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  • Question 1 - Which of the following does not occur in a 15-year-old girl who presents...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following does not occur in a 15-year-old girl who presents following amitriptyline overdose?

      Your Answer: Hypotension

      Correct Answer: Pin point pupils

      Explanation:

      Pupils are dilated in patients with amitriptyline overdose.Tricyclic antidepressants have a narrow therapeutic index, and thus, small doses can be fatal in children. Deaths from tricyclics are more common than other antidepressants. Bimodal incidence with toddlers (accidental) and teenagers (deliberate) most commonly affected.Symptoms: They occur within 6 hours of ingestion.- Nausea, vomiting, and headache- Elevated body temperature- Agitation, sleepiness, confusion, coma- Dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention (anticholinergic)- Dilated pupils- Seizures- Hypotension, tachycardia, conduction disorders, and cardiac arrest- Respiratory depressionManagement:Treatment focuses on supportive care. This includes airway protection, ventilation and oxygenation, intravenous fluids, and cardiac monitoring.Other measures include:- Activated charcoal within 2 hours- Hypotension is treated with IV fluids and adrenaline- Cardiac monitoring- Sodium bicarbonate in acidosis or if there are wide QRS complex (> 100 ms)- Convulsions may require diazepam or lorazepam.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      21.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 17-year-old man presents with fever and extensive pre-auricular swelling on the right...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old man presents with fever and extensive pre-auricular swelling on the right side of his face. However, tenderness is present bilaterally. He also complains of acute pain and otalgia on the right aspect of the face. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mumps

      Explanation:

      Mumps presents with a prodromal phase of general malaise and fever. On examination there is usually painful parotid swelling which has high chances of becoming bilateral. In OM with effusion there are no signs of infection and the only symptom is usually hearing loss. Acute otitis externa produces otalgia as well as ear discharge and itching. Acute OM produces otalgia and specific findings upon otoscopy. In acute mastoiditis the patient experiences ear discharge, otalgia, headache, hearing loss and other general signs of inflammation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      85
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A new-born boy presents with choking on feeding. The midwife had difficulty passing...

    Incorrect

    • A new-born boy presents with choking on feeding. The midwife had difficulty passing an NG tube. A Chest /Abdominal X-ray is performed which shows an NG tube coiled at T3/4 and a gasless abdomen. Which of the following operations is likely to be required?

      Your Answer: Right sided thoracotomy, ligation of trachea-oesophageal fistula and repair of oesophageal atresia

      Correct Answer: Laparotomy and open gastrostomy

      Explanation:

      Oesophageal atresia refers to a congenitally interrupted oesophagus. One or more fistulae may be present between the malformed oesophagus and the trachea. The lack of oesophageal patency prevents swallowing. In addition to preventing normal feeding, this problem may cause infants to aspirate and literally drown in their own saliva, which quickly overflows the upper pouch of the obstructed oesophagus. If a tracheoesophageal fistula (TEF) is present, fluid (either saliva from above or gastric secretions from below) may flow directly into the tracheobronchial tree.The complete absence of gas in the GI tract denotes the absence of a distal tracheoesophageal fistula (TEF); however, distal fistulae simply occluded by mucous plugs have been rarely reported.If no distal TEF is present, a gastrostomy may be created. In such cases, the stomach is small, and laparotomy is required. In all cases of oesophageal atresia in which a gastrostomy is created, care should be taken to place it near the lesser curvature to avoid damaging the greater curvature, which can be used in the formation of an oesophageal substitute. When a baby is ventilated with high pressures, the gastrostomy may offer a route of decreased resistance, causing the ventilation gases to flow through the distal fistula and out the gastrostomy site. This condition may complicate the use of ventilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      62.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 13-year-old girl is complaining of severe acne. She does not have her...

