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Question 1
Correct
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Which of the following infections is vancomycin most likely prescribed for?
Your Answer: Clostridium difficile colitis
Explanation:125 mg PO q6hr for 10 days is indicated for treatment of Clostridium difficile (C. difficile)-associated diarrhoea
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Herpes simplex encephalitis has a predilection for which of the following sites:
Your Answer: Frontal lobe
Correct Answer: Temporal lobe
Explanation:Herpes simplex virus is the most common cause of infective encephalitis and has a predilection for the temporal lobes. Herpes simplex is transmitted through direct contact. It invades skin locally producing skin vesicles by its cytolytic activity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Microbiology
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Question 3
Correct
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Dysuria and urinary frequency are symptoms of a 29-year-old woman. A urine dipstick is used to detect the presence of blood, protein, leucocytes, and nitrites in the urine. You diagnose a urinary tract infection and give antibiotics to the patient.In the United Kingdom, which of the following antibiotics has the highest percentage of E.coli resistance?
Your Answer: Trimethoprim
Explanation:In the United Kingdom, antibiotic resistance is becoming a significant factor in the treatment of urinary tract infections and pyelonephritis. E. coli (the main causative organism of both urinary tract infections and acute pyelonephritis) resistance to the following antibiotics in laboratory-processed urine specimens is:30.3 percent trimethoprim (varies by area from 27.1 to 33.4 percent )19.8 percent co-amoxiclav (varies by area from 10.8 to 30.7 percent )Ciprofloxacin (Cipro): 10.6% (varies by area from 7.8 to 13.7 percent )Cefalexin has a concentration of 9.9%. (varies by area from 8.1 to 11.4 percent )
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Following the administration of a drug that was started a few months earlier, a patient presents with features of peripheral neuropathy.Which of the following drugs is most likely to cause peripheral neuropathy?
Your Answer: Amiodarone
Correct Answer: Isoniazid
Explanation:Isoniazid, a first-line agent for the treatment of tuberculosis, has the commonest side effect of peripheral neuropathy. It occurs in up to 20% of patients taking the drug at a dose > 6 mg/kg daily. Isoniazid combines with pyridoxine (vitamin B6) to form hydrazone, which is excreted in the urine. This causes a deficiency of biologically active pyridoxine leading to peripheral neuropathy.Peripheral neuropathy of isoniazid is prevented by the co-administration of pyridoxine at a dose of 10 mg for each 100 mg of isoniazid given.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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An elderly female has a bacterial infection and you are asked to prescribe an antibiotic to her. This antibiotic is a nucleic acid synthesis inhibitor.Which of the following antimicrobial drugs will be prescribed to this patient?
Your Answer: Erythromycin
Correct Answer: Metronidazole
Explanation:Metronidazole and the other 5-nitroimidazole agents inhibit nucleic acid synthesis by forming toxic free radical metabolites in the bacterial cell that damage DNA. Vancomycin inhibits cell wall peptidoglycan formation by binding the D-Ala-D-Ala portion of cell wall precursors. Erythromycin inhibits protein synthesis and blocks translocation by binding to the 23S rRNA of the 50S ribosomal subunit.Chloramphenicol blocks peptidyl transferase at 50S ribosomal subunit.Gentamicin, an aminoglycoside antibiotic, acts by binding to the 30S subunit of the bacterial ribosome inhibiting the binding of aminoacyl-tRNA and thus preventing initiation of protein synthesis.An overview of the different mechanisms of action of the various types of antimicrobial agents is shown below:1. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis- Penicillins- Cephalosporins- Vancomycin2. Disruption of cell membrane function- Polymyxins- Nystatin- Amphotericin B3. Inhibition of protein synthesis- Macrolides- Aminoglycosides- Tetracyclines- Chloramphenicol4. Inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis- Quinolones- Trimethoprim- 5-nitroimidazoles- Rifampicin5. Anti-metabolic activity- Sulphonamides- Isoniazid
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which of the following side effects is most likely caused by erythromycin:
Your Answer: Megaloblastic anaemia
Correct Answer: QT - prolongation
Explanation:The side effects of erythromycin include abdominal pain, anaphylaxis, cholestatic hepatitis, confusion, diarrhoea, dyspepsia, fever, flatulence, hallucinations, hearing loss, headache, hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, hypotension, Interstitialnephritis, mild allergic reactions, nausea, nervous system effects,including seizures, pain, pruritus, pseudomembranous colitis, QT prolongation, rash, skin eruptions, tinnitus, urticaria, ventricular arrhythmias, ventricular tachycardia, vertigo, vomiting
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old student presents to the emergency department with a terrible headache, photophobia, and a fever. On her lower limbs, you see a non-blanching purpuric rash. In the department, a lumbar puncture is conducted. What do you think you'll notice on Gram stain:
Your Answer: Gram negative coccobacilli
Correct Answer: Gram negative diplococci
Explanation:Bacterial meningitis and septicaemia are most commonly caused by meningococcal bacteria. The Gram-negative diplococci Neisseria Meningitidis causes meningitis. Gram stain and culture of CSF identify the etiologic organism, N meningitidis. In bacterial meningitis, Gram stain is positive in 70-90% of untreated cases, and culture results are positive in as many as 80% of cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Microbiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Regarding co-amoxiclav, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:
Your Answer: Clavulanic acid is a beta-lactamase inhibitor.
Correct Answer: Clavulanic acid acts to inhibit cross-linking of bacterial peptidoglycan polymers.
Explanation:Co-amoxiclav consists of amoxicillin with the beta-lactamase inhibitor clavulanic acid. Clavulanic acid itself has no significant antibacterial activity but, by inactivating beta-lactamases, it makes the combination active against beta-lactamase-producing bacteria that are resistant to amoxicillin.The most common adverse effects of co-amoxiclav include nausea, vomiting, skin rash and diarrhoea. Pseudomembranous colitis should be considered if a person develops severe diarrhoea during or after treatment with co-amoxiclav. Cholestatic jaundice can occur either during or shortly after the use of co-amoxiclav. An epidemiological study has shown that the risk of acute liver toxicity was about 6 times greater with co-amoxiclav than with amoxicillin. Cholestatic jaundice is more common in patients above the age of 65 years and in men; these reactions have only rarely been reported in children. Jaundice is usually self-limiting and very rarely fatal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Following a phone call from the microbiology consultant, you evaluate a patient who has been diagnosed with urinary sepsis. Following the results of the blood cultures, he recommends that you add gentamicin to the patient's antibiotic treatment.Gentamicin produces its pharmacological effect by binding to which of the following?
Your Answer: The 50S subunit of the bacterial ribosome
Correct Answer: The 30S subunit of the bacterial ribosome
Explanation:Antibiotics with aminoglycosides, such as gentamicin, bind to the 30S subunit of the bacterial ribosome and prevent aminoacyl-tRNA from binding, preventing protein synthesis.They also cause mRNA misreading, resulting in the production of non-functional proteins. This last mechanism is unique to aminoglycosides, and it may explain why they are bactericidal rather than bacteriostatic, as other protein synthesis inhibitors are.Patients with myasthenia gravis should avoid aminoglycosides since they can disrupt neuromuscular transmission. They cross the placenta and are linked to poisoning of the 8th cranial nerve in the foetus, as well as permanent bilateral deafness.It is possible that they will cause deafness, although this is not a contraindication. In individuals with renal impairment, serum aminoglycoside concentrations should be closely monitored, but this is still not considered a contraindication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Correct
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A patient who shows symptoms of infection and is admitted under supervision of the medical team. The organism which caused this, is a Gram-negative bacterium, according to the culture. A penicillin therapy is suggested by the microbiologist.Which of the penicillins listed below is the most effective against Gram-negative bacteria?
