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Question 1
Correct
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A 72-year-old woman presents with a 2-week history of proximal muscle pain and stiffness along with elevated inflammatory markers on blood tests. After diagnosis with polymyalgia rheumatica, which medication is inadequate response would lead to consideration of an alternative diagnosis?
Your Answer: Prednisolone
Explanation:If patients with polymyalgia rheumatica do not respond well to steroids, it is important to consider other possible diagnoses. While alendronic acid is useful for protecting bones during long-term steroid use, it will not alleviate symptoms. Amitriptyline is better suited for chronic or neuropathic pain rather than inflammatory conditions. Aspirin and naproxen may provide some relief due to their anti-inflammatory properties, but the response will not be as significant as with prednisolone.
Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Muscle Stiffness in Older People
Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a common condition that affects older people. It is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arthritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it does not appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects patients over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, usually within a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.
To diagnose PMR, doctors look for raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR of over 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are normal. Treatment for PMR involves prednisolone, usually at a dose of 15 mg/od. Patients typically respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old male presents to the emergency department with severe pain in his left thigh. He has a history of recurrent UTIs and currently has a catheter in place. Upon examination, he is febrile and experiences significant tenderness in the left thigh, making it difficult to move his knee. Blood and bone cultures both come back positive, leading to a diagnosis of osteomyelitis. What organism is most likely responsible for this infection?
Your Answer: Escherichia coli
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Understanding Osteomyelitis: Types, Causes, and Treatment
Osteomyelitis is a bone infection that can be classified into two types: haematogenous and non-haematogenous. Haematogenous osteomyelitis is caused by bacteria that enter the bloodstream and is usually monomicrobial. It is more common in children, with vertebral osteomyelitis being the most common form in adults. Risk factors include sickle cell anaemia, intravenous drug use, immunosuppression, and infective endocarditis. On the other hand, non-haematogenous osteomyelitis results from the spread of infection from adjacent soft tissues or direct injury to the bone. It is often polymicrobial and more common in adults, with risk factors such as diabetic foot ulcers, pressure sores, diabetes mellitus, and peripheral arterial disease.
Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of osteomyelitis, except in patients with sickle-cell anaemia where Salmonella species predominate. To diagnose osteomyelitis, MRI is the imaging modality of choice, with a sensitivity of 90-100%. Treatment for osteomyelitis involves a six-week course of flucloxacillin. Clindamycin is an alternative for patients who are allergic to penicillin.
In summary, osteomyelitis is a bone infection that can be caused by bacteria entering the bloodstream or spreading from adjacent soft tissues or direct injury to the bone. It is more common in children and adults with certain risk factors. Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause, and MRI is the preferred imaging modality for diagnosis. Treatment involves a six-week course of flucloxacillin or clindamycin for penicillin-allergic patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 3
Correct
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A 21-year-old male was playing a soccer match when he suddenly felt a 'pop' in his right foot while attempting a kick. He experienced significant pain and was unable to properly bear weight on the affected side. He is brought to the emergency department. During the examination, he is instructed to lie face down with his feet hanging off the edge of the examination bed. Upon squeezing the calf on the affected leg, there was no movement of his foot. What would be the primary imaging technique to confirm the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Ultrasound (US) scan
Explanation:Ultrasound is the preferred imaging method for diagnosing a suspected Achilles tendon rupture. This is because it is a quick and easy test to carry out and can provide an accurate diagnosis in the first instance. The patient’s presentation, including an audible pop and Simmonds’ test positivity, strongly suggests an Achilles tendon rupture. While CT and MRI scans can also detect this injury, they are not the first-line choice due to their higher radiation exposure and longer testing times. Dismissing the need for imaging and assuming a simple sprain would be incorrect in this case, as the patient requires further testing to confirm or rule out an Achilles tendon rupture.
Achilles tendon disorders are a common cause of pain in the back of the heel. These disorders can include tendinopathy, partial tears, and complete ruptures of the Achilles tendon. Certain factors, such as the use of quinolone antibiotics and high cholesterol levels, can increase the risk of developing these disorders. Symptoms of Achilles tendinopathy typically include gradual onset of pain that worsens with activity, as well as morning stiffness. Treatment for this condition usually involves pain relief, reducing activities that exacerbate the pain, and performing calf muscle eccentric exercises.
