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  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old man presents to the rheumatologist with persistent pain, swelling, and soreness...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presents to the rheumatologist with persistent pain, swelling, and soreness in his right knee, lower back, and eyes. He reports feeling generally well and is currently taking ciprofloxacin for a UTI. He was treated for Chlamydia and gonococcus co-infection four weeks ago. Blood tests reveal Hb levels of 132 (115 - 160), WBC count of 10.4 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0), and CRP levels of 55 mg/L (< 5). On examination, the right knee and ankle are swollen and tender. What auto-antibody is typically associated with this condition?

      Your Answer: HLA-B27

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for this patient’s presentation is reactive arthritis, which is associated with HLA-B27. This condition is characterized by arthritis, urethritis, and conjunctivitis. The patient’s acute onset arthritis and suspected UTI that has not resolved after three days of treatment suggest the presence of urethritis. Additionally, the patient’s history of a Chlamydia infection is a common trigger for reactive arthritis.

      It is important to note that HLA-B51 is associated with Behcet’s disease, which presents with ulcers of the genitals and oral mucosa, skin lesions, and inflammation of parts of the eye. HLA-DQ2 is associated with Coeliac disease, which causes symptoms of malabsorption. HLA-DR3 is associated with Addison’s disease, systemic lupus erythematosus, type 1 diabetes mellitus, Grave’s disease, and myasthenia gravis, none of which would explain the patient’s presentation.

      HLA Associations and Disease

      HLA antigens are proteins that are encoded by genes on chromosome 6. There are two classes of HLA antigens: class I (HLA-A, B, and C) and class II (HLA-DP, DQ, and DR). Diseases can be strongly associated with certain HLA antigens.

      For example, HLA-A3 is strongly associated with haemochromatosis, while HLA-B51 is associated with Behcet’s disease. HLA-B27 is associated with several conditions, including ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, and acute anterior uveitis. HLA-DQ2/DQ8 is associated with coeliac disease, and HLA-DR2 is associated with narcolepsy and Goodpasture’s syndrome. HLA-DR3 is associated with dermatitis herpetiformis, Sjogren’s syndrome, and primary biliary cirrhosis. Finally, HLA-DR4 is associated with type 1 diabetes mellitus and rheumatoid arthritis.

      It is important to note that some diseases may be associated with multiple HLA antigens, and that the strength of the association can vary. Understanding these associations can help with diagnosis and treatment of these diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 2 - A 25-year-old man presents with a complaint of painful hands. He reports that...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man presents with a complaint of painful hands. He reports that his fingers turn white and become numb when exposed to cold, and then turn blue upon rewarming. His medical history is unremarkable, and he works in construction. On examination, there is no evidence of digital ulcers, calcinosis, chilblains, rash, or arthralgia. His blood results show a hemoglobin level of 145 g/L, platelet count of 260 * 109/L, WBC count of 6.2 * 109/L, and ESR of 10mm/hr. What is the most likely cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Use of vibrating tools

      Explanation:

      Understanding Raynaud’s Phenomenon

      Raynaud’s phenomenon is a condition where the digital arteries and cutaneous arteriole overreact to cold or emotional stress, causing an exaggerated vasoconstrictive response. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary Raynaud’s disease is more common in young women and presents with bilateral symptoms. On the other hand, secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon is associated with underlying connective tissue disorders such as scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis, and systemic lupus erythematosus, among others.

      Factors that suggest an underlying connective tissue disease include onset after 40 years, unilateral symptoms, rashes, presence of autoantibodies, and digital ulcers. Management of Raynaud’s phenomenon involves referral to secondary care for patients with suspected secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon. First-line treatment includes calcium channel blockers such as nifedipine. In severe cases, IV prostacyclin (epoprostenol) infusions may be used, and their effects may last for several weeks or months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      50
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  • Question 3 - A 27-year-old man presents to the outpatient clinic with a history of lower...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old man presents to the outpatient clinic with a history of lower back pain and stiffness persisting for six months. The pain and stiffness improve with exercise but worsen at night. Physical examination reveals reduced flexion of the spine. Ankylosing spondylitis is suspected, and the patient is scheduled for blood tests and spinal X-rays. What finding would most strongly support the diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Sacroiliitis on X-ray

      Explanation:

      The most effective way to confirm a diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis is through the detection of sacro-ilitis on a pelvic X-ray. This condition is commonly found in males between the ages of 20 and 30. While radiographs may not show any abnormalities in the early stages of the disease, later changes may include sacroiliitis, lumbar vertebrae squaring, and bamboo spine. ANA and rheumatoid factor tests are not useful in diagnosing ankylosing spondylitis, as they are positive in other autoimmune diseases. HLA-B27 testing is also not a reliable indicator, as it can be positive in individuals with or without the disease. Inflammatory markers such as ESR and CRP are often elevated in patients with ankylosing spondylitis, but normal levels do not necessarily rule out the condition.