    Correct

    • A 13-year-old girl is complaining of severe acne. She does not have her period yet and her BMI is 37. She has high insulin levels on her lab results. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS)

      Explanation:

      The best answer is Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS), supported by amenorrhea, obesity and acne. High insulin levels are indicative of PCOS and exclude Cushing syndrome (as this is associated with low insulin levels).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genitourinary
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - An 8 year old male is brought by the paramedics to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • An 8 year old male is brought by the paramedics to the emergency department after having an episode of generalised tonic-clonic seizures. The seizures started at 10:55. The paramedics gave him buccal midazolam at 11:04 and waited for the seizures to end, until 11:06. Afterwards, they gave him oxygen via face mask and set up a venous line. His blood glucose at that moment was 5.2 mmol/L and he remained unconscious during the whole trip to the hospital. The paramedics arrived at the emergency department at 11:16 and you observe that he has a patent airway and a good air entry. His RR is 12 and his O2 saturation is 98% on 10L O2. His heart rate is 122 bpm and his CRT is 2 seconds. At 11:19, you observe that the child is not responsive to pain and he starts experiencing subtle but persistent jerking movements of his jaw and left upper limb. You notice that the child's pupils are deviated to the right and are bilaterally constricted. It's 11:20. What should you do next?

      Your Answer: Intubate and prepare IV phenytoin

      Correct Answer: Administer IV lorazepam now

      Explanation:

      NICE guidelines suggest that at the premonitory stage (pre-hospital) the patient should receive Diazepam 10�20 mg given rectally, or midazolam 10 mg given buccally. If seizures continue, the patient should receive lorazepam IV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      110.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 17 year old girl is taken to the hospital with a 10...

    Incorrect

    • A 17 year old girl is taken to the hospital with a 10 hour history of pelvic pain. Her last normal menstrual cycle was 14 days ago and she is otherwise well. Her abdomen was soft with mild suprapubic pain on examination. What is the underlying cause?

      Your Answer: Pelvic inflammatory disease

      Correct Answer: Mittelschmerz

      Explanation:

      Answer: MittelschmerzMittelschmerz is midcycle abdominal pain due to leakage of prostaglandin-containing follicular fluid at the time of ovulation. It is self-limited, and a theoretical concern is treatment of pain with prostaglandin synthetase inhibitors, which could prevent ovulation. The pain of mittelschmerz usually occurs in the lower abdomen and pelvis, either in the middle or to one side. The pain can range from a mild twinge to severe discomfort and usually lasts from minutes to hours. In some cases, a small amount of vaginal bleeding or discharge might occur. Some women have nausea, especially if the pain is very strong.Diagnosis of pelvic pain in women can be challenging because many symptoms and signs are insensitive and nonspecific. As the first priority, urgent life-threatening conditions (e.g., ectopic pregnancy, appendicitis, ruptured ovarian cyst) and fertility-threatening conditions (e.g., pelvic inflammatory disease, ovarian torsion) must be considered. Many women never have pain at ovulation. Some women, however, have mid-cycle pain every month, and can tell by the pain that they are ovulating.As an egg develops in the ovary, it is surrounded by follicular fluid. During ovulation, the egg and the fluid, as well as some blood, are released from the ovary. While the exact cause of mittelschmerz is not known, it is believed to be caused by the normal enlargement of the egg in the ovary just before ovulation. Also, the pain could be caused by the normal bleeding that comes with ovulation.Pelvic inflammatory disease can be ruled out if the patient is not sexually active.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      43.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 17-year-old female presents to the clinic with acne, hirsutism and oligomenorrhoea. Which...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old female presents to the clinic with acne, hirsutism and oligomenorrhoea. Which of the following hormonal changes will hint towards the diagnosis of polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)?

      Your Answer: Raised LH:FSH ratio

      Explanation:

      The European Society of Human Reproduction and Embryology/American Society for Reproductive Medicine Rotterdam consensus (ESHRE/ASRM) developed and enlarged the diagnosis of PCOS, requiring two of three features: anovulation or oligo-ovulation, clinical and/or biochemical hyperandrogenism, and polycystic ovarian morphology (PCOM) seen on ultrasound. Finally the Androgen Excess Society defined PCOS as hyperandrogenism with ovarian dysfunction or polycystic ovaries

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - An 8 year old presents with pain in both his wrists and knees....

    Correct

    • An 8 year old presents with pain in both his wrists and knees. Swelling is also observed. He has a history of a right red eye which did not resolve with antibiotics. What should you exclude first?

