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  • Question 1 - Which of the following allows for a diagnose of diabetes mellitus? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following allows for a diagnose of diabetes mellitus?

      Your Answer: Symptomatic patient with random glucose 12.0 mmol/L on one occasion

      Explanation:

      Criteria for the diagnosis of diabetes

      1. A1C ≥6.5%. The test should be performed in a laboratory using a method that is certified and standardized.*
      OR
      2. Fasting glucose ≥126 mg/dl (7.0 mmol/l). Fasting is defined as no caloric intake for at least 8 h.*
      OR
      3. 2-h plasma glucose ≥200 mg/dl (11.1 mmol/l) during an OGTT. The test should be performed as described by the World Health Organization, using a glucose load containing the equivalent of 75 g anhydrous glucose dissolved in water.*
      OR
      4. In a patient with classic symptoms of hyperglycaemia or hyperglycaemic crisis, a random plasma glucose ≥200 mg/dl (11.1 mmol/l).
      *In the absence of unequivocal hyperglycaemia, criteria 1–3 should be confirmed by repeat testing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Following a head injury, a 22-year-old patient develops polyuria and polydipsia. He is...

    Correct

    • Following a head injury, a 22-year-old patient develops polyuria and polydipsia. He is suspected to have cranial diabetes insipidus so he undergoes a water deprivation test. Which one of the following responses would most indicate a positive (abnormal) result?

      Your Answer: Failure to concentrate the urine during water deprivation, but achievement of urine osmolality of 720 mmol/kg following the administration of desmopressin

      Explanation:

      The water deprivation test (i.e., the Miller-Moses test), is a semiquantitative test to ensure adequate dehydration and maximal stimulation of ADH for diagnosis. It is typically performed in patients with more chronic forms of Diabetes Insipidus (DI). The extent of deprivation is usually limited by the patient’s thirst or by any significant drop in blood pressure or related clinical manifestation of dehydration.

      In healthy individuals, water deprivation leads to a urinary osmolality that is 2-4 times greater than plasma osmolality. Additionally, in normal, healthy subjects, administration of ADH produces an increase of less than 9% in urinary osmolality. The time required to achieve maximal urinary concentration ranges from 4-18 hours.

      In central and nephrogenic DI, urinary osmolality will be less than 300 mOsm/kg after water deprivation. After the administration of ADH, the osmolality will rise to more than 750 mOsm/kg in central DI but will not rise at all in nephrogenic DI. In primary polydipsia, urinary osmolality will be above 750 mOsm/kg after water deprivation.
      A urinary osmolality that is 300-750 mOsm/kg after water deprivation and remains below 750 mOsm/kg after administration of ADH may be seen in partial central DI, partial nephrogenic DI, and primary polydipsia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 60-year-old man known to have type 2 diabetes comes for regular follow...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man known to have type 2 diabetes comes for regular follow up. He is on metformin 2 g per day and gliclazide 160 mg per day. His recent HbA1c was 8.4% and his blood pressure was 140/75 mmHg. Eye examination reveals dot and blot haemorrhages and microaneurysms. None are close to the macula. Which of the following defines his eye condition?

      Your Answer: Background diabetic retinopathy

      Explanation:

      Patients with diabetes often develop ophthalmic complications, the most common and potentially most blinding of these complications is diabetic retinopathy.
      The following are the 5 stages in the progression of diabetic retinopathy:
      1. Dilation of the retinal venules and formation of retinal capillary microaneurysms.
      2. Increased vascular permeability.
      3. Vascular occlusion and retinal ischemia.
      4. Proliferation of new blood vessels on the surface of the retina.
      5. Vitreous haemorrhage and contraction of the fibrovascular proliferation.
      The first 2 stages of diabetic retinopathy are known as background or nonproliferative retinopathy. Initially, the retinal venules dilate, then microaneurysms (tiny red dots on the retina that cause no visual impairment) appear. As the microaneurysms or retinal capillaries become more permeable, hard exudates appear, reflecting the leakage of plasma.

      Mild nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR) or background diabetic retinopathy is indicated by the presence of at least 1 microaneurysm, while neovascularization is the hallmark of Proliferative Diabetic Retinopathy (PDR).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 55-year-old man with a three-year history of type 2 diabetes comes to...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man with a three-year history of type 2 diabetes comes to the clinic for review. He is currently managed with metformin 1 g BD and feels that his home blood glucose monitoring has deteriorated over the past few months. There is a history of hypertension and dyslipidaemia for which he takes Ramipril 10 mg daily and atorvastatin 20 mg. On examination, his BP is 155/82 mmHg, his pulse is 71 and regular. His chest is clear. His BMI is 32. Investigations show: Haemoglobin 12.9 g/dl (13.5 – 17.7), White cell count 5.0 x109/l (4 – 11), Platelets 180 x109/l (150 – 400), Sodium 140 mmol/l (135 – 146), Potassium 5.0 mmol/l (3.5 – 5), Creatinine 123 mmol/l (79 – 118), HbA1c 8.0% (<7.0). He would like to start sitagliptin. Which of the following adverse effects would you warn him about?

      Your Answer: Pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      Sitagliptin-induced pancreatitis can occur at any time after the initiation of therapy, even after several years. Patients taking sitagliptin who present with signs and symptoms of mild or severe pancreatitis should immediately discontinue sitagliptin and use an alternate medication regimen for control of type 2 diabetes.
      In response to pancreatitis reported in post-marketing surveillance through the Adverse Event Reporting System (AERS), the FDA has issued revised prescribing information for sitagliptin stating that cases of acute pancreatitis have been reported with use, to monitor closely for signs and symptoms of pancreatitis, and to use sitagliptin with caution in patients with a history of pancreatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 44-year-old woman is investigated for hot flushes and night sweats. Her blood...