      Investigating and Managing Ankylosing Spondylitis

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in males aged 20-30 years old. Inflammatory markers such as ESR and CRP are usually elevated, but normal levels do not necessarily rule out ankylosing spondylitis. HLA-B27 is not a reliable diagnostic tool as it can also be positive in normal individuals. The most effective way to diagnose ankylosing spondylitis is through a plain x-ray of the sacroiliac joints. However, if the x-ray is negative but suspicion for AS remains high, an MRI can be obtained to confirm the diagnosis.

      Management of ankylosing spondylitis involves regular exercise, such as swimming, and the use of NSAIDs as the first-line treatment. Physiotherapy can also be helpful. Disease-modifying drugs used for rheumatoid arthritis, such as sulphasalazine, are only useful if there is peripheral joint involvement. Anti-TNF therapy, such as etanercept and adalimumab, should be given to patients with persistently high disease activity despite conventional treatments, according to the 2010 EULAR guidelines. Ongoing research is being conducted to determine whether anti-TNF therapies should be used earlier in the course of the disease. Spirometry may show a restrictive defect due to a combination of pulmonary fibrosis, kyphosis, and ankylosis of the costovertebral joints.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 4 - A 6-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician due to concerns about her...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician due to concerns about her posture. During the examination, the pediatrician observes a kyphotic spine and blue-grey sclera. The child has not experienced any bone fractures. To investigate further, the pediatrician orders a bone profile blood test to confirm the suspicion of osteogenesis imperfecta.
      What specific results from the bone profile blood test would be indicative of this condition?

      Your Answer: Normal calcium, PTH and PO4

      Explanation:

      In osteogenesis imperfecta, the levels of adjusted calcium, PTH, ALP, and PO4 are typically within the normal range. This rare genetic disorder is characterized by frequent bone fractures, blue-grey sclera, micrognathia, and kyphoscoliosis. Biochemical tests usually show normal levels of calcium, phosphate, and parathyroid hormone. If parathyroid hormone levels are elevated along with high calcium, it may indicate primary hyperparathyroidism caused by parathyroid adenoma, hyperplasia, or parathyroid cancer. On the other hand, elevated parathyroid hormone with low calcium may suggest secondary hyperparathyroidism due to kidney failure or vitamin D deficiency. Hypercalcemia without elevated parathyroid hormone may indicate primary malignancy or sarcoidosis. Hypocalcemia with low parathyroid hormone levels may suggest parathyroid dysfunction, which is commonly seen after thyroid or parathyroid surgery or as part of an autoimmune syndrome.

      Osteogenesis imperfecta, also known as brittle bone disease, is a group of disorders that affect collagen metabolism, leading to bone fragility and fractures. The most common type of osteogenesis imperfecta is type 1, which is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner and is caused by a decrease in the synthesis of pro-alpha 1 or pro-alpha 2 collagen polypeptides. This condition typically presents in childhood and is characterized by fractures that occur following minor trauma, as well as blue sclera, dental imperfections, and deafness due to otosclerosis.

      When investigating osteogenesis imperfecta, it is important to note that adjusted calcium, phosphate, parathyroid hormone, and ALP results are usually normal. This condition can have a significant impact on a person’s quality of life, as it can lead to frequent fractures and other complications. However, with proper management and support, individuals with osteogenesis imperfecta can lead fulfilling lives.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 5 - Sarah, a 28-year-old woman, presents to the emergency department with right-sided abdominal pain....

    Incorrect

    • Sarah, a 28-year-old woman, presents to the emergency department with right-sided abdominal pain. The pain radiates to the anterior hip and is relieved by flexing her hips to touch knees to chest. Sarah denies any recent trauma. She has a history of ulcerative colitis and takes regular mesalamine.

      On examination, her temperature is 38.0ºC. She mobilises across the room with a limp and has pain on extension and internal rotation of her right hip.

      Bloods show:
      Lab test Result Reference range
      WBC 14.8 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      ESR 18 mm/hr < (15)
      CRP 12 mg/L (< 5)

      What is the most appropriate investigation at this stage?