      Your Answer: Iritis

      Explanation:

      The child has symptoms and signs suggestive of an inflammatory arthropathy. This is why he should firstly be referred for an eye exam to exclude iritis or treat it if present. – Amblyopia is not directly associated with inflammatory arthropathies unless they had recurrent ocular involvement.- Blepharitis is not an associated finding in a child with inflammatory arthropathy.- Episcleritis may occur, and is often non-sight threatening, and therefore would not be the main cause for concern.- Optic neuropathy in juvenile inflammatory arthritis has been reported, although it is rare.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      63.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 2 year old male was brought to the A&E following an car...

    Correct

    • A 2 year old male was brought to the A&E following an car accident. On examination bowel sounds were heard in the chest. A nasogastric tube was inserted and a chest x-ray showed a curved NG tube. Which of the following is the most probable reason for it?

      Your Answer: Diaphragm rupture

      Explanation:

      Bowel sounds in the chest and curved NG tube are suggestive of a diaphragm rupture, which has caused herniation of bowel into the thoracic cavity through the defect in the diaphragm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      37.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 15-year-old boy presents with a history of abdominal pain. He has no...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy presents with a history of abdominal pain. He has no features of puberty. A lower gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy shows patches of ulceration in the terminal ileum. What is the first-line treatment for this boy?

      Your Answer: Surgery

      Correct Answer: Exclusive enteral nutrition (EEN)

      Explanation:

      Based on the presentation, the patient is probably a case of Crohn’s disease. The first-line treatment of Crohn’s disease is exclusive enteral nutrition.Exclusive enteral nutrition (EEN)This involves drinking a protein-based formula exclusively for 6-8 weeks. It has been shown to have superior mucosal healing when compared with steroids. Furthermore, it is nutritionally advantageous when compared to steroids and does not have the side-effect profile of steroids.Other options:- Intravenous steroids: This is the first-line treatment for ulcerative colitis (UC) or Crohn’s disease if there is rectal disease (which is not the case here). Side-effects include adrenal suppression, behavioural effects, osteopenia and changes in adipose tissue distribution.- Oral steroids: This can be used if EEN is not possible. However, the side-effect profile is less favourable and is not as effective concerning mucosal healing.- Parental nutrition and surgery: They may be occasionally required in severe cases that have failed first-line therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      63.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Congenital hypothyroidism is associated with which of the following clinical features? ...

    Incorrect

    • Congenital hypothyroidism is associated with which of the following clinical features?

      Your Answer: Frontal bossing

      Correct Answer: Cardiomegaly

      Explanation:

      Congenital hypothyroidism results from insufficient levels of thyroid hormone in the body since birth, which is either due to dysgenesis of the thyroid gland or dyshormonogenesis. The important features of this disease include coarse facial features (macroglossia, large fontanelles, depressed nasal bridge, hypertelorism, etc.), failure to thrive, cardiomegaly, hypotonia, umbilical hernia, and low core body temperature among many others. Frontal bossing is the usual feature of rickets and acromegaly. Mitral regurgitation is not usually associated with congenital hypothyroidism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      36.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A first-time mother is concerned about the development of her 2-month-old baby.Which one...

    Incorrect

    • A first-time mother is concerned about the development of her 2-month-old baby.Which one of the following statements is true regarding developmental milestones at the age of 2 months?

      Your Answer: The infant is not expected to calm himself by sucking on his hand

      Correct Answer: The infant is not expected to mirror facial expressions like smiling

      Explanation:

      Developmental milestones at the age of 2 months are as follows:Social and Emotional:- Begins to smile at people – Can briefly calm herself (may bring hands to mouth and suck on hand)- Tries to look at the parents Language/Communication:- Coos, makes gurgling sounds – Turns head toward sounds Cognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving):- Pays attention to faces – Begins to follow things with eyes and recognize people at a distance – Begins to act bored (cries, fussy) if an activity doesn’t changeMovement/Physical Development:- Can hold head up and begins to push up when lying on tummy – Makes smoother movements with arms and legs

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      47.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - An 11-month-old child was given breakfast cereal containing cashew nuts following which he...

    Correct

    • An 11-month-old child was given breakfast cereal containing cashew nuts following which he suddenly developed stridor and is struggling to breathe. The patient was brought to the emergency room tired and unable to cough. On examination, he is found to be conscious, and there is no rash. Auscultation did not reveal any abnormal breath sounds.What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this child?