Your Answer: Amoxicillin
Explanation:Amoxicillin and Ampicillin are more hydrophilic (broad-spectrum) penicillins than benzylpenicillin and phenoxymethylpenicillin. Because they may penetrate through gaps in the outer phospholipid membrane, they are effective against Gram-negative bacteria. Amoxicillin and Ampicillin are resistant to penicillinase-producing microbes.Community-acquired pneumonia, otitis media, sinusitis, oral infections, and urinary tract infections are among the most prevalent conditions for which they are prescribed. The normal adult oral dose of Amoxicillin is 500 mg three times/day, which can be increased to 1 g three times/day if necessary. Ampicillin is given to adults in doses of 0.5-1 g every 6 hours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Regarding amoxicillin, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:
Your Answer: It is used first line for acute otitis media.
Correct Answer: It is used first line for bacterial tonsillitis.
Explanation:Amoxicillin is a derivative of ampicillin and has a similar antibacterial spectrum. It is better absorbed than ampicillin when given orally, producing higher plasma and tissue concentrations; unlike ampicillin, absorption is not affected by the presence of food in the stomach. The adverse effects of amoxicillin are mainly gastrointestinal and mild and include nausea, vomiting and diarrhoea. Amoxicillin is used first line for low to moderate severity community acquired pneumonia, exacerbations of chronic bronchitis, for acute otitis media, for acute sinusitis, for oral infections/dental abscess, for Listeria meningitis (in combination with another antibiotic), for infective endocarditis (in combination with another antibiotic) and for H. Pylori eradication (in combination with metronidazole/clarithromycin and a PPI). Penicillin V is used first line for bacterial tonsillitis; amoxicillin should be avoided in blind treatment of a sore throat as there is a high risk of a rash if glandular fever is present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
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Question 12
Correct
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A young female was diagnosed with a urinary tract infection and was sent home with medications. However, after 48 hours of discharge, she returned to the hospital because there had been no relief from her symptoms. She is pregnant in her second trimester. The urine sensitivity test report is still unavailable. Fresh blood tests were sent, and her estimated GFR is calculated to be >60 ml/minute. She was prescribed nitrofurantoin 100 mg modified-release orally twice a day for two days.Out of the following, which antibiotic is most appropriate to be prescribed to this patient?
Your Answer: Cefalexin
Explanation:The NICE guidelines for pregnant women with lower UTIs are:1. Prescribe an antibiotic immediately, taking into account the previous urine culture and susceptibility results or avoiding past antibiotics that may have caused resistance2. Obtain a midstream urine sample before starting antibiotics and send for urine culture and susceptibility – Review the choice of antibiotic when the results are available – change the antibiotic according to susceptibility results if the bacteria are resistant, using a narrow-spectrum antibiotic wherever possibleThe first choice of antibiotics for pregnant women aged 12 years and over is:1. Nitrofurantoin100 mg modified-release PO BD for 3 days – if eGFR >45 ml/minuteThe second-choice (no improvement in lower UTI symptoms on first-choice for at least 48 hours, or when first-choice is not suitable) are:1. Amoxicillin 500 mg PO TDS for seven days (ONLY if culture results available and susceptible)2. Cefalexin500 mg BD for seven daysAlternative second-choices – consult local microbiologist, choose antibiotics based on culture and sensitivity results
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 73-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department 48 hours after being discharged from the hospital after a two-week stay for sepsis treatment. She has fever, productive cough with thick green sputum, and shortness of breath. An X-ray shows left lower lobe pneumonia. Which of the bacteria listed below is more likely to be the causative agent:
Your Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae
Correct Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Explanation:Hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP), or nosocomial pneumonia, is a lower respiratory infection that was not incubating at the time of hospital admission and that presents clinically 2 or more days after hospitalization. Pneumonia that presents sooner should be regarded as community acquired pneumonia. VAP refers to nosocomial pneumonia that develops among patients on ventilators. Ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) is defined as pneumonia that presents more than 48 hours after endotracheal intubation.Common bacteria involved in hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP) include the following [10] :Pseudomonas AeruginosaStaphylococcus aureus, including methicillin-susceptible S aureus (MSSA) and methicillin-resistant S aureus (MRSA)Klebsiella pneumoniaeEscherichia coli
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Microbiology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 63 year old lady presents to ED with a persistent cough and red currant jelly sputum. She has a history of chronic alcohol abuse and has an X-ray which demonstrates a cavitating pneumonia. The most likely causative pathogen is:
Your Answer: Klebsiella pneumoniae
Explanation:One of the results of Klebsiella pneumoniae is pneumonia that is usually a very severe infection. It is characterised by thick, bloody sputum (red currant jelly sputum), and is associated with complications like lung abscess, cavitation, necrosis, empyema and pleural effusions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Microbiology
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Question 15
Correct
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All of the following statements are correct regarding penicillin antibiotics except:
Your Answer: Penicillins are of no use in meningitis as they are unable to penetrate into the cerebrospinal fluid.
Explanation:Penicillin penetration into the cerebrospinal fluid is generally poor. However, when the meninges are inflamed, as in meningitis, penetration of penicillin is increased. Benzylpenicillin should be given before transfer to hospital if meningococcal disease (meningitis with non-blanching rash or meningococcal septicaemia) is suspected, once this does not delay transfer. Benzylpenicillin is no longer the drug of first choice for pneumococcal meningitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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All of the following statements regarding metronidazole are correct except:
Your Answer: Dose-dependent gastrointestinal upset is a common adverse effect.
Correct Answer: Metronidazole reduces the anticoagulant effect of warfarin.
Explanation:The anticoagulant effect of warfarin is enhanced by metronidazole. If use of both cannot be avoided, one must consider appropriately reducing the warfarin dosage. With alcohol, metronidazole can cause a disulfiram-like reaction, with symptoms like flushing, headaches, dizziness, tachypnoea and tachycardia, nausea and vomiting. The common side effects of metronidazole include a metallic taste and gastrointestinal irritation, in particular nausea and vomiting. These side effects are more common at higher doses. This drug has high activity against anaerobic bacteria and protozoa, and is well absorbed orally. For severe infections, the intravenous route is normally reserved.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 78-year-old man develops renal impairment and hearing loss after inpatient management for sepsis.Which of these antibiotics is most likely to have been used?
Your Answer: Gentamicin
Explanation:Gentamicin, an aminoglycoside antibiotic, acts by binding to the 30S subunit of the bacterial ribosome inhibiting the binding of aminoacyl-tRNA, and thus prevents initiation of protein synthesis.Two of its most notable side effects are reversible nephrotoxicity(caused by the inhibition of protein synthesis in renal cells, which causes acute tubular necrosis) and hearing loss (caused by damage to the vestibular apparatus of the inner ear). Both side effects are dose-related and occur commonly in the elderly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Aldin is a 24-year-old male patient who arrives at the emergency department diagnosed with psittacosis based on his symptoms and history of being a pigeon enthusiast. Which of the following is the causative bacteria of psittacosis?
Your Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Correct Answer: Chlamydia psittaci
Explanation:Chlamydia psittaci is a microorganism that is commonly found in birds. These bacteria can infect people and cause psittacosis. Psittacosis is an infectious disease that may cause high fever and pneumonia associated with headaches, altered mental state, and hepatosplenomegaly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Microbiology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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You're currently treating an infection in a patient and trying to figure out which antibiotic would be best.Which of the following antimicrobial drugs inhibits the formation of cell walls?
Your Answer: Erythromycin
Correct Answer: Cefuroxime
Explanation:Cefuroxime and other cephalosporin antibiotics are bactericidal ß-lactam antibiotics. They work similarly to penicillins in that they prevent cross-linking between the linear peptidoglycan polymer chains that make up the bacterial cell wall. As a result, they prevent the formation of cell walls.The following is a summary of the various mechanisms of action of various types of antimicrobial agents:1) Inhibition of cell wall synthesisPenicillinsCephalosporinsVancomycin2) Disruption of cell membrane functionPolymyxinsNystatinAmphotericin B3) Inhibition of protein synthesisMacrolidesAminoglycosidesTetracyclinesChloramphenicol4) Inhibition of nucleic acid synthesisQuinolonesTrimethoprim5-nitroimidazolesRifampicin5) Anti-metabolic activitySulphonamidesIsoniazid
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old man who is suffering from a bacterial infection require antibiotic treatment. You need to figure out which antibiotic is most suitable. Listed below are antimicrobial drugs. Which one is a nucleic acid synthesis inhibitor?