      Your Answer: Hip joint aspiration

      Correct Answer: CT abdomen

      Explanation:

      When a psoas abscess is suspected, CT abdomen is the recommended diagnostic test. Tom has presented with right-sided abdominal pain that is relieved by hip flexion, along with a positive psoas sign and a low-grade fever, which are indicative of psoas abscess. Although MRI has a similar sensitivity to contrast CT, it is less accessible. Retrocaecal appendicitis is less likely based on Tom’s history and examination. While abdominal ultrasound is preferred for investigating appendicitis in children and pregnant women, abdominopelvic CT is preferred for other adults. Hip x-ray is not the most useful test in this case, as osteomyelitis or avascular necrosis are less likely based on Tom’s clinical presentation. Colonoscopy is not the most appropriate test to order next, as his symptoms are unlikely to be caused by a flare-up of his Crohn’s disease.

      An iliopsoas abscess is a condition where pus accumulates in the iliopsoas compartment, which includes the iliacus and psoas muscles. There are two types of iliopsoas abscesses: primary and secondary. Primary abscesses occur due to the spread of bacteria through the bloodstream, with Staphylococcus aureus being the most common cause. Secondary abscesses are caused by underlying conditions such as Crohn’s disease, diverticulitis, colorectal cancer, UTIs, GU cancers, vertebral osteomyelitis, femoral catheterization, lithotripsy, endocarditis, and intravenous drug use. Secondary abscesses have a higher mortality rate compared to primary abscesses.

      The clinical features of an iliopsoas abscess include fever, back/flank pain, limp, and weight loss. During a clinical examination, the patient is positioned supine with the knee flexed and the hip mildly externally rotated. Specific tests are performed to diagnose iliopsoas inflammation, such as placing a hand proximal to the patient’s ipsilateral knee and asking the patient to lift their thigh against the hand, which causes pain due to contraction of the psoas muscle. Another test involves lying the patient on the normal side and hyperextending the affected hip, which should elicit pain as the psoas muscle is stretched.

      The investigation of choice for an iliopsoas abscess is a CT scan of the abdomen. Management involves antibiotics and percutaneous drainage, which is successful in around 90% of cases. Surgery is only indicated if percutaneous drainage fails or if there is another intra-abdominal pathology that requires surgery.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 6 - A 55-year-old woman has observed that her hands' skin has become extremely tight,...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman has observed that her hands' skin has become extremely tight, and her fingers occasionally turn blue. She has also experienced difficulty swallowing both solids and liquids. Which autoantibody is primarily linked to these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Anti-double-stranded DNA (anti-dsDNA)

      Correct Answer: Anti-centromere

      Explanation:

      AMA (Anti-mitochondrial antibodies)

      Understanding Systemic Sclerosis

      Systemic sclerosis is a condition that affects the skin and other connective tissues, but its cause is unknown. It is more common in females, with three patterns of the disease. Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis is characterised by Raynaud’s as the first sign, affecting the face and distal limbs, and associated with anti-centromere antibodies. CREST syndrome is a subtype of limited systemic sclerosis that includes Calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, oEsophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, and Telangiectasia. Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis affects the trunk and proximal limbs, associated with scl-70 antibodies, and has a poor prognosis. Respiratory involvement is the most common cause of death, with interstitial lung disease and pulmonary arterial hypertension being the primary complications. Renal disease and hypertension are also possible complications, and patients with renal disease should be started on an ACE inhibitor. Scleroderma without internal organ involvement is characterised by tightening and fibrosis of the skin, manifesting as plaques or linear. Antibodies such as ANA, RF, anti-scl-70, and anti-centromere are associated with different types of systemic sclerosis.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 7 - A 5-year-old girl is brought to the hospital with a suspected fracture of...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old girl is brought to the hospital with a suspected fracture of her left femur. Her parents are unsure how this happened and deny any injury. During the examination, you observe extensive dental decay, a bluish hue to the whites of her eyes, and on X-ray, multiple fractures at different stages of healing are noted.

      What is the probable diagnosis in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Osteogenesis imperfecta

      Explanation:

      Osteogenesis imperfecta is a collagen disorder that is identified by blue sclera, multiple fractures during childhood, dental caries, and deafness due to otosclerosis. It is often mistaken for child abuse or neglect, but the presence of blue sclera is a crucial indicator of osteogenesis imperfecta. In contrast, rickets is more likely to cause growth stunting and deformities rather than multiple fractures.

      Osteogenesis imperfecta, also known as brittle bone disease, is a group of disorders that affect collagen metabolism, leading to bone fragility and fractures. The most common type of osteogenesis imperfecta is type 1, which is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner and is caused by a decrease in the synthesis of pro-alpha 1 or pro-alpha 2 collagen polypeptides. This condition typically presents in childhood and is characterized by fractures that occur following minor trauma, as well as blue sclera, dental imperfections, and deafness due to otosclerosis.

      When investigating osteogenesis imperfecta, it is important to note that adjusted calcium, phosphate, parathyroid hormone, and ALP results are usually normal. This condition can have a significant impact on a person’s quality of life, as it can lead to frequent fractures and other complications. However, with proper management and support, individuals with osteogenesis imperfecta can lead fulfilling lives.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 8 - A 55-year-old man visits his GP complaining of pain in his left knee....

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man visits his GP complaining of pain in his left knee. An x-ray reveals osteoarthritis. He has no significant medical history. What is the best course of action for managing his pain?

      Your Answer: Oral diclofenac with omeprazole

      Correct Answer: Oral paracetamol

      Explanation:

      For the treatment of osteoarthritis, the first-line medications are paracetamol and topical NSAIDs (if the affected area is the knee or hand). Oral NSAIDs should only be used as a second-line option due to their potential adverse effects.

      The Role of Glucosamine in Osteoarthritis Management

      Osteoarthritis (OA) is a common condition that affects the joints, causing pain and stiffness. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) published guidelines in 2014 on the management of OA, which includes non-pharmacological and pharmacological treatments. Glucosamine, a normal constituent of glycosaminoglycans in cartilage and synovial fluid, has been studied for its potential benefits in OA management.

      Several double-blind randomized controlled trials (RCTs) have reported significant short-term symptomatic benefits of glucosamine in knee OA, including reduced joint space narrowing and improved pain scores. However, more recent studies have produced mixed results. The 2008 NICE guidelines do not recommend the use of glucosamine, and a 2008 Drug and Therapeutics Bulletin review advised against prescribing it on the NHS due to limited evidence of cost-effectiveness.

      Despite the conflicting evidence, some patients may still choose to use glucosamine as a complementary therapy for OA management. It is important for healthcare professionals to discuss the potential benefits and risks of glucosamine with their patients and to consider individual patient preferences and circumstances.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 9 - A 28-year-old male patient visits the GP complaining of hip and back pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male patient visits the GP complaining of hip and back pain that has persisted for several months. He reports experiencing stiffness and pain lasting approximately 45 minutes in the mornings, which improves with activity. During the systemic inquiry, he mentions having long-standing pain on the posterior aspect of his left foot and intermittent blurry vision and pain in his right eye, particularly when using electronic devices.

      What are the probable examination findings for the chest and spine?

      Your Answer: Normal chest expansion, normal lateral flexion, normal forward flexion

      Correct Answer: Reduced chest expansion, reduced lateral flexion, reduced forward flexion

      Explanation:

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of inflammatory arthritis that can cause reduced joint movement, particularly in the spine and sacroiliac joints. This patient’s symptoms, including heel pain (Achilles tendonitis) and painful/blurry vision (anterior uveitis), are also associated with ankylosing spondylitis. During examination, it is likely that reduced chest expansion, lateral flexion, and forward flexion of the spine will be observed due to the decreased flexibility caused by the condition. Therefore, the correct option is reduced chest expansion, reduced lateral flexion, and reduced forward flexion of the spine. The other options featuring normal or increased movement are incorrect as ankylosing spondylitis typically causes reduced joint mobility.

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in young males, with a sex ratio of 3:1, and typically presents with lower back pain and stiffness that develops gradually. The stiffness is usually worse in the morning and improves with exercise, while pain at night may improve upon getting up. Clinical examination may reveal reduced lateral and forward flexion, as well as reduced chest expansion. Other features associated with ankylosing spondylitis include apical fibrosis, anterior uveitis, aortic regurgitation, Achilles tendonitis, AV node block, amyloidosis, cauda equina syndrome, and peripheral arthritis (more common in females).

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 10 - A 28-year-old man visits his GP complaining of painful knee and ankle joints....

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man visits his GP complaining of painful knee and ankle joints. He reports feeling unwell, fatigued, and feverish after returning from a trip to Thailand three weeks ago, during which he experienced severe diarrhea. The doctor suspects reactive arthritis. What other physical indication during the examination may support this suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dactylitis

      Explanation:

      Reactive arthritis is linked to dactylitis as a clinical sign.

      In the case of a man experiencing joint pain in his lower limbs after a gastrointestinal infection, reactive arthritis is a likely cause. The question is asking for the associated clinical sign, which is dactylitis. This condition is commonly caused by spondyloarthropathies like reactive and psoriatic arthritis. On the other hand, a Z-thumb deformity is related to rheumatoid arthritis, while leukonychia is caused by hypoalbuminemia. Clubbing, on the other hand, can be caused by various factors such as congenital heart defects and different types of cancer.

      Understanding Dactylitis: Inflammation of Fingers and Toes

      Dactylitis is a medical condition that refers to the inflammation of a digit, which can be a finger or a toe. This condition can be caused by various factors, including spondyloarthritis, which includes reactive and psoriatic arthritis. Other causes of dactylitis include sickle-cell disease, tuberculosis, sarcoidosis, and syphilis, although these are rare.

      Dactylitis can cause swelling, pain, and stiffness in the affected digit, which can make it difficult to perform daily activities. Treatment for dactylitis depends on the underlying cause and may include medication, physical therapy, or surgery in severe cases. With proper diagnosis and treatment, most people with dactylitis can manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 11 - What type of complement deficiency is linked to the onset of systemic lupus...

    Correct

    • What type of complement deficiency is linked to the onset of systemic lupus erythematosus?

      Your Answer: C4

      Explanation:

      During active systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), complement levels are typically reduced and can be utilized to track disease flares. Studies have demonstrated that decreased levels of C4a and C4b are linked to a higher likelihood of developing SLE.

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive, making it useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%), but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%), but only 30% of SLE patients test positive. Other antibody tests include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).

      Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, but a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Proper monitoring of SLE is crucial for effective management of the disease.

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  • Question 12 - A 65-year-old woman who has been on long-term prednisolone for polymyalgia rheumatica complains...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman who has been on long-term prednisolone for polymyalgia rheumatica complains of increasing pain in her right hip joint. During examination, she experiences pain in all directions, but there is no indication of limb shortening or external rotation. An X-ray of the hip reveals microfractures and osteopenia. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Correct Answer: Avascular necrosis of the femoral head

      Explanation:

      The development of avascular necrosis of the femoral head is strongly associated with long-term steroid use, as seen in this patient who is taking prednisolone for polymyalgia rheumatica.

      Understanding Avascular Necrosis of the Hip

      Avascular necrosis of the hip is a condition where bone tissue dies due to a loss of blood supply, leading to bone destruction and loss of joint function. This condition typically affects the epiphysis of long bones, such as the femur. There are several causes of avascular necrosis, including long-term steroid use, chemotherapy, alcohol excess, and trauma.

      Initially, avascular necrosis may not present with any symptoms, but as the condition progresses, pain in the affected joint may occur. Plain x-ray findings may be normal in the early stages, but osteopenia and microfractures may be seen. As the condition worsens, collapse of the articular surface may result in the crescent sign.

      MRI is the preferred investigation for avascular necrosis as it is more sensitive than radionuclide bone scanning. In severe cases, joint replacement may be necessary to manage the condition. Understanding the causes, features, and management of avascular necrosis of the hip is crucial for early detection and effective treatment.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 13 - A 62-year-old man visits the outpatient department for a review of his osteoporosis,...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old man visits the outpatient department for a review of his osteoporosis, where he is booked in for a DEXA scan. His T-score from his scan is recorded as -2.0, indicating decreased bone mineral density. What patient factors are necessary to calculate his Z-score?

      Your Answer: Age, gender, ethnicity

      Explanation:

      When interpreting DEXA scan results, it is important to consider the patient’s age, gender, and ethnicity. The Z-score is adjusted for these factors and provides a comparison of the patient’s bone density to that of an average person of the same age, sex, and race. Meanwhile, the T-score compares the patient’s bone density to that of a healthy 30-year-old of the same sex. It is worth noting that ethnicity can impact bone mineral density, with some studies indicating that Black individuals tend to have higher BMD than White and Hispanic individuals.

      Osteoporosis is a condition that affects bone density and can lead to fractures. To diagnose osteoporosis, doctors use a DEXA scan, which measures bone mass. The results are compared to a young reference population, and a T score is calculated. A T score of -1.0 or higher is considered normal, while a score between -1.0 and -2.5 indicates osteopaenia, and a score below -2.5 indicates osteoporosis. The Z score is also calculated, taking into account age, gender, and ethnicity.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 14 - A 68-year-old woman visits her GP for a wound check, one week after...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman visits her GP for a wound check, one week after undergoing a total knee replacement surgery. Despite a smooth recovery and increased mobility, she complains of difficulty in dorsiflexing her foot while walking. Based on this information, which structure is most likely to have been affected during the TKA procedure?

      Your Answer: Tibialis anterior

      Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      Joint Replacement for Osteoarthritis

      Joint replacement, also known as arthroplasty, is the most effective treatment for patients with osteoarthritis who experience significant pain. Around 25% of patients are now younger than 60 years old, and while obesity is often thought to be a barrier to joint replacement, there is only a slight increase in short-term complications. There is no difference in long-term joint replacement survival.

      For hips, the most common type of operation is a cemented hip replacement, where a metal femoral component is cemented into the femoral shaft, accompanied by a cemented acetabular polyethylene cup. However, uncemented hip replacements are becoming increasingly popular, particularly in younger and more active patients, despite being more expensive than conventional cemented hip replacements. Hip resurfacing is also sometimes used, where a metal cap is attached over the femoral head, often in younger patients, and has the advantage of preserving the femoral neck, which may be useful if conventional arthroplasty is needed later in life.

      Post-operative recovery involves both physiotherapy and a course of home-exercises. Walking sticks or crutches are usually used for up to 6 weeks after hip or knee replacement surgery. Patients who have had a hip replacement operation should receive basic advice to minimize the risk of dislocation, such as avoiding flexing the hip more than 90 degrees, avoiding low chairs, not crossing their legs, and sleeping on their back for the first 6 weeks.

      Complications of joint replacement surgery include wound and joint infection, thromboembolism, and dislocation. NICE recommends that patients receive low-molecular weight heparin for 4 weeks following a hip replacement to reduce the risk of thromboembolism.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 15 - A 50-year-old woman comes to the Rheumatology clinic for evaluation. She complains of...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to the Rheumatology clinic for evaluation. She complains of experiencing arthralgia and swelling in the MCP joints of both hands for the past six months. Upon examination, boggy swelling is observed in the third, fourth, and fifth MCP joints bilaterally, along with erythema and mild tenderness upon palpation. No significant deformities are noted, and she has normal motor function and range of motion in both hands. The following are the results of her investigations:
      Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (CCP) antibody titre 48U (<20)
      What are the most probable X-ray findings for this patient's hands?

      Your Answer: Peri-articular erosions

      Correct Answer: Juxta-articular osteopaenia

      Explanation:

      Juxta-articular osteopenia is an early X-ray finding commonly associated with rheumatoid arthritis. This is likely the case for the patient in question, who presents with symmetrical arthropathy affecting multiple hand joints and a positive anti-CCP titre. Joint subluxation is an unlikely finding on initial X-rays at the time of diagnosis, and peri-articular erosions and subchondral cysts are typically seen in progressive disease rather than at the early stages.

      X-Ray Changes in Rheumatoid Arthritis

      Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the joints, causing pain, stiffness, and swelling. X-ray imaging is often used to diagnose and monitor the progression of the disease. Early x-ray findings in rheumatoid arthritis include a loss of joint space, juxta-articular osteoporosis, and soft-tissue swelling. These changes indicate that the joint is being damaged and that the bones are losing density.

      As the disease progresses, late x-ray findings may include periarticular erosions and subluxation. Periarticular erosions are areas of bone loss around the joint, while subluxation refers to the partial dislocation of the joint. These changes can lead to deformities and functional impairment.

      It is important to note that x-ray findings may not always correlate with the severity of symptoms in rheumatoid arthritis. Some patients may have significant joint damage on x-ray but experience minimal pain, while others may have severe pain despite minimal x-ray changes. Therefore, x-ray imaging should be used in conjunction with other clinical assessments to determine the best course of treatment for each individual patient.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 16 - A 65-year-old woman with breast cancer and bony metastases has been admitted to...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman with breast cancer and bony metastases has been admitted to your ward following a vertebral fracture sustained while twisting in her car seat. The orthopaedic team is managing this conservatively. She has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, chronic kidney disease stage 4, and gastro-oesophageal reflux disease. Currently, she is taking amlodipine and omeprazole. She previously took alendronic acid but stopped due to severe reflux. What is the most appropriate treatment to initiate?

      Your Answer: Denosumab

      Explanation:

      To prevent pathological fractures in bone metastases, bisphosphonates and denosumab are viable options. However, if the patient’s eGFR is less than 30, denosumab is the preferred choice. Alendronic acid should be avoided due to the patient’s history of severe reflux during previous use. Denosumab is a novel treatment for osteoporosis that inhibits the development of osteoclasts by blocking RANKL. It is administered via subcutaneous injection and is also effective in preventing skeletal-related events in adults with bone metastases from solid tumors. Cinacalcet is not indicated for the management of osteoporosis or pathological fractures, but rather for hyperparathyroidism and hypercalcemia in parathyroid carcinoma. Hormone-replacement therapy (HRT) is not recommended for the treatment of osteoporosis in older postmenopausal women due to its unfavorable risk-benefit ratio.

      Denosumab: A New Treatment for Osteoporosis

      Denosumab is a human monoclonal antibody that inhibits the development of osteoclasts, which are responsible for breaking down bone tissue. It is administered as a subcutaneous injection every six months at a dose of 60mg. A larger dose of 120mg may be given every four weeks to prevent skeletal-related events in adults with bone metastases from solid tumors.

      When it comes to managing osteoporosis, oral bisphosphonates are still the first-line treatment, with alendronate being the preferred option. If alendronate is not tolerated, an alternative bisphosphonate such as risedronate or etidronate may be used. Next-line medications are only started if certain T score and other risk factor criteria are met. Raloxifene and strontium ranelate were previously recommended as next-line drugs, but due to safety concerns regarding strontium ranelate, denosumab is becoming increasingly popular.

      Denosumab is generally well-tolerated, with dyspnea and diarrhea being the most common side effects. However, doctors should be aware of the potential for atypical femoral fractures in patients taking denosumab and should look out for patients complaining of unusual thigh, hip, or groin pain.

      Overall, denosumab is a promising new treatment for osteoporosis that may be particularly useful for patients who cannot tolerate oral bisphosphonates or who have other risk factors that make them unsuitable for these medications.

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  • Question 17 - A 82-year-old man experiences a mechanical fall resulting in a pertrochanteric hip fracture....

    Incorrect

    • A 82-year-old man experiences a mechanical fall resulting in a pertrochanteric hip fracture. The fracture is treated with a dynamic hip screw (DHS). The physiotherapist on the ward asks for clarification on the patient's weight bearing status.

      What guidance would you provide?

      Your Answer: Partial weight bearing first 48 hours

      Correct Answer: Full weight bearing immediately post-op

      Explanation:

      Hip fracture surgery aims to enable immediate weight bearing to reduce complications associated with immobility. The BOA recommends unrestricted weight bearing to shorten hospital stays and improve patient compliance. The dynamic hip screw requires weight bearing for proper compression of the fracture site.

      Hip fractures are a common occurrence, particularly in elderly women with osteoporosis. The femoral head’s blood supply runs up the neck, making avascular necrosis a potential risk in displaced fractures. Symptoms of a hip fracture include pain and a shortened and externally rotated leg. Patients with non-displaced or incomplete neck of femur fractures may still be able to bear weight. Hip fractures can be classified as intracapsular or extracapsular, with the Garden system being a commonly used classification system. Blood supply disruption is most common in Types III and IV fractures.

      Intracapsular hip fractures can be treated with internal fixation or hemiarthroplasty if the patient is unfit. Displaced fractures are recommended for replacement arthroplasty, such as total hip replacement or hemiarthroplasty, according to NICE guidelines. Total hip replacement is preferred over hemiarthroplasty if the patient was able to walk independently outdoors with the use of a stick, is not cognitively impaired, and is medically fit for anesthesia and the procedure. Extracapsular hip fractures can be managed with a dynamic hip screw for stable intertrochanteric fractures or an intramedullary device for reverse oblique, transverse, or subtrochanteric fractures.

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  • Question 18 - A 67-year-old man presents to secondary care for a routine follow-up. He is...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man presents to secondary care for a routine follow-up. He is asymptomatic. Routine blood tests reveal the following:
      Calcium 3.1 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
      Phosphate 0.3 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
      Parathyroid hormone (PTH) 11.8 pmol/L (1.6 - 6.9)
      Magnesium 0.9 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
      Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 3.2 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
      Free thyroxine (T4) 17 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
      What is the patient's most likely risk factor for developing a condition?

      Your Answer: Pseudogout

      Explanation:

      Primary hyperparathyroidism is often asymptomatic and can be detected through routine blood tests that show raised calcium, low phosphate, and raised parathyroid hormone levels. This condition is a known risk factor for the development of pseudogout or calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate deposition (CPPD) and chondrocalcinosis. However, there is no evidence to suggest an increased risk of gallstones. On the other hand, hyperparathyroidism can increase the risk of renal stones due to elevated serum and urinary calcium levels. Hypoparathyroidism, not hyperparathyroidism, is associated with ectopic soft tissue calcifications. Prolonged hypocalcaemia can increase the risk of cataracts, while hypercalcaemia can lead to corneal calcification. Primary hyperparathyroidism can also increase the risk of osteoporosis, osteitis fibrosa cystica, and pathological fractures, but it is not associated with osteopetrosis.

      Pseudogout, also known as acute calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition disease, is a type of microcrystal synovitis that occurs when calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals are deposited in the synovium. This condition is more common in older individuals, but those under 60 years of age may develop it if they have underlying risk factors such as haemochromatosis, hyperparathyroidism, low magnesium or phosphate levels, acromegaly, or Wilson’s disease. The knee, wrist, and shoulders are the most commonly affected joints, and joint aspiration may reveal weakly-positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals. X-rays may show chondrocalcinosis, which appears as linear calcifications of the meniscus and articular cartilage in the knee. Treatment involves joint fluid aspiration to rule out septic arthritis, as well as the use of NSAIDs or steroids, as with gout.

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  • Question 19 - A 56-year-old man visits his GP due to hip discomfort. He reports that...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man visits his GP due to hip discomfort. He reports that it has been gradually worsening for the past three months. The pain is constant throughout the day and night, but it is most severe when he puts weight on it. He denies experiencing any morning stiffness. He has attempted to alleviate the pain with paracetamol and ibuprofen, but to no avail. The patient's medical history includes active Crohn's disease, which is being treated with corticosteroids. During the examination, there is tenderness when palpating the anterior groin area, but the range of passive motion is normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Correct Answer: Avascular necrosis of the hip

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for the patient in the vignette is avascular necrosis of the hip, which is a significant risk for those who use steroids long-term. The patient has been experiencing worsening hip pain over a few months, which is exacerbated by use and does not have morning stiffness. The location of the pain in the anterior groin region is characteristic of avascular necrosis of the hip. Greater trochanteric pain syndrome and iliotibial band syndrome are unlikely diagnoses as they present with pain in different locations and have different exacerbating factors.

      Understanding Avascular Necrosis of the Hip

      Avascular necrosis of the hip is a condition where bone tissue dies due to a loss of blood supply, leading to bone destruction and loss of joint function. This condition typically affects the epiphysis of long bones, such as the femur. There are several causes of avascular necrosis, including long-term steroid use, chemotherapy, alcohol excess, and trauma.

      Initially, avascular necrosis may not present with any symptoms, but as the condition progresses, pain in the affected joint may occur. Plain x-ray findings may be normal in the early stages, but osteopenia and microfractures may be seen. As the condition worsens, collapse of the articular surface may result in the crescent sign.

      MRI is the preferred investigation for avascular necrosis as it is more sensitive than radionuclide bone scanning. In severe cases, joint replacement may be necessary to manage the condition. Understanding the causes, features, and management of avascular necrosis of the hip is crucial for early detection and effective treatment.

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  • Question 20 - A 28-year-old male visits the GP clinic complaining of lower back pain that...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old male visits the GP clinic complaining of lower back pain that radiates to his buttocks for the past 5 months. The pain is most severe in the morning, improves with exercise, and sometimes wakes him up in the early hours of the morning. A radiograph is requested, which reveals sacroiliitis. What other radiograph findings are probable in this patient?

      Your Answer: Subchondral erosions, sclerosis and squaring of lumbar vertebrae

      Explanation:

      The x-ray findings that are commonly seen in ankylosing spondylitis include subchondral erosions, sclerosis, and squaring of lumbar vertebrae. These findings are indicative of the patient’s symptoms of inflammatory joint pain, which is most likely caused by ankylosing spondylitis given their age, gender, and nature of pain. Sacroiliitis on x-ray can confirm the diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis.

      Juxta-articular osteopenia, subchondral cysts, and squaring of lumbar vertebrae are incorrect as they are not commonly seen in ankylosing spondylitis. Juxta-articular osteopenia is more commonly associated with rheumatoid arthritis, while subchondral cysts and osteophyte formation at joint margins are more common in osteoarthritis.

      Subchondral sclerosis and osteophyte formation at joint margins are also incorrect as they are more commonly seen in osteoarthritis. Periarticular erosions are more commonly associated with rheumatoid arthritis and are therefore unlikely to be seen on this patient’s x-ray.

      Investigating and Managing Ankylosing Spondylitis

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in males aged 20-30 years old. Inflammatory markers such as ESR and CRP are usually elevated, but normal levels do not necessarily rule out ankylosing spondylitis. HLA-B27 is not a reliable diagnostic tool as it can also be positive in normal individuals. The most effective way to diagnose ankylosing spondylitis is through a plain x-ray of the sacroiliac joints. However, if the x-ray is negative but suspicion for AS remains high, an MRI can be obtained to confirm the diagnosis.

      Management of ankylosing spondylitis involves regular exercise, such as swimming, and the use of NSAIDs as the first-line treatment. Physiotherapy can also be helpful. Disease-modifying drugs used for rheumatoid arthritis, such as sulphasalazine, are only useful if there is peripheral joint involvement. Anti-TNF therapy, such as etanercept and adalimumab, should be given to patients with persistently high disease activity despite conventional treatments, according to the 2010 EULAR guidelines. Ongoing research is being conducted to determine whether anti-TNF therapies should be used earlier in the course of the disease. Spirometry may show a restrictive defect due to a combination of pulmonary fibrosis, kyphosis, and ankylosis of the costovertebral joints.

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