In contrast, an Achilles tendon rupture is a more serious condition that requires immediate medical attention. This type of injury is often caused by sudden, forceful movements during sports or running. Symptoms of an Achilles tendon rupture include an audible popping sound, sudden and severe pain in the calf or ankle, and an inability to walk or continue the activity. To help diagnose an Achilles tendon rupture, doctors may use Simmond’s triad, which involves examining the foot for abnormal angles and feeling for a gap in the tendon. Ultrasound is typically the first imaging test used to confirm a diagnosis of Achilles tendon rupture. If a rupture is suspected, it is important to seek medical attention from an orthopaedic specialist as soon as possible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old female presents to the emergency department following a fall during a walk. She reports experiencing discomfort in her right shoulder. During the examination, the right arm is externally rotated and abducted, and she resists all movements. The acromion is noticeable, and the X-ray shows the humeral head in a subcoracoid position in the anteroposterior view. What proportion of shoulder dislocations exhibit the same characteristics as this patient?
Your Answer: <5%
Correct Answer: >95%
Explanation:Shoulder dislocations are a common occurrence, with the humeral head often dislocating to a subcoracoid position. X-rays can reveal associated injuries such as Hill-Sachs deformities, Bankart lesions, and greater tuberosity fractures. Bankart lesions are often found alongside Hill-Sachs deformities. Hill-Sachs deformities refer to a fracture on the posterolateral humeral head caused by impact with the anterior glenoid rim, while Bankart lesions are injuries to the anteroinferior aspect of the glenoid labral complex. Inferior shoulder dislocations are rare, accounting for less than 1% of cases.
Shoulder dislocations happen when the humeral head becomes detached from the glenoid cavity of the scapula. This is the most common type of joint dislocation, with the shoulder accounting for around half of all major joint dislocations. In particular, anterior shoulder dislocations make up over 95% of cases.
There are many different techniques for reducing shoulders, but there is limited evidence to suggest that one is better than another. If the dislocation is recent, it may be possible to attempt reduction without any pain relief or sedation. However, some patients may require analgesia and/or sedation to ensure that the rotator cuff muscles are relaxed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 5
Correct
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An 80-year-old woman presents with a sudden pulsating headache in her temples and scalp tenderness. She is promptly treated with corticosteroids and a decision is made to start her on a long-term dose-reducing regimen. The patient has a medical history of proximal muscle stiffness that is worse in the morning.
Baseline investigations are conducted, revealing the following results:
- Calcium: 2.33 mmol/L (normal range: 2.10 - 2.60 mmol/L)
- Phosphate: 1.35 mmol/L (normal range: 0.74 - 1.40 mmol/L)
- Alkaline phosphatase: 78 mmol/L (normal range: 30 - 100 U/L)
- 25-hydroxycholecalciferol: 13 mU/L (normal range: 20 - 50 ng/mL)
What would be the most appropriate course of action for her management?Your Answer: Commence high-dose vitamin D replacement
Explanation:Before administering bisphosphonates, it is important to address hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency.
Bisphosphonates: Uses and Adverse Effects
Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, which are cells that break down bone tissue. This reduces the risk of bone fractures and can be used to treat conditions such as osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.
However, bisphosphonates can have adverse effects, including oesophageal reactions such as oesophagitis and ulcers, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which can cause fever, myalgia, and arthralgia. Hypocalcemia, or low calcium levels, can also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually not clinically significant.
To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or other oral medications and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment, and calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate. The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the patient’s level of risk, and some authorities recommend stopping treatment after five years for low-risk patients with a femoral neck T-score of > -2.5.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Samantha is a 65-year-old woman who loves going on hikes and spends a lot of time tending to her flower garden. Unfortunately, she recently fell and suffered an undisplaced intracapsular neck of femur fracture. What is the best course of action for managing Samantha's hip fracture?
Your Answer: Intramedullary nail
Correct Answer: Internal fixation (cannulated hip screw)
Explanation:When dealing with an intracapsular NOF fracture, internal fixation is the preferred method for patients who have a good pre-existing functional ability. This is crucial in determining the appropriate course of action. Conservative management is not recommended due to the risk of avascular necrosis. Surgical intervention is typically necessary for most patients. Hemiarthroplasty is typically reserved for patients with poor pre-existing functioning, while total hip replacements are used for displaced intracapsular fractures. Cannulated hip screws are commonly used for internal fixation, while intramedullary devices are used for extracapsular fractures.
Hip fractures are a common occurrence, particularly in elderly women with osteoporosis. The femoral head’s blood supply runs up the neck, making avascular necrosis a potential risk in displaced fractures. Symptoms of a hip fracture include pain and a shortened and externally rotated leg. Patients with non-displaced or incomplete neck of femur fractures may still be able to bear weight. Hip fractures can be classified as intracapsular or extracapsular, with the Garden system being a commonly used classification system. Blood supply disruption is most common in Types III and IV fractures.
Intracapsular hip fractures can be treated with internal fixation or hemiarthroplasty if the patient is unfit. Displaced fractures are recommended for replacement arthroplasty, such as total hip replacement or hemiarthroplasty, according to NICE guidelines. Total hip replacement is preferred over hemiarthroplasty if the patient was able to walk independently outdoors with the use of a stick, is not cognitively impaired, and is medically fit for anesthesia and the procedure. Extracapsular hip fractures can be managed with a dynamic hip screw for stable intertrochanteric fractures or an intramedullary device for reverse oblique, transverse, or subtrochanteric fractures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old male comes to the clinic after tripping while walking his dog. He stumbled forward but managed to catch himself with his hands. He did not experience any head trauma or loss of consciousness.
Upon examination, he reports persistent discomfort in his left hand, and the pain intensifies when pressure is applied through the metacarpal of his thumb.
An X-ray shows an unsteady fracture in the proximal pole of a carpal bone.
What would be the most suitable course of action for managing this condition?Your Answer: Place in a long-arm thumb spica cast for 6 weeks
Correct Answer: Refer to orthopaedic surgery
Explanation:Surgical fixation is necessary for all proximal scaphoid pole fractures, including this patient’s unstable fracture. The positive scaphoid compression test indicates instability, and the retrograde blood supply increases the risk of avascular necrosis. Rest, ice, compression, and elevation are not sufficient treatments in this case. While a long-arm thumb spica cast may be helpful for waist scaphoid fractures, it is less effective for unstable scaphoid pole fractures. Repeating a wrist x-ray after 10 days is appropriate when radiological signs are absent but clinical suspicion remains high. Attempting manual reduction is not recommended for scaphoid fractures, which require surgical fixation for optimal healing.
Understanding Scaphoid Fractures
A scaphoid fracture is a type of wrist fracture that typically occurs when a person falls onto an outstretched hand or during contact sports. It is important to recognize this type of fracture due to the unusual blood supply of the scaphoid bone. Interruption of the blood supply can lead to avascular necrosis, which is a serious complication. Patients with scaphoid fractures typically present with pain along the radial aspect of the wrist and loss of grip or pinch strength. Clinical examination is highly sensitive and specific when certain signs are present, such as tenderness over the anatomical snuffbox and pain on telescoping of the thumb.
Plain film radiographs should be requested, including scaphoid views, but the sensitivity in the first week of injury is only 80%. A CT scan may be requested in the context of ongoing clinical suspicion or planning operative management, while MRI is considered the definite investigation to confirm or exclude a diagnosis. Initial management involves immobilization with a splint or backslab and referral to orthopaedics. Orthopaedic management depends on the patient and type of fracture, with undisplaced fractures of the scaphoid waist typically treated with a cast for 6-8 weeks. Displaced scaphoid waist fractures require surgical fixation, as do proximal scaphoid pole fractures. Complications of scaphoid fractures include non-union, which can lead to pain and early osteoarthritis, and avascular necrosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old female who cannot tolerate methotrexate is initiated on azathioprine for her rheumatoid arthritis. During routine blood monitoring, the following results are obtained:
- Hemoglobin (Hb): 7.9 g/dl
- Platelets (Plt): 97 * 109/l
- White blood cells (WBC): 2.7 * 109/l
What are the factors that can increase the risk of azathioprine toxicity in this patient?Your Answer: Alcohol excess
Correct Answer: Thiopurine methyltransferase deficiency
Explanation:Before starting treatment with azathioprine, it is important to check for the presence of thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) deficiency, which occurs in approximately 1 in 200 individuals. This deficiency increases the risk of developing pancytopenia related to azathioprine.
Azathioprine is a medication that is broken down into mercaptopurine, which is an active compound that inhibits the production of purine. To determine if someone is at risk for azathioprine toxicity, a test for thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) may be necessary. Adverse effects of this medication include bone marrow depression, which can be detected through a full blood count if there are signs of infection or bleeding, as well as nausea, vomiting, pancreatitis, and an increased risk of non-melanoma skin cancer. It is important to note that there is a significant interaction between azathioprine and allopurinol, so lower doses of azathioprine should be used in conjunction with allopurinol. Despite these potential side effects, azathioprine is generally considered safe to use during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man with a medical history of COPD, ulcerative colitis, hypertension, and hypothyroidism presented to your clinic for follow-up. He was recently released from the hospital after being diagnosed with pneumonia. According to the discharge summary, he had an allergic reaction to co-trimoxazole during his hospital stay, resulting in the discontinuation of one of his regular medications. He has been instructed to consult with his GP about this medication. Which medication is most likely to have been discontinued due to the drug allergy?
Your Answer: Lisinopril
Correct Answer: Sulfasalazine
Explanation:If a patient has a known allergy to a sulfa drug like co-trimoxazole, they should avoid taking sulfasalazine.
Sulfasalazine: A DMARD for Inflammatory Arthritis and Bowel Disease
Sulfasalazine is a type of disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) that is commonly used to manage inflammatory arthritis, particularly rheumatoid arthritis, as well as inflammatory bowel disease. This medication is a prodrug for 5-ASA, which works by reducing neutrophil chemotaxis and suppressing the proliferation of lymphocytes and pro-inflammatory cytokines.
However, caution should be exercised when using sulfasalazine in patients with G6PD deficiency or those who are allergic to aspirin or sulphonamides due to the risk of cross-sensitivity. Adverse effects of sulfasalazine may include oligospermia, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, pneumonitis/lung fibrosis, myelosuppression, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and the potential to color tears and stain contact lenses.
Despite these potential side effects, sulfasalazine is considered safe to use during pregnancy and breastfeeding, making it a viable option for women who require treatment for inflammatory arthritis or bowel disease. Overall, sulfasalazine is an effective DMARD that can help manage the symptoms of these conditions and improve patients’ quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 55 year old woman comes to the clinic with symptoms and signs that indicate rheumatoid arthritis. She has been experiencing bilateral swelling of her metacarpophalangeal joints, early morning stiffness lasting for about an hour, and a raised nodule on the extensor surface of her left forearm for the past 2 months. Her rheumatoid factor test came back positive. What is the recommended initial treatment for her arthritis?
Your Answer: Methotrexate and paracetamol
Correct Answer: Methotrexate plus a short course of oral prednisolone
Explanation:For individuals with recently diagnosed active rheumatoid arthritis, NICE advises initiating disease-modifying treatment as soon as feasible, utilizing methotrexate (or sulfasalazine or leflunomide) and oral steroids. During flare-ups, steroids (either oral or intra-articular) may be administered to alleviate symptoms, and patients may also be given paracetamol for pain management.
Managing Rheumatoid Arthritis with Disease-Modifying Therapies
The management of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) has significantly improved with the introduction of disease-modifying therapies (DMARDs) in the past decade. Patients with joint inflammation should start a combination of DMARDs as soon as possible, along with analgesia, physiotherapy, and surgery. In 2018, NICE updated their guidelines for RA management, recommending DMARD monotherapy with a short course of bridging prednisolone as the initial step. Monitoring response to treatment is crucial, and NICE suggests using a combination of CRP and disease activity to assess it. Flares of RA are often managed with corticosteroids, while methotrexate is the most widely used DMARD. Other DMARDs include sulfasalazine, leflunomide, and hydroxychloroquine. TNF-inhibitors are indicated for patients with an inadequate response to at least two DMARDs, including methotrexate. Etanercept, infliximab, and adalimumab are some of the TNF-inhibitors available, each with their own risks and administration methods. Rituximab and Abatacept are other DMARDs that can be used, but the latter is not currently recommended by NICE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 11
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman complains of pain in her ring finger. She mentions being bitten by an insect on the same hand a few days ago. Upon examination, her entire digit is swollen, but the swelling stops at the distal palmar crease, and she keeps her finger strictly flexed. Palpation and passive extension of the digit cause pain. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Infective flexor tenosynovitis
Explanation:The patient is exhibiting all four of Kanavel’s signs of flexor tendon sheath infection, namely fixed flexion, fusiform swelling, tenderness, and pain on passive extension. Gout and pseudogout are mono-arthropathies that only affect one joint, whereas inflammatory arthritis typically has a more gradual onset. Although cellulitis is a possibility, the examination findings suggest that a flexor tendon sheath infection is more probable.
Infective tenosynovitis is a medical emergency that necessitates prompt identification and treatment. If left untreated, the flexor tendons will suffer irreparable damage, resulting in loss of function in the digit. If detected early, medical management with antibiotics and elevation may be sufficient, but surgical debridement is likely necessary.
Hand Diseases
Dupuytren’s contracture is a hand disease that causes the fingers to bend towards the palm and become fixed in a flexed position. It is caused by thickening and shortening of the tissues under the skin on the palm of the hand, which leads to contractures of the palmar aponeurosis. This condition is most common in males over 40 years of age and is associated with liver cirrhosis and alcoholism. Treatment involves surgical fasciectomy, but the condition may recur and surgical therapies carry risks of neurovascular damage.
Carpal tunnel syndrome is another hand disease that affects the median nerve at the carpal tunnel. It is characterized by altered sensation in the lateral three fingers and is more common in females. It may be associated with other connective tissue disorders and can occur following trauma to the distal radius. Treatment involves surgical decompression of the carpal tunnel or non-surgical options such as splinting and bracing.
There are also several miscellaneous hand lumps that can occur. Osler’s nodes are painful, red, raised lesions found on the hands and feet, while Bouchard’s nodes are hard, bony outgrowths or gelatinous cysts on the middle joints of fingers or toes and are a sign of osteoarthritis. Heberden’s nodes typically develop in middle age and cause a permanent bony outgrowth that often skews the fingertip sideways. Ganglion cysts are fluid-filled swellings near a joint that are usually asymptomatic but can be excised if troublesome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 12
Correct
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A 65-year-old cancer survivor visits the GP complaining of back pain that began after playing golf last week. The pain intensifies when lying flat on the back at night, and taking paracetamol has provided little relief. The patient denies experiencing any bowel or bladder issues. During the examination, the doctor notes that the back pain is most prominent in the thoracic area, but there are no signs of neurological impairment. What is the most appropriate course of action for this individual?
Your Answer: Refer urgently to hospital for further investigation
Explanation:When a patient with a history of cancer complains of back pain, it is important to investigate further. Even if the pain seems to be caused by a simple musculoskeletal injury, there may be underlying issues related to the patient’s cancer history. In this case, the patient has three red flags that require urgent attention in a hospital setting: a history of cancer, thoracic back pain, and worsening pain when lying down (which could indicate pressure on a growth or tumor). The concern is that the back pain may be caused by spinal metastases, which can lead to cord compromise.
Performing a digital rectal exam (DRE) is not necessary in this case, as the patient does not exhibit symptoms of cauda equina syndrome or cord compromise. DRE is typically used to assess for reduced anal tone and saddle anesthesia, which are signs of cauda equina syndrome. This condition can cause sciatic-like lower back and leg pain.
While prescribing stronger pain medication may help alleviate the patient’s symptoms, the priority in managing this case is to rule out any serious underlying causes of the back pain. Physiotherapy may be helpful in managing musculoskeletal back pain, but it is important to first rule out the possibility of spinal metastases due to cancer recurrence.
An X-ray of the spine may not be sensitive enough to detect small lytic lesions or assess for canal compromise. It is typically only considered if there has been recent significant trauma or suspicion of osteoporotic vertebral collapse. In cases where metastases are suspected, an MRI or CT scan is preferred.
Lower back pain is a common issue that is often caused by muscular strain. However, it is important to be aware of potential underlying causes that may require specific treatment. Certain red flags should be considered, such as age under 20 or over 50, a history of cancer, night pain, trauma, or systemic illness. There are also specific causes of lower back pain that should be kept in mind. Facet joint pain may be acute or chronic, worse in the morning and on standing, and typically worsens with back extension. Spinal stenosis may cause leg pain, numbness, and weakness that is worse on walking and relieved by sitting or leaning forward. Ankylosing spondylitis is more common in young men and causes stiffness that is worse in the morning and improves with activity. Peripheral arterial disease may cause pain on walking and weak foot pulses. It is important to consider these potential causes and seek appropriate diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman presents with a 4-day history of left shoulder pain. The pain is confined to the shoulder and has not spread to other areas. She reports injuring her shoulder while attempting shoulder exercises at the gym recently. The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypercholesterolemia. Upon examination, the shoulder appears normal in temperature and color, without signs of swelling. Active and passive external rotation are significantly limited by pain. Flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction are also limited by pain, but to a lesser extent. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Torn rotator cuff
Correct Answer: Adhesive capsulitis
Explanation:Adhesive capsulitis is the correct answer as it is commonly seen in middle-aged females, diabetic patients, and following trauma. The classic impairment in adhesive capsulitis is external rotation, both on active and passive movement. On the other hand, calcific tendonosis would present with bursitis, causing pain, restriction in movement, and a hot and swollen shoulder. Cervical nerve root entrapment would cause pain in the neck and/or shoulder, with possible radiation to the arm and impaired neck range of movement. Supraspinatus tendonosis and torn rotator cuff would primarily affect abduction, not external rotation.
Understanding Adhesive Capsulitis (Frozen Shoulder)
Adhesive capsulitis, commonly known as frozen shoulder, is a prevalent cause of shoulder pain that primarily affects middle-aged women. The exact cause of this condition is not yet fully understood. However, studies have shown that up to 20% of diabetics may experience an episode of frozen shoulder. Symptoms typically develop over several days, with external rotation being more affected than internal rotation or abduction. Both active and passive movement are affected, and patients usually experience a painful freezing phase, an adhesive phase, and a recovery phase. In some cases, the condition may affect both shoulders, which occurs in up to 20% of patients. The episode typically lasts between 6 months and 2 years.
Diagnosis of adhesive capsulitis is usually clinical, although imaging may be necessary for atypical or persistent symptoms. Unfortunately, no single intervention has been proven to improve the outcome in the long-term. However, there are several treatment options available, including nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), physiotherapy, oral corticosteroids, and intra-articular corticosteroids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents with a 1-month history of fatigue, aches, constipation, and nausea. She reports increased thirst and waking at night to pass urine, and has been experiencing a low mood that has kept her from leaving the house frequently. The following investigations were performed:
- Hb 140 g/L (115 - 160)
- WBC 5.9 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
- Calcium 2.8 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
- PTH 75 pg/mL (10 - 55)
- ALP 130 µmol/L (30 - 100)
- Phosphate 0.4 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
- Urea 5.3 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
- Creatinine 68 µmol/L (55 - 120)
- 25-hydroxycholecalciferol 48 nmol/L (>50)
- eGFR 62 ml/min/1.73 m2
What is the most likely underlying cause of her presentation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parathyroid adenoma
Explanation:The diagnosis of chronic kidney disease is incorrect in this case. An eGFR below 90 can still be considered normal if it is above 60 and there are no abnormalities in the U&Es. The patient’s eGFR is 62 and their urea and creatinine levels are within normal range, indicating that they do not have CKD. In cases of CKD, secondary hyperparathyroidism may occur, which would result in different blood test results. Since the kidneys are responsible for activating vitamin D, which is essential for the absorption of calcium in the intestines, low serum calcium levels would be expected in CKD. Additionally, due to kidney dysfunction, there would be inadequate excretion of phosphate, leading to increased serum phosphate levels. This increase in phosphate levels would cause calcium to be deposited in the insoluble calcium phosphate salt, further lowering calcium levels. Therefore, the symptoms of hypercalcemia that the patient is experiencing would not be present in secondary hyperparathyroidism caused by CKD. In summary, hyperparathyroidism secondary to CKD would result in low calcium and high phosphate levels, rather than high calcium and low phosphate levels.
Lab Values for Bone Disorders
When it comes to bone disorders, certain lab values can provide important information for diagnosis and treatment. In cases of osteoporosis, calcium, phosphate, alkaline phosphatase (ALP), and parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels are typically within normal ranges. However, in osteomalacia, there is a decrease in calcium and phosphate levels, an increase in ALP levels, and an increase in PTH levels.
Primary hyperparathyroidism, which can lead to osteitis fibrosa cystica, is characterized by increased calcium and PTH levels, but decreased phosphate levels. Chronic kidney disease can also lead to secondary hyperparathyroidism, with decreased calcium levels and increased phosphate and PTH levels.
Paget’s disease, which causes abnormal bone growth, typically shows normal calcium and phosphate levels, but an increase in ALP levels. Osteopetrosis, a rare genetic disorder that causes bones to become dense and brittle, typically shows normal lab values for calcium, phosphate, ALP, and PTH.
Overall, understanding these lab values can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat various bone disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old woman is admitted from her nursing home after experiencing a fall resulting in a displaced intracapsular hip fracture. She has a history of hypertension, mild cognitive impairment, and osteoarthritis. Typically, she requires a zimmer frame for mobility and appears frail. What is the appropriate surgical approach for her condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cement hemiarthroplasty
Explanation:The patient’s decreased mobility, cognitive impairment, and general frailty make her unsuitable for a total hip replacement. Instead, a cement hemiarthroplasty is the recommended treatment for her fractured hip, with the goal of restoring her normal function. The appropriate surgical management for a hip fracture depends on both the location of the fracture and the patient’s normal function.
For an intracapsular fracture, which involves the femoral head and insertion of the capsule into the joint, replacement arthroplasty is recommended for patients with a displaced fracture who are clinically eligible. Eligibility criteria include the ability to walk independently, no cognitive impairment, and medical fitness for both anesthesia and the procedure. If a patient does not meet these criteria, a cemented hemiarthroplasty is preferred.
For extracapsular fractures, such as trochanteric or subtrochanteric fractures, different treatments are recommended. A sliding hip screw is appropriate for trochanteric fractures, while subtrochanteric fractures should be fixed using an intramedullary nail.
The ultimate goal of hip replacement after a fracture is to allow the patient to return to their normal function by enabling them to fully weight bear postoperatively.
Hip fractures are a common occurrence, particularly in elderly women with osteoporosis. The femoral head blood supply runs up the neck, making avascular necrosis a potential risk in displaced fractures. Symptoms of a hip fracture include pain and a shortened and externally rotated leg. Patients with non-displaced or incomplete neck of femur fractures may still be able to bear weight. Hip fractures can be classified as intracapsular or extracapsular, with the Garden system being a commonly used classification system. Blood supply disruption is most common in Types III and IV fractures.
Intracapsular hip fractures can be treated with internal fixation or hemiarthroplasty if the patient is unfit. Displaced fractures are recommended for replacement arthroplasty, such as total hip replacement or hemiarthroplasty, according to NICE guidelines. Total hip replacement is preferred over hemiarthroplasty if the patient was able to walk independently outdoors with the use of a stick, is not cognitively impaired, and is medically fit for anesthesia and the procedure. Extracapsular hip fractures can be managed with a dynamic hip screw for stable intertrochanteric fractures or an intramedullary device for reverse oblique, transverse, or subtrochanteric fractures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man has been diagnosed with ankylosing spondylitis and his condition is not well controlled. His rheumatologist suggests starting him on a new medication. In cases of predominantly axial disease, how many non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs must be ineffective before anti-TNF alpha inhibitors can be considered?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:In cases of axial ankylosing spondylitis that have not responded to two different NSAIDs and meet the criteria for active disease on two separate occasions 12 weeks apart, the use of anti-TNF alpha inhibitors is recommended. Additionally, physiotherapy should be incorporated throughout the treatment process.
Investigating and Managing Ankylosing Spondylitis
Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in males aged 20-30 years old. Inflammatory markers such as ESR and CRP are usually elevated, but normal levels do not necessarily rule out ankylosing spondylitis. HLA-B27 is not a reliable diagnostic tool as it can also be positive in normal individuals. The most effective way to diagnose ankylosing spondylitis is through a plain x-ray of the sacroiliac joints. However, if the x-ray is negative but suspicion for AS remains high, an MRI can be obtained to confirm the diagnosis.
Management of ankylosing spondylitis involves regular exercise, such as swimming, and the use of NSAIDs as the first-line treatment. Physiotherapy can also be helpful. Disease-modifying drugs used for rheumatoid arthritis, such as sulphasalazine, are only useful if there is peripheral joint involvement. Anti-TNF therapy, such as etanercept and adalimumab, should be given to patients with persistently high disease activity despite conventional treatments, according to the 2010 EULAR guidelines. Ongoing research is being conducted to determine whether anti-TNF therapies should be used earlier in the course of the disease. Spirometry may show a restrictive defect due to a combination of pulmonary fibrosis, kyphosis, and ankylosis of the costovertebral joints.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with acute joint swelling. He has a history of type 2 diabetes and hypercholesterolemia and takes metformin and atorvastatin. He smokes 25 cigarettes daily and drinks 20 units of alcohol per week.
His left knee joint is erythematosus, warm, and tender. His temperature is 37.2ºC, his heart rate is 105 bpm, his respiratory rate is 18 /min, and his blood pressure is 140/80 mmHg. Joint aspiration shows needle-shaped negatively birefringent crystals.
What is the most appropriate investigation to confirm the likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Measure serum urate 2 weeks after inflammation settles
Explanation:Understanding Gout: Symptoms and Diagnosis
Gout is a type of arthritis that causes inflammation and pain in the joints. Patients experience episodes of intense pain that can last for several days, followed by periods of no symptoms. The acute episodes usually reach their peak within 12 hours and are characterized by significant pain, swelling, and redness. The most commonly affected joint is the first metatarsophalangeal joint, but other joints such as the ankle, wrist, and knee can also be affected. If left untreated, repeated acute episodes of gout can lead to chronic joint problems.
To diagnose gout, doctors may perform a synovial fluid analysis to look for needle-shaped, negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals under polarized light. Uric acid levels may also be checked once the acute episode has subsided, as they can be high, normal, or low during the attack. Radiological features of gout include joint effusion, well-defined punched-out erosions with sclerotic margins in a juxta-articular distribution, and eccentric erosions. Unlike rheumatoid arthritis, there is no periarticular osteopenia, and soft tissue tophi may be visible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl complains of knee pain. She is an avid hurdler and has been experiencing progressively worsening knee pain after exercising. She reports that her knee locks and she feels a painful popping sensation when extending it. She denies any recent injuries. Upon examination, there is slight swelling, tenderness on the inner side of the knee, and discomfort when flexing or extending the knee. What is the probable diagnosis in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osteochondritis dissecans
Explanation:The likely diagnosis for this young athlete is osteochondritis dissecans, which commonly affects children and young adults. Symptoms include knee pain after exercise, locking, and clunking. Further investigations such as X-ray and MRI are necessary, and referral to an orthopaedic specialist is required for management. While a medial collateral ligament sprain is possible, there is no history of an acute injury that could have caused it. Patellar subluxation is common in teenage girls but typically presents with giving-way episodes, which is not the case here. Patellar tendonitis, which is more common in teenage boys, presents with vague anterior knee pain that worsens with activities such as walking. However, the symptoms in this scenario are more consistent with a more serious diagnosis such as osteochondritis dissecans, including pain, swelling, and knee clunking.
Understanding Osteochondritis Dissecans
Osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) is a condition that affects the subchondral bone, usually in the knee joint, and can lead to secondary effects on the joint cartilage. It is most commonly seen in children and young adults and can progress to degenerative changes if left untreated. Symptoms of OCD include knee pain and swelling, catching, locking, and giving way, as well as a painful clunk when flexing or extending the knee. Signs of the condition include joint effusion and tenderness on palpation of the articular cartilage of the medial femoral condyle when the knee is flexed.
To diagnose OCD, X-rays and MRI scans are often used. X-rays may show the subchondral crescent sign or loose bodies, while MRI scans can evaluate cartilage, visualize loose bodies, stage the condition, and assess the stability of the lesion. Early diagnosis is crucial, as clinical signs may be subtle in the early stages. Therefore, there should be a low threshold for imaging and/or orthopedic opinion.
Overall, understanding OCD is important for recognizing its symptoms and seeking appropriate medical attention. With early diagnosis and management, patients can prevent the progression of the condition and maintain joint health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of severe back pain and a high fever. The pain began in his lower back three days ago and has progressively worsened, now extending to his left thigh and groin. He finds relief by lying on his back and keeping his left knee slightly bent and hip externally rotated. Hip extension is particularly painful.
The patient has a history of intravenous drug use. On examination, he has a fever of 38.2ºC and a heart rate of 132 beats per minute. A mild systolic murmur is present, and tenderness is noted over L1 to L3.
His urine dip reveals protein 1+ and blood 1+, but is negative for nitrites and leukocytes. What is the most likely cause of his back pain?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Psoas abscess
Explanation:When considering the potential causes of back pain in an intravenous drug user, it is important to keep psoas abscess in mind as a possible differential diagnosis. In this particular case, the patient’s symptoms suggest the presence of infective endocarditis, as indicated by the presence of blood and protein in the urine and a systolic murmur during auscultation. However, it is unlikely that this condition is responsible for the patient’s back pain.
An iliopsoas abscess is a condition where pus accumulates in the iliopsoas compartment, which includes the iliacus and psoas muscles. There are two types of iliopsoas abscesses: primary and secondary. Primary abscesses occur due to the spread of bacteria through the bloodstream, with Staphylococcus aureus being the most common cause. Secondary abscesses are caused by underlying conditions such as Crohn’s disease, diverticulitis, colorectal cancer, UTIs, GU cancers, vertebral osteomyelitis, femoral catheterization, lithotripsy, endocarditis, and intravenous drug use. Secondary abscesses have a higher mortality rate compared to primary abscesses.
The clinical features of an iliopsoas abscess include fever, back/flank pain, limp, and weight loss. During a clinical examination, the patient is positioned supine with the knee flexed and the hip mildly externally rotated. Specific tests are performed to diagnose iliopsoas inflammation, such as placing a hand proximal to the patient’s ipsilateral knee and asking the patient to lift their thigh against the hand, which causes pain due to contraction of the psoas muscle. Another test involves lying the patient on the normal side and hyperextending the affected hip, which should elicit pain as the psoas muscle is stretched.
The investigation of choice for an iliopsoas abscess is a CT scan of the abdomen. Management involves antibiotics and percutaneous drainage, which is successful in around 90% of cases. Surgery is only indicated if percutaneous drainage fails or if there is another intra-abdominal pathology that requires surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old male has been treated for 3 flares of gout over the last year and would like some medication to prevent this from reoccurring. His past medical history includes: gout, Crohn's disease, hypertension and depression. His regular medications are: paracetamol, omeprazole, ramipril, azathioprine and sertraline.
Which medication would pose a risk of bone marrow suppression for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Allopurinol
Explanation:The combination of azathioprine and allopurinol can lead to a serious interaction that results in bone marrow suppression. This is particularly concerning for patients with Crohn’s disease who are already taking azathioprine, as both medications inhibit xanthine oxidase.
Azathioprine is a medication that is broken down into mercaptopurine, which is an active compound that inhibits the production of purine. To determine if someone is at risk for azathioprine toxicity, a test for thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) may be necessary. Adverse effects of this medication include bone marrow depression, which can be detected through a full blood count if there are signs of infection or bleeding, as well as nausea, vomiting, pancreatitis, and an increased risk of non-melanoma skin cancer. It is important to note that there is a significant interaction between azathioprine and allopurinol, so lower doses of azathioprine should be used in conjunction with allopurinol. Despite these potential side effects, azathioprine is generally considered safe to use during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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