      Your Answer: Five back blows

      Explanation:

      This clinical presentation is highly suggestive of choking. According to the BLS algorithm, the next step in managing a case of choking in a conscious child with an ineffective cough is five back blows.Other options:- Adrenaline intramuscularly: The history is similar to anaphylaxis, but the absence of a rash or oedema and the acute onset make choking more likely in this situation. Thus, adrenaline will not be of use in this patient.- CPR at a ratio of 15:2: Since the child is conscious, it is not advised. If the child were unconscious, you would commence basic life support.- Five abdominal thrusts: In the given scenario, the child is an infant. Abdominal thrusts are avoided in infants due to the risk of intra-abdominal injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      47.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - An 18 month old baby presents with sudden onset of marked cyanosis and...

    Correct

    • An 18 month old baby presents with sudden onset of marked cyanosis and stridor. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Inhaled foreign body

      Explanation:

      Stridor is a sign of upper airway obstruction. One of the most common causes of stridor in children is laryngomalacia. In the absence of laryngomalacia, stridor presenting with respiratory distress, few chest signs and no preceding coryza symptoms or fever all point to the inhalation of a foreign object. This is common in children, with a peak incidence between 1 and 2 years of age. This child did not present with a high temperature, usually indicative of epiglottitis . The incidence of epiglottis has decreased due to the H. Influenza type b vaccine. Additionally viral croup and bronchiolitis present with upper respiratory tract infection. Asthma rarely presents with stridor but is rather associated with a wheeze.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      29.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following is an ECG feature of hypercalcaemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is an ECG feature of hypercalcaemia?

      Your Answer: Prolonged QT

      Correct Answer: Tall T waves

      Explanation:

      On electrocardiography (ECG), characteristic changes in patients with hypercalcemia include:Tall T wavesReduced QTProlonged and depressed STArrhythmiaOther electrolyte disturbances:Hypokalaemia:Flat T wavesST depressionU waveAtrial and ventricular ectopicsVF and VTHyperkalaemia:Tall T wavesST- changesReduced QT intervalIncreased PR intervalSmaller or absent P wavesWidened QRS, broadening to VFHypocalcaemia:Prolonged QTProlonged STFlat or absent T wavesU waves

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 16 year old male complained of scrotal pain following a game of...

    Correct

    • A 16 year old male complained of scrotal pain following a game of football. He couldn't recall any trauma to groin. Which of the following is the best investigation to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: USG of the scrotum

      Explanation:

      USG of the scrotum is important to exclude any abnormality with testicles, epididymis and scrotum. This presentation can be acute epididymo-orchitis or testicular torsion. USG of the scrotum will help to confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genitourinary
      27.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - According to NICE guidelines, which of the following should be avoided in breastfeeding...

    Correct

    • According to NICE guidelines, which of the following should be avoided in breastfeeding women?

      Your Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines:Do not offer lithium to women who are planning a pregnancy or pregnant, unless antipsychotic medication has not been effective.If antipsychotic medication has not been effective and lithium is offered to a woman who is planning a pregnancy or pregnant, ensure:the woman knows that there is a risk of fetal heart malformations when lithium is taken in the first trimester, but the size of the risk is uncertain. Lithium levels may be high in breast milk with a risk of toxicity for the baby.If a woman taking lithium becomes pregnant, consider stopping the drug gradually over 4 weeks if she is well. Explain to her that:stopping the medication may not remove the risk of fetal heart malformations and there is a risk of relapse, particularly in the postnatal period, if she has bipolar disorder.If a woman taking lithium becomes pregnant and is not well or is at high risk of relapse, consider:switching gradually to an antipsychotic or stopping lithium and restarting it in the second trimester (if the woman is not planning to breastfeed and her symptoms have responded better to lithium than to other drugs in the past) or continuing with lithium if she is at high risk of relapse and an antipsychotic is unlikely to be effective. If a woman continues taking lithium during pregnancy:- check plasma lithium levels every 4 weeks, then weekly from the 36th week. Adjust the dose to keep plasma lithium levels in the woman’s therapeutic range- ensure the woman maintains an adequate fluid balance- ensure the woman gives birth in the hospital- ensure monitoring by the obstetric team when labour starts, including checking plasma lithium levels and fluid balance because of the risk of dehydration and lithium toxicity- stop lithium during labour and check plasma lithium levels 12 hours after her last dose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - An 8 year old boy is admitted to the ward with renal colic....

    Incorrect

    • An 8 year old boy is admitted to the ward with renal colic. Family history is significant for similar renal calculi in his mother. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this recurrent colic in both mother and child?

      Your Answer: Cystinuria

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic hypercalciuria

      Explanation:

      Idiopathic hypercalciuria (IH) is the commonest metabolic abnormality in patients with calcium kidney stones. It is characterized by normocalcemia, absence of diseases that cause increased urine calcium, and calcium excretion that is above 250 mg/day in women and 300 mg/day in men. Subjects with IH have a generalized increase in calcium turnover, which includes increased gut calcium absorption, decreased renal calcium reabsorption, and a tendency to lose calcium from bone. Despite the increase in intestinal calcium absorption, negative calcium balance is commonly seen in balance studies, especially on a low calcium diet. The mediator of decreased renal calcium reabsorption is not clear; it is not associated with either an increase in filtered load of calcium or altered PTH levels. There is an increased incidence of hypercalciuria in first-degree relatives of those with IH, but IH appears to be a complex polygenic trait with a large contribution from diet to expression of increased calcium excretion. Increased tissue vitamin D response may be responsible for the manifestations of IH in at least some patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      26.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 15 year old girl is taken to the A&E after complaining of...

    Correct

    • A 15 year old girl is taken to the A&E after complaining of right iliac fossa pain which started suddenly. She is well other than having some right iliac fossa tenderness but no guarding. She has no fever and the urinary dipstick result is normal. Her last menstrual cycle was 14 days ago which was also normal and the pregnancy test done is negative. What is the most likely underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Mittelschmerz

      Explanation:

      Mittelschmerz is midcycle abdominal pain due to leakage of prostaglandin-containing follicular fluid at the time of ovulation. It is self-limited, and a theoretical concern is treatment of pain with prostaglandin synthetase inhibitors, which could prevent ovulation. The pain of mittelschmerz usually occurs in the lower abdomen and pelvis, either in the middle or to one side. The pain can range from a mild twinge to severe discomfort and usually lasts from minutes to hours. In some cases, a small amount of vaginal bleeding or discharge might occur. Some women have nausea, especially if the pain is very strong.Diagnosis of pelvic pain in women can be challenging because many symptoms and signs are insensitive and nonspecific. As the first priority, urgent life-threatening conditions (e.g., ectopic pregnancy, appendicitis, ruptured ovarian cyst) and fertility-threatening conditions (e.g., pelvic inflammatory disease, ovarian torsion) must be considered. Many women never have pain at ovulation. Some women, however, have mid-cycle pain every month, and can tell by the pain that they are ovulating.As an egg develops in the ovary, it is surrounded by follicular fluid. During ovulation, the egg and the fluid, as well as some blood, are released from the ovary. While the exact cause of mittelschmerz is not known, it is believed to be caused by the normal enlargement of the egg in the ovary just before ovulation. Also, the pain could be caused by the normal bleeding that comes with ovulation.Pelvic inflammatory disease can be ruled out if the patient is not sexually active.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      56.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 4 month old child, presenting with lower UTI has been treated with...

    Incorrect

    • A 4 month old child, presenting with lower UTI has been treated with Trimethoprim but there has been no improvement after 48 hours. What will be the next step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Midstream urine culture

      Correct Answer: Micturating cystourethrogram

      Explanation:

      A micturating cystourethrogram (MCUG) is one type of imaging test also called a voiding cystourethrogram (VCUG). The MCUG can check whether the flow of urine from the child’s bladder is being blocked, or whether it goes up the wrong way. It can help diagnose certain conditions, including vesicoureteral reflux and posterior urethral valves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genitourinary
      36.2
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - All of the following are features of tinea corporis EXCEPT? ...

    Correct

    • All of the following are features of tinea corporis EXCEPT?

      Your Answer: It is less common on glabrous skin

      Explanation:

      Tinea corporis is a type of dermatophytosis, caused by Trichophyton or Microsporum. The disease is highly contagious and rapidly spreads to all the areas of the body, including the glabrous skin. It produces an erythematous itchy skin rash with a central area of clearance surrounded by raised scaly borders. Lesions can appear as concentric circles that overlap, referred to as tinea imbricate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of the following statements is true regarding box plots? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding box plots?

      Your Answer: Variability is represented with feathers

      Correct Answer: Show distributionally outlying values and provide data summaries that are not unduly influenced by those outliers

      Explanation:

      Box plots can be used to display numerical outcomes and give valid summaries (median and interquartile range or IQR) for any distributional form that the outcomes might take. Additionally, they show outlying values and provide data summaries that are not unduly influenced by those outliersOther options:- The box itself represents the interquartile range, with the two whiskers representing the variability outside the upper and lower quartiles.- Variability is represented with whiskers and feathers are used in fan charts.They are not as informative as showing the actual values but can be used to make comparisons of medians and IQRs between subgroups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A child defecates a few minutes after being fed by the mother. This...

    Incorrect

    • A child defecates a few minutes after being fed by the mother. This is most likely due to:

      Your Answer: Enterocolic reflex

      Correct Answer: Gastrocolic reflex

      Explanation:

      The gastrocolic reflex is a physiological reflex that involves increase in colonic motility in response to stretch in the stomach and by-products of digestion in the small intestine. It is shown to be uneven in its distribution throughout the colon, with the sigmoid colon affected more than the right side of the colon in terms of a phasic response. Various neuropeptides have been proposed as mediators of this reflex, such as serotonin, neurotensin, cholecystokinin and gastrin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 17-year-old boy presents with a concern that he had not attained puberty....

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old boy presents with a concern that he had not attained puberty. He lacks secondary sexual characteristics and has altered smell and reduced testicular size. Which of the following hormone profiles with regard to FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone), LH (luteinizing hormone) and testosterone would fit a diagnosis of Kallman syndrome for this patient?

      Your Answer: Reduced testosterone, reduced FSH and reduced LH

      Explanation:

      While the clinical scenario and the anosmic presentation of the child are highly suggestive of Kallmann’s syndrome, reduced testosterone, FSH and LH levels can confirm the diagnosis.Kallman’s syndrome is a recognised cause of delayed puberty secondary to hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. It is usually inherited as an X-linked recessive trait. Kallman’s syndrome is thought to be caused by a failure of GnRH-secreting neurons to migrate to the hypothalamus.Clinical features of Kallmann’s syndrome include:- Delayed puberty- Hypogonadism, cryptorchidism- Anosmia- Low sex hormone levels – Inappropriately low/normal LH and FSH levels- Some patients can present with associated cleft lip/palate and visual/hearing defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      51.6
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 6 year old child presents with secondary nocturnal enuresis. He is otherwise...

    Correct

    • A 6 year old child presents with secondary nocturnal enuresis. He is otherwise healthy and with a clear family history. He drinks sufficient amounts of fluids but is a fussy eater. Clinical examination reveals a mass in the left iliac fossa. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Constipation

      Explanation:

      Constipation is often associated with nocturnal enuresis in children. The palpable mass is the impacted stool. The decreased appetite is common in those with constipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      31.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A thin 16-year-old girl has bilateral parotid swelling with thickened calluses on the...

    Incorrect

    • A thin 16-year-old girl has bilateral parotid swelling with thickened calluses on the dorsum of her hand. What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mumps

      Correct Answer: Bulimia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Bulimia nervosa is a condition in which a person is involved in binge eating and then purging. This patient has swollen parotid glands. The glands swell in order to increase saliva production so that the saliva lost in the vomiting is compensated. This patient also has thickened calluses on the back of her hand. This is known as Russell’s sign. This occurs because of putting fingers in the mouth again and again to induce the gag reflex and vomit. The knuckles get inflamed in the process after coming in contact with the teeth multiple times.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      30.6
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 4-year old boy arrives at the clinic due to sudden onset knee...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year old boy arrives at the clinic due to sudden onset knee pain that has been occurring over the past 2 days. The pain is associated with mild fever that started on the 2nd day. The patient is able to walk but with a limp. Examination reveals painful and restricted motion of the right knee. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis responsible for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Exostosis

      Correct Answer: Septic arthritis

      Explanation:

      Septic (infectious) arthritis is a bacterial infection of the joint space. Contamination occurs either via the bloodstream, iatrogenically, or by local extension (e.g., penetrating trauma). Patients with damaged (e.g., patients with rheumatoid arthritis) or prosthetic joints have an increased risk. Patients usually present with an acutely swollen, painful joint, limited range of motion, and a fever. Suspected infectious arthritis requires prompt arthrocentesis for diagnosis. In addition to the immediate broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy, surgical drainage and debridement may be necessary to prevent cartilage destruction and sepsis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      72.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A term baby was born following a placental abruption. There was no respiratory...

    Correct

    • A term baby was born following a placental abruption. There was no respiratory effort and an undetectable heart rate initially. Baby is now 20 min old and has been intubated with regular ventilation breaths. Heart rate came up to 110/min following two rounds of chest compressions. Baby appears very pale. No drugs have been given. Oxygen saturations are currently 85% measured on the right hand despite FiO2 1.0. A venous cord gas shows pH 6.89, CO2 -8, BE -14, Hb 8. What is the next most appropriate step?

      Your Answer: Umbilical venous catheter (UVC) placement

      Explanation:

      Umbilical vein catheterization utilizes the exposed umbilical stump in a neonate as a site for emergency central venous access up to 14 days old. Umbilical vein catheterization can provide a safe and effective route for intravenous delivery of medications and fluids during resuscitation.The indication for umbilical vein catheterization is when there is a need for IV access in a neonate for resuscitation, transfusions, or short-term venous access when otherwise unobtainable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      97.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Congenital cataracts are NOT a known complication of which of the following conditions?...

    Correct

    • Congenital cataracts are NOT a known complication of which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Klinefelter syndrome

      Explanation:

      Klinefelter syndrome is a chromosomal disease that does not lead to congenital cataracts. A congenital cataract is the clouding of the cornea that is present from birth. Causes can be categorized as genetic, infectious, and metabolic. The most common infectious cause is congenital rubella syndrome. Galactosemia is a metabolic cause of congenital cataracts. Down’s syndrome represents a genetic cause of congenital cataract.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 15-year-old girl presents with a history recurrent abdominal pain and intermittent diarrhoea...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old girl presents with a history recurrent abdominal pain and intermittent diarrhoea over the past one year. During these episodes, she may pass 3-7 very loose stools with mucus. Recently, over the past two months, she has passed stools mixed with blood. Her mother also complaints although she has not lost weight, she has failed to gain the appropriate weight for age according to her growth chart. The child is yet to attain her menarche, and her mother suffers from vitiligo. Clinical examination was unremarkable.Blood investigations revealed:Hb: 12.3 g/dLESR: 38 mm on the first hourTotal and differential counts were within normal limits, and an autoantibody screen was negative.What is the next most relevant investigation you will order?

      Your Answer: Colonoscopy

      Explanation:

      This patient in question is most likely suffering from inflammatory bowel disease, probably ulcerative colitis. The most valuable investigation that can assess the severity and extent of the disease, including the opportunity to obtain biopsies is a colonoscopy.Other options:Barium studies and abdominal x-rays do not give sufficient information. While they can provide indicative evidence, only a colonoscopy-guided biopsy can confirm IBD.Radio-isotope scans will help in identifying a focus such as a Meckel’s diverticulum, and angiography is rarely indicated unless a vascular lesion is suspected of causing the intestinal bleed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      51.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Emergency Medicine (2/3) 67%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Paediatric Surgery (1/3) 33%
Genitourinary (2/3) 67%
Neurology And Neurodisability (0/1) 0%
Endocrinology (2/2) 100%
Ophthalmology (2/2) 100%
Gastroenterology And Hepatology (1/4) 25%
Neonatology (1/2) 50%
Child Development (0/1) 0%
ENT (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (0/1) 0%
Nutrition (1/1) 100%
Renal (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Epidemiology And Statistics (0/1) 0%
Nephro-urology (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (0/1) 0%
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