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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents to the Cardiology Clinic with worsening shortness of breath on exertion over the past year. He denies any history of wheezing and has not responded to a trial of albuterol inhalers. Upon further questioning, he reports intermittent chest pain during exertion and has experienced near-fainting episodes in the last month. On examination, his blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg and his pulse is 80 bpm. His BMI is 25kg/m2. He has a raised JVP with giant v-waves and a left parasternal heave. An ECG shows sinus rhythm with right axis deviation.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Chronic pulmonary emboli
Correct Answer: Idiopathic pulmonary artery hypertension (IPAH)
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Young Patient with Pulmonary Hypertension
Idiopathic pulmonary artery hypertension (IPAH), previously known as primarily pulmonary hypertension (PPH), is a rare condition characterized by elevated pulmonary artery pressure without a clear cause. A typical presentation for IPAH includes syncope and ECG findings of right ventricular hypertrophy. Treatment typically involves calcium channel blockers, anticoagulation, and nebulized prostacyclin.
Ischemic heart disease is unlikely in a young patient with no significant risk factors for coronary artery disease, despite intermittent chest pain on exertion. Chronic pulmonary emboli can lead to chronic pulmonary hypertension, but there are no risk factors for venous thromboembolism or DVT symptoms described. Loeffler syndrome, characterized by acute onset pulmonary eosinophilia, typically occurs secondary to an external trigger, which is not evident in this case. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) can cause significant breathlessness, but the ECG shows no features to suggest significant left ventricular hypertrophy, which would be expected if HCM was the underlying diagnosis.
In summary, the differential diagnosis for a young patient with pulmonary hypertension includes IPAH, but other conditions such as ischemic heart disease, chronic pulmonary emboli, Loeffler syndrome, and HCM should also be considered and ruled out.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after a road traffic accident where she sustains multiple injuries including an open fracture of her left tibia and fibula. The following day she has an open reduction and internal fixation of the left tibia and fibula and remains in hospital for physiotherapy. She is quite immobile during this period and then develops subsequent painful swelling and erythema of the left calf. Subsequent ultrasonography confirms a left-sided above knee deep vein thrombosis.
Before treatment starts, she develops sudden onset weakness in her right leg and right arm, dysarthric speech and a reduction in conscious level. Subsequent CT scanning confirms the presence of a left-sided infarct in the middle cerebral artery territory. Doppler investigation of the carotids shows a 20% stenosis on the left side and 10% on the right side. The 24-hour tape shows average heart rate 52 bpm with 1.5s pauses maximum, sinus bradycardia.
What feature from further investigations would best explain this woman's presentation, given that she is now 50 years old?Your Answer: Patent foramen ovale (PFO)
Explanation:PFOs have been associated with a higher likelihood of experiencing a stroke. Additionally, there is some indication that subclinical DVTs may contribute to cryptogenic stroke when combined with a PFO.
However, there is not enough evidence to suggest that closing a PFO will decrease the risk of stroke.
All of the options except for E are known to increase the risk of stroke, but they cannot explain how embolism occurs in individuals with normal carotids and sinus rhythm. E, on the other hand, is not linked to a greater likelihood of experiencing an embolic stroke.
Understanding Patent Foramen Ovale
Patent foramen ovale (PFO) is a condition that affects approximately 20% of the population. It is characterized by the presence of a small hole in the heart that may allow an embolus, such as one from deep vein thrombosis, to pass from the right side of the heart to the left side. This can lead to a stroke, which is known as a paradoxical embolus.
Aside from its association with stroke, PFO has also been linked to migraine. Studies have shown that some patients experience an improvement in their migraine symptoms after undergoing PFO closure.
The management of PFO in patients who have had a stroke is still a topic of debate. Treatment options include antiplatelet therapy, anticoagulant therapy, or PFO closure. It is important for patients with PFO to work closely with their healthcare provider to determine the best course of action for their individual needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 3
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A 65-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of breathlessness. She has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath for the past two weeks, with a significant decrease in her ability to exercise. She now finds that even walking a few steps leaves her feeling breathless, whereas previously she could walk to her local shops and back without issue. She is unable to lie down as it exacerbates her symptoms. Her medical history includes hypertension, a previous heart attack, and asthma.
Upon examination, her JVP is elevated, and there are bilateral crepitations on auscultation. Air entry is reduced in both lung bases, and percussion is dull. Her chest X-ray reveals evidence of pulmonary edema and bilateral pleural effusions. What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Treat medically with diuretics
Explanation:The appropriate course of action is to medically manage the patient with diuretics. Based on the patient’s history, physical examination, and imaging results, it is highly likely that her shortness of breath is caused by heart failure. The pleural effusions are probably transudates, and it is best to address the underlying cause before considering draining one or both of the effusions. If the patient’s acute heart failure exacerbation cannot be controlled with diuretics and nitrates, non-invasive ventilation may be necessary.