    Correct

    • A 44-year-old woman is investigated for hot flushes and night sweats. Her blood tests show a significantly raised FSH level and her symptoms are attributed to menopause. Following discussions with the patient, she elects to have hormone replacement treatment. What is the most significant risk of prescribing an oestrogen-only preparation rather than a combined oestrogen-progestogen preparation?

      Your Answer: Increased risk of endometrial cancer

      Explanation:

      The use of hormone replacement therapy (HRT) based on unopposed oestrogen increases the risk of endometrial cancer, and uterine hyperplasia or cancer.
      Evidence from randomized controlled studies showed a definite association between HRT and uterine hyperplasia and cancer. HRT based on unopposed oestrogen is associated with this observed risk, which is unlike the increased risk of breast cancer linked with combined rather than unopposed HRT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - All of the following statements regarding glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) are true, except? ...

    Correct

    • All of the following statements regarding glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) are true, except?

      Your Answer: Increased levels are seen in type 2 diabetes mellitus

      Explanation:

      Glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1) is a 30-amino acid peptide hormone produced in the intestinal epithelial endocrine L-cells by differential processing of proglucagon. GLP-1 is released in response to meal intake.
      The main actions of GLP-1 are to stimulate insulin secretion (i.e., to act as an incretin hormone) and to inhibit glucagon secretion, thereby contributing to limit postprandial glucose excursions. It also inhibits gastrointestinal motility and secretion and thus acts as an enterogastrone and part of the ileal brake mechanism. GLP-1 also appears to be a physiological regulator of appetite and food intake.
      Decreased secretion of GLP-1 may contribute to the development of obesity, and exaggerated secretion may be responsible for postprandial reactive hypoglycaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 13-year-old boy is brought to your clinic with a complaint of delayed...

    Correct

    • A 13-year-old boy is brought to your clinic with a complaint of delayed puberty. While examining the patient which of the following features is most likely to indicate that pubertal change may have commenced?

      Your Answer: Increase in testicular volume

      Explanation:

      In boys, the first manifestation of puberty is testicular enlargement; the normal age for initial signs of puberty is 9 to 14 years in males. Pubic hair in boys generally appears 18 to 24 months after the onset of testicular growth and is often conceived as the initial marker of sexual maturation by male adolescents.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      2.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 23-year-old woman presents with hirsutism and oligomenorrhea for the last five years....

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old woman presents with hirsutism and oligomenorrhea for the last five years. She is very anxious about her irregular menses and worried as her mother was diagnosed with uterine cancer recently. She is a lawyer and does not want to conceive, at least for the next couple of years. The examination is essentially normal except for coarse dark hair being noticed under her chin and over her lower back. Investigations done during the follicular phase: Serum androstenedione 10.1 nmol/l (0.6-8.8), Serum dehydroepiandrosterone sulphate 11.6 ىmol/l (2-10), Serum 17-hydroxyprogesterone 5.6 nmol/l (1-10), Serum oestradiol 220 pmol/l (200-400), Serum testosterone 3.6 nmol/l (0.5-3), Serum sex hormone binding protein 32 nmol/l (40-137), Plasma luteinising hormone 3.3 U/l (2.5-10), Plasma follicle-stimulating hormone 3.6 U/l (2.5-10). What is the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Combined OCP

      Explanation:

      This patient has polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). Medical management of PCOS is aimed at the treatment of metabolic derangements, anovulation, hirsutism, and menstrual irregularity.
      First-line medical therapy usually consists of an oral contraceptive to induce regular menses. The contraceptive not only inhibits ovarian androgen production but also increases sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG) production. The American College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (ACOG) recommends the use of combination low-dose hormonal contraceptive agents for long-term management of menstrual dysfunction.
      If symptoms such as hirsutism are not sufficiently alleviated, an androgen-blocking agent may be added. Pregnancy should be excluded before therapy with oral contraceptives or androgen-blocking agents are started.
      First-line treatment for ovulation induction when fertility is desired is clomiphene citrate. Second-line strategies may be equally effective in infertile women with clomiphene citrate–resistant PCOS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Primary hyperaldosteronism is characterized by which of the following features? ...

    Correct

    • Primary hyperaldosteronism is characterized by which of the following features?

      Your Answer: Muscular weakness

      Explanation:

      Primary hyperaldosteronism, also known as Conn’s Syndrome, is one of the most common causes of secondary hypertension (HTN).
      The common clinical scenarios in which the possibility of primary hyperaldosteronism should be considered include the following:
      – Patients with spontaneous or unprovoked hypokalaemia, especially if the patient is also hypertensive
      – Patients who develop severe and/or persistent hypokalaemia in the setting of low to moderate doses of potassium-wasting diuretics
      – Patients with treatment-refractory/-resistant hypertension (HTN)
      Patients with severe hypokalaemia report fatigue, muscle weakness, cramping, headaches, and palpitations. They can also have polydipsia and polyuria from hypokalaemia-induced nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Long-standing HTN may lead to cardiac, retinal, renal, and neurologic problems, with all the associated symptoms and signs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      1.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 14-year-old girl presents with primary amenorrhoea. She is an athlete who is...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl presents with primary amenorrhoea. She is an athlete who is currently training for a national athletics championship. What is the best treatment option for her?

      Your Answer: Adequate diet and observation

      Explanation:

      Intensive physical training and participation in competitive sports during childhood and early adolescence may affect athletes’ pubertal development.
      Female athletes who do not begin secondary sexual development by the age of 14 or menstruation by the age of 16 warrant a comprehensive evaluation and treatment.
      Since she is still 14, adequate diet and observation are enough.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      1.4
      Seconds

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Endocrinology (10/10) 100%
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