Your Answer: Vancomycin
Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:Ciprofloxacin and other quinolone antibiotics work by blocking DNA gyrase, an enzyme that compresses bacterial DNA into supercoils, as well as a type II topoisomerase, which is required for bacterial DNA separation. As a result, they prevent nucleic acid synthesis.The following is a summary of the many modes of action of various types of antimicrobial agents:Action Mechanisms- Examples:Cell wall production is inhibitedVancomycinVancomycinCephalosporinsThe function of the cell membrane is disrupted NystatinPolymyxinsAmphotericin B Inhibition of protein synthesisChloramphenicolMacrolidesAminoglycosidesTetracyclinesNucleic acid synthesis inhibitionQuinolonesTrimethoprimRifampicin5-nitroimidazolesSulphonamidesAnti-metabolic activityIsoniazid
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which of the following is NOT a notifiable disease:
Your Answer: Food poisoning
Correct Answer: HIV
Explanation:HIV mainly infects CD4+ T helper cells. Viral replication results in progressive T-cell depletion and impaired cell-mediated immunity with subsequent secondary opportunistic infections and increased risk of malignancy. B-cell function is also reduced as a result of lack of T-cell stimulation.HIV is not a notifiable disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
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Question 22
Correct
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Regarding aciclovir, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:
Your Answer: Aciclovir eradicates herpes simplex virus from the body.
Explanation:Aciclovir is active against herpesviruses but does not eradicate latent virus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 6-year-old child with a few itchy honey crusted sores on her left cheek is brought in by her mother. Following a thorough examination of the child, you diagnose impetigo and recommend a course of topical fusidic acid.Fusidic acid's mode of action is which of the following?
Your Answer: Inhibition of protein synthesis
Explanation:By binding EF-G-GDP, fusidic acid prevents both peptide translocation and ribosome disassembly, which slows protein synthesis. Because it has a novel structure and mechanism of action, it is unlikely to cause cross-resistance with existing antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
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Question 24
Correct
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In a ward round, you come across a patient's treatment chart prescribed an antibiotic to fight his infection. This antibiotic is an inhibitor of cell wall synthesis. Which of the following antimicrobial drugs is prescribed to this patient?
Your Answer: Benzylpenicillin
Explanation:Penicillins and cephalosporins are the major antibiotics that inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis. They inactivate transpeptidases that help cross-link peptidoglycans in cell walls. Isoniazid decreases the synthesis of mycolic acids in mycobacterium.Clarithromycin binds to the 50S subunit of ribosomes and inhibits protein synthesis. Metronidazole and the other 5-nitroimidazole agents inhibit nucleic acid synthesis by forming toxic free radical metabolites in the bacterial cell that damage DNA. Tetracycline bind to 30S and prevent attachment of aminoacyl-tRNA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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During her pregnancy, a 28-year-old lady was given an antibiotic. The neonate was prematurely born with cyanosis and ashen grey coloured skin as a result of this. Other symptoms were hypotonia, low blood pressure, and poor feeding.From the following antibiotics, which one is most likely to cause this side effect?
Your Answer: Trimethoprim
Correct Answer: Chloramphenicol
Explanation:Grey baby syndrome is a rare but causes significant adverse effect caused by the build-up of chloramphenicol in neonates (particularly preterm babies).The following are the main characteristics of ‘grey baby syndrome’:Skin that is ashy grey in colour.Feeding problemsVomitingCyanosisHypotensionHypothermiaHypotoniaCollapse of the cardiovascular systemDistension of the abdomentrouble breathing
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Regarding ciprofloxacin, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:
Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin is eliminated mainly by the kidneys.
Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin decreases plasma concentrations of theophylline.
Explanation:Ciprofloxacin increases plasma concentrations of theophylline. There is an increased risk of convulsions when quinolones are given with NSAIDs or theophylline. There is an increased risk of tendon damage when quinolones are given with corticosteroids. Quinolones are known to increase the QT-interval and should not be taken with concomitantly with other drugs that are known to cause QT-interval prolongation. There is an increased risk of myopathy when erythromycin or clarithromycin are taken with simvastatin or atorvastatin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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In a ward round, you come across a patient's treatment chart prescribed an antibiotic to fight his infection. This antibiotic disrupts cell membrane function.Which of the following antimicrobial drugs is prescribed to this patient?
Your Answer: Isoniazid
Correct Answer: Nystatin
Explanation:Nystatin binds ergosterol (unique to the fungi cell membrane) and forms membrane pores that allow K+ leakage, acidification, and subsequent death of the fungus.Vancomycin inhibits cell wall peptidoglycan formation by binding the D-Ala-D-Ala portion of cell wall precursors. Flucloxacillin inhibits the synthesis of bacterial cell walls. It inhibits cross-linkage between the linear peptidoglycan polymer chains that make up a major component of the cell wall of Gram-positive bacteria. Trimethoprim inhibits bacterial dihydrofolate reductase.Isoniazid decreases the synthesis of mycolic acids in mycobacteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old presented to a GP with a history of headache, neck stiffness and photophobia. On examination, HR is 122, BP is 87/42, RR is 28, SaO 2 is 95%, temperature is 39.4 o C. There is a recent non-blanching rash on legs and arms. The GP administered a dose of antibiotics before transferring child to the Emergency Department.Which of these is the most appropriate antibiotic to administer in this scenario from the choices available?
Your Answer: Give IV benzylpenicillin 900 mg
Correct Answer: Give IM benzylpenicillin 600 mg
Explanation:Meningococcal septicaemia should be suspected in a child with a non-blanching rash especially in the presence of:An ill-looking childNeck stiffnessLesions larger than 2 mm in diameter (purpura)Capillary refill time of>3 secondsThe index child is very sick and shows signs of septic shock. In the prehospital setting, a single dose of benzylpenicillin should be given immediately. The correct dose for this childs age is IM benzylpenicillin 600 mg.The recommended doses of benzylpenicillin according to age are:Infants <1 year of age: IM or IV benzylpenicillin 300 mgChildren 1 to 9 years of age: IM or IV benzylpenicillin 600mgChildren and adults 10 years or older: IM or IV benzylpenicillin 1.2g
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old male who is suffering from a chest infection. You decide to start giving the patient antibiotics, however he is allergic to penicillin. You consult with one of your co-workers about the best choice of antibiotic to give. From the following choices, which is considered an example of bacteriostatic antibiotic?
Your Answer: Vancomycin
Correct Answer: Trimethoprim
Explanation:Antibiotics that are bactericidal kill bacteria, while antibiotics that are bacteriostatic limit their growth or reproduction. The antibiotics grouped into these two classes are summarized in the table below:Bactericidal antibioticsBacteriostatic antibioticsVancomycinMetronidazoleFluoroquinolone, such as ciprofloxacinPenicillins, such as benzylpenicillinCephalosporin, such as ceftriaxoneCo-trimoxazoleTetracyclines, such as doxycyclineMacrolides, such as erythromycinSulphonamides, such as sulfamethoxazoleClindamycinTrimethoprimChloramphenicol
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
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Question 30
Correct
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You review a patient with urinary sepsis and decide to start her on gentamicin.Which statement about gentamicin is true?
Your Answer: Ototoxicity is a dose-related effect
Explanation:Gentamicin, an aminoglycoside antibiotic, acts by binding to the 30S subunit of the bacterial ribosome inhibiting the binding of aminoacyl-tRNA, and thus prevents initiation of protein synthesis.Gentamicin is given by injection because it is NOT absorbed orally. It is excreted in the kidneys by glomerular filtrationGentamicin is not to be used for the treatment of Neisseria meningitidis, Neisseria gonorrhoea, or Legionella pneumophila.There is a risk of patient going into shock from lipid A endotoxin release.Two of its most notable side effects are hearing loss reversible nephrotoxicity and which are both dose-related and levels should be monitored in patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