Heart failure requires acute management, with recommended treatments including IV loop diuretics such as furosemide or bumetanide. Oxygen may also be given in accordance with British Thoracic Society guidelines to maintain oxygen saturations between 94-98%. Vasodilators such as nitrates should not be routinely given to all patients, but may be considered for those with concomitant myocardial ischaemia, severe hypertension, or regurgitant aortic or mitral valve disease. However, hypotension is a major side-effect and contraindication.
For patients with respiratory failure, CPAP may be used. In cases of hypotension or cardiogenic shock, treatment can be challenging as loop diuretics and nitrates may exacerbate hypotension. Inotropic agents like dobutamine may be considered for patients with severe left ventricular dysfunction and potentially reversible cardiogenic shock. Vasopressor agents like norepinephrine are typically only used if there is insufficient response to inotropes and evidence of end-organ hypoperfusion. Mechanical circulatory assistance such as intra-aortic balloon counterpulsation or ventricular assist devices may also be used.
While opiates were previously used routinely to reduce dyspnoea/distress in patients, NICE now advises against routine use due to studies suggesting increased morbidity in patients given opiates. Regular medication for heart failure such as beta-blockers and ACE-inhibitors should be continued, with beta-blockers only stopped if the patient has a heart rate less than 50 beats per minute, second or third degree atrioventricular block, or shock.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 101-year-old man with a history of heart failure, amyloid disease, and a permanent pacemaker presents to the emergency department after experiencing a syncopal episode while watching TV. This is the third episode he has had in the past week. Upon examination, he has an irregular heart rate of 32 beats per minute, crepitations in his chest, and a raised JVP. His Na+, K+, urea, and creatinine levels are within normal range. An ECG shows p-waves present with no preceding QRS, and widened QRS complexes are seen. A chest x-ray reveals chronic lower zone changes, and the pacemaker leads have a necked appearance. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Twiddler's syndrome
Correct Answer: Lead fracture
Explanation:A possible indication of pacemaker lead failure is the appearance of a necked area on imaging. In the case of a patient with complete heart block and a pacemaker, the worsening of congestive heart failure with increased pulmonary or peripheral edema may indicate the progression of cardiomyopathy or a silent myocardial infarction. The presence of complete heart block also suggests that the pacemaker may not be functioning properly. In this particular case, the leads have a necked appearance, which can occur when the leads are repeatedly bent, causing them to weaken and eventually break. Although the chest x-ray may show the leads as intact, the necking indicates that the wires are starting to fray and may lose function before a complete fracture occurs. Chest x-ray may also reveal twiddling of the wires or lead displacement. This is a rare complication.
A permanent pacemaker (PPM) is a device that is implanted in the body to regulate the heartbeat. It is used in cases where the patient is experiencing persistent symptomatic bradycardia, such as in sick sinus syndrome, complete heart block, Mobitz type II AV block, or persistent AV block after a myocardial infarction. These conditions can cause the heart to beat too slowly or irregularly, which can lead to symptoms such as dizziness, fainting, and shortness of breath. A PPM helps to regulate the heartbeat and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man arrived at the Emergency department complaining of central crushing chest pain that had been ongoing for five hours. He had a medical history of type 2 diabetes, hypertension, and mixed dyslipidaemia. After three hours of chest pain, he began experiencing breathlessness.
Upon examination, his blood pressure was 105/70 mmHg and his pulse rate was 100 beats per minute. All peripheral pulses were present and equal. His jugular venous pressure was not visible, and he displayed signs of pulmonary oedema upon chest auscultation. His heart sounds were normal but relatively quiet.
An ECG revealed ST elevation in leads V1 to V6 of approximately 3 mm. A Swan-Ganz catheter was inserted, and the following pressure readings were obtained:
- Right atrial pressure: 10/5 mmHg
- Pulmonary artery pressure: 50/15 mmHg
- Right ventricular pressure: 52/5 mmHg
- Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure: 20/14/16/10 mmHg
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute left ventricular failure
Explanation:Diagnosis Post Anterior Myocardial Infarction
After an anterior myocardial infarction (MI), the most likely diagnosis is left heart failure, as indicated by clinical signs. However, there are no signs of right ventricular (RV) failure. The pressure data shows a raised pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) but normal right atrial pressure. The pulmonary and RV pressures are mildly elevated, which is consