluid is drawn intravascularly. A reduction of hydrostatic capillary pressure and transient increase in absorption of fluid is a result of arteriolar constriction.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 75-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis had gained weight, developed resistant hypertension, muscle weakness, and ankle oedema. This patient is most likely suffering from what condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cushing's syndrome
Explanation:Overuse of cortisol medication, as seen in the treatment of patients with chronic asthma or rheumatoid arthritis, can cause Cushing’s syndrome. Weight gain, thin arms and legs, a round face, increased fat around the base of the neck, a fatty hump between the shoulders, easy bruising, wide purple stretch marks primarily on the abdomen, breasts, hips, and under the arms, weak muscles, hirsutism, hypertension, erectile dysfunction, osteoporosis, frontal alopecia, acne, depression, poor wound healing, and polycythaemia are all clinical features of Cushing’s syndrome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine
- Physiology
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is NOT a typical side effect of digoxin:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia
Explanation:Digoxin does not cause hypokalaemia, but hypokalaemia does potentiate digoxin toxicity. The adverse effects of digoxin are frequently due to its narrow therapeutic window and include: Cardiac adverse effects – Sinoatrial and atrioventricular block, Premature ventricular contractions, PR prolongation and ST-segment depressionNausea, vomiting and diarrhoeaBlurred or yellow visionCNS effects – weakness, dizziness, confusion, apathy, malaise, headache, depression, psychosisThrombocytopenia and agranulocytosis (rare)Gynaecomastia in men in prolonged administration
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
Where on the body is the radial artery pulsation best palpated?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: At the wrist just lateral to the flexor carpi radialis tendon
Explanation:The radial artery lies lateral to the large tendon of the flexor carpi radialis muscle and anterior to the pronator quadratus at the distal end of the radius. The flexor carpi radialis muscle is used as a landmark in locating the pulse.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
Which of the following laboratory findings are indicative of von Willebrand disease (VWD):
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prolonged APTT
Explanation:Laboratory results often show that:PFA-100 test results are abnormal.Low levels of factor VIII (if a factor VIII/VWF binding assay is conducted)APTT is Prolonged (or normal)PT is normalVWF values are low.Defective Platelet aggregationThe platelet count is normal.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
Discontinuous capillaries are typically found where in the body:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reticuloendothelial system
Explanation:Discontinuous capillaries, found in the reticuloendothelial system (bone marrow, liver and spleen), have large gaps between endothelial cells and are permeable to red blood cells.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
Regarding non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL), which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There is a much greater predilection to disseminate to extranodal sites than in Hodgkin lymphoma.
Explanation:Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma (NHL) refers to a group of lymphoproliferative malignancies (about 85% of B-cell and 15% of T or NK (natural killer) cell origin) with different behavioural patterns and treatment responses. This group of malignancies encompasses all types of lymphoma without Reed-Sternberg cells being present. The Reed-Sternberg cell is classically seen in Hodgkin’s lymphoma.NHL is five times as common as Hodgkin’s lymphoma. The peak incidence of NHL is in the 50-70 years age group, it affects men and women equally, but affects the Caucasian population more commonly than black and Asian ethnic groups.The following are recognised risk factors for NHL:Chromosomal translocations and molecular rearrangementsEpstein-Barr virus infectionHuman T-cell leukaemia virus type-1 (HTLV-1)Hepatitis CCongenital and acquired immunodeficiency statesAutoimmune disorders, e.g. Sjogren’s syndrome and Hashimoto’s thyroiditisThe most common clinical features at presentation are:Lymphadenopathy (typically asymmetrical and painless)Weight lossFatigueNight sweatsHepatosplenomegalyFor clinical purposes, NHL is divided into three groups: indolent, high-grade, and lymphoblastic.Indolent (low-grade) NHL:The cells are relatively matureDisease follows an indolent course without treatmentOften acceptable to follow a ‘watch and wait’ strategyLocal radiotherapy often effectiveRelatively good prognosis with median survival of 10 yearsHigh-grade NHL:Cells are immatureDisease progresses rapidly without treatmentSignificant number of patients can be cured with intensive combination chemotherapy regimensApproximately 40% cure rateLymphoblastic NHL:Cells are very immature and have a propensity to involve the CNSTreatment and progression are similar to that of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
An elderly female with a diagnosed psychiatric illness was prescribed prochlorperazine for her complaints of dizziness and nausea. Two days later, she returned to the clinic with no improvement in the symptoms. Which one of the following is the mechanism of action of prochlorperazine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dopamine receptor antagonism
Explanation:Prochlorperazine is a phenothiazine drug as it is categorized as a first-generation antipsychotic. It mainly blocks the D2 (dopamine 2) receptors in the brain. Along with dopamine, it also blocks histaminergic, cholinergic, and noradrenergic receptors.It exerts its antiemetic effect via dopamine (D2) receptor antagonist. It is used to treat nausea and vomiting of various causes, including labyrinthine disorders.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- CNS Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
What is the main mechanism of action of flecainide:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blocks Na+ channels
Explanation:Flecainide inhibits the transmembrane influx of extracellular Na+ ions via fast channels on cardiac tissues resulting in a decrease in rate of depolarisation of the action potential, prolonging the PR and QRS intervals. At high concentrations, it exerts inhibitory effects on slow Ca2+ channels, accompanied by moderate negative inotropic effect.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 39-year-old guy comes to the emergency room with a persistent nasal bleed. You suspect the bleeding is coming from Little's area based on your examination. Which of the blood vessels listed below is most likely to be involved:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sphenopalatine and superior labial arteries
Explanation:The Kiesselbach plexus is a vascular network formed by five arteries that supply oxygenated blood to the nasal septum, which refers to the wall separating the right and left sides of the nose. The five arteries that form the Kiesselbach plexus: the sphenopalatine artery, which branches from the maxillary artery originating behind the jawbone; the anterior ethmoidal artery, which branches from the ophthalmic artery behind the eye; the posterior ethmoidal artery, which also branches from the ophthalmic artery; the septal branch of the superior labial artery, which is a branch of the facial artery supplying blood to all of the superficial features of the face; and finally, the greater palatine artery, which is a terminal branch of the maxillary artery.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head And Neck
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 78-year-old man complains of lumps in his neck. Several large, non-tender cervical lymph nodes are discovered during your examination. You arrange for some blood tests, and the results reveal that he has lymphocytosis with a count of 16 x 10 9 /l.In this case, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
Explanation:The most common type of adult leukaemia is chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL). It develops as a result of relatively mature lymphocytes clonally proliferating. The B-cell lineage accounts for approximately 95% of cases. CLL is primarily a disease of adult men, with men over the age of 50 accounting for more than 75% of CLL patients.It is the most indolent form of chronic leukaemia, and it is frequently discovered by chance when blood counts are taken for other reasons, such as ‘well man’ screening tests. The patient may develop lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, anaemia, and infections as the disease progresses.The following are examples of CLL laboratory findings:Clonal B cell lymphocytosis (diagnosed at greater than 5 x 109/l, but can reach 300 x 109/l)In advanced disease, normocytic, normochromic anaemia is present.Patients with autoimmune-related haemolytic anaemias have a positive direct antiglobulin test (DAT).Although bone marrow aspiration is not always required, it can aid in the diagnosis of CLL. If there has been rapid lymph node enlargement, a lymph node biopsy is required to rule out Richter’s syndrome. This is the transition from low-grade lymphoma to high-grade lymphoma, which is characterised by fever, weight loss, and pain.Although there is no cure for CLL, it can be managed with chemotherapy regimens that help patients live longer. Early treatment has no benefit, and the standard treatment for early disease is to watch and wait, with examinations and blood counts every 3 to 12 months. Chemotherapy is usually reserved for patients who have a disease that is active and causing symptoms.The following is the overall prognosis for CLL:1/3 will not require treatment and will live a long time.1/3 will go through an indolent phase before the disease progresses.1/3 of patients will have an aggressive disease that requires immediate treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
You want to give colchicine to a patient who has acute gout. Which of the following is a contraindication to the use of colchicine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blood dyscrasias
Explanation:Colchicine is used to prevent or treat gout attacks (flares). It works by reducing swelling and the development of uric acid crystals, which cause pain in the affected joint(s). Colchicine should be avoided by patients who have blood dyscrasias or bone marrow disorders.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 34-year-old woman was diagnosed with multiple sclerosis two years ago. Her symptoms have been steadily deteriorating, with no intervals of remission in sight.Which of the following aspects of nerve conduction is disrupted by multiple sclerosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Saltatory conduction
Explanation:Local currents propagate action potentials down the axons of neurons. This local current flow following depolarisation results in the depolarisation of the neighbouring axonal membrane, and when this region approaches the threshold, more action potentials are generated and so forth. Due to the refractory period, portions of the membrane that have recently depolarized will not depolarize again, resulting in the action potential only being able to go in one direction.The square root of axonal diameter determines the velocity of the action potential; the axons with the biggest diameter have the quickest conduction velocities. When a neuron is myelinated, the speed of the action potential rises as well.The myelin sheath is an insulating coating that surrounds certain neural axons. By increasing membrane resistance and decreasing membrane capacitance, the myelin sheath improves conduction. This enables faster electrical signal transmission via a neuron, making them more energy-efficient than non-myelinated neuronal axons.Electrical impulses are quickly transmitted from one node to the next, causing depolarization of the membrane above the threshold and triggering another action potential, which is then transmitted to the next node. An action potential is rapidly conducted down a neuron in this manner. Saltatory conduction is the term for this.Multiple sclerosis is an example of a clinical disorder in which the myelin sheath is affected. It is an immune-mediated disorder in which certain nerve cells in the brain and spinal cord become demyelinated. The ability of some areas of the nervous system to properly transmit action potentials is disrupted by demyelination, resulting in a variety of neurological symptoms and indications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Cellular Physiology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 24-year-old athlete drinks a 500 ml hypertonic sports drink before an endurance event he participates in.Which of the following effects will this cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The interstitial fluid becomes more concentrated
Explanation:Osmosis is the passive movement of water across a semipermeable membrane from a region of low solute concentration to a region of higher solute concentration.When hypertonic fluid is ingested:The plasma becomes CONCENTRATED. The cells lose water and shrinkThe intracellular fluid becomes more concentrated.Water and ions move freely from the plasma into the interstitial fluid and the interstitial fluid becomes more concentrated. The increased osmotic potential draws water out of the cells.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Cellular Physiology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A patient is sent in by her GP with suspected ectopic pregnancy. Tubal ectopic pregnancies occur most commonly in which part of the uterine tube:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ampulla
Explanation:Ectopic pregnancy most commonly occurs in the ampulla (70% of cases).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A 72-year-old man has a past medical history of diverticular disease. He now presents in the clinic with crampy abdominal pain. The nurse at the triage suggests prescribing hyoscine butyl bromide to help relieve the abdominal pain. However, you do not agree with this medication, as you can see on his chart that the patient has several other comorbidities. Out of the following, what is NOT a contraindication to using hyoscine butyl bromide?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prostatic hyperplasia
Explanation:Hyoscine butylbromide is an antispasmodic drug that blocks muscarinic receptors and reduces intestinal motility. It is used for gastrointestinal and genitourinary smooth muscle spasms and symptomatic relief of IBS.It has the following contraindications: 1. Closed-angle glaucoma2. Gastrointestinal obstruction3. Intestinal atony4. Paralytic ileus5. Toxic megacolon6. Severe ulcerative colitis7. Significant bladder outflow obstruction8. Urinary retention9. Myasthenia gravisUse cautiously in the following conditions: 1. Acute myocardial infarction (in adults)2. Arrhythmias (may be worsened)3. Autonomic neuropathy4. Hypertension5. Cardiac insufficiency (due to association with tachycardia)6. Congestive cardiac failure (maybe worsened)7. Cardiac surgery (due to association with tachycardia)8. Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease9. Ulcerative colitis10. Prostatic hyperplasia11. Use in children (increased risk of side effects)
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is NOT an effect of cytokine activity:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Opsonisation of bacteria for phagocytosis
Explanation:Cytokines are a family of chemical messengers, secreted by leucocytes, that act over short distances by binding specific receptors on target cell surfaces. They include: interleukins (act between leucocytes), interferons (inhibit replication of viruses within cells and activate macrophages and natural killer cells), growth factors, and tumour necrosis factors (kill tumour cells). Effects include: induction of fever and acute phase response, stimulation of leucocyte differentiation and maturation, leucocyte recruitment and activation and increased antibody production.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Inflammatory Responses
- Pathology
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
Which of the following best characterizes the correct administration of amiodarone for a shockable rhythm in adults on advanced life support:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give 300 mg IV amiodarone after 3 shocks
Explanation:After three shocks, 300 mg IV amiodarone should be administered. After five defibrillation attempts, a further dose of 150 mg IV amiodarone may be considered. If amiodarone is not available, lidocaine may be used as a substitute, but it should not be given if amiodarone has previously been administered.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 40-year-old man has been admitted for alcohol detoxification. You are asked to review the patient's treatment chart and notice that he has been prescribed Pabrinex by one of your colleagues.Out of the following, which vitamin is not found in Pabrinex?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin B12
Explanation:Pabrinex is indicated in patients that require rapid therapy for severe depletion or malabsorption of water-soluble vitamins B and C, particularly in alcoholism detoxification. Pabrinex has the following: 1. Thiamine (vitamin B1) 2. Riboflavin (vitamin B2)3. Nicotinamide (Vitamin B3, niacin and nicotinic acid)4. Pyridoxine (vitamin B6)5. Ascorbic acid (vitamin C)6. GlucoseSuspected or established Wernicke’s encephalopathy is treated by intravenous infusion of Pabrinex/ The dose is 2-3 pairs three times a day for three to five days, followed by one pair once daily for an additional three to five days or for as long as improvement continues.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Fluids & Electrolytes
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A dermatological examination on a patient presenting with a lump shows a small visible skin elevation containing an accumulation of pus.Which one of these best describes the lump you have found on examination?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pustule
Explanation:A pustule is a small visible skin elevation containing an accumulation of pus. A carbuncle is a collection of individual boils clustered together. A bulla is a visible collection of clear fluid measuring greater than 0.5 cm in diameter. A furuncle, or boil, is a pyogenic infection of the hair follicle commonly caused by infection with Staphylococcus aureus. A vesicle is a visible collection of fluid measuring less than 0.5 cm in diameter.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is most likely affected in De Quervain's tenosynovitis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Extensor pollicis brevis
Explanation:De Quervain tenosynovitis is named after the Swiss surgeon, Fritz de Quervain, who first described it in 1895. It is a condition which involves tendon entrapment affecting the first dorsal compartment of the wrist. With this condition thickening of the tendon sheaths around the abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis develops where the tendons pass in through the fibro-osseous tunnel located along the radial styloid at the distal wrist. Pain is exacerbated by thumb movement and radial and ulnar deviation of the wrist.The estimated prevalence of de Quervain tenosynovitis is about 0.5% in men and 1.3% in women with peak prevalence among those in their forties and fifties. It may be seen more commonly in individuals with a history of medial or lateral epicondylitis. Bilateral involvement is often reported in new mothers or child care providers in whom spontaneous resolution typically occurs once lifting of the child is less frequent.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
Regarding bias, which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bias leads to the systematic difference between the results from a study and the true states of affair.
Explanation:Bias is the term used to describe an error at any stage of the study that was not due to chance. Bias leads to the systematic difference between the results from a study and the true states of affair. Bias may be introduced at all stages of the research process, from study design, through to analysis and publication. Bias can create a spurious association or mask a real association.Good research design can reduce the effect of bias (e.g. blinding, randomisation) but they cannot eliminate it completely. Increasing the sample size does not reduce bias.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Medicine
- Study Methodology
-
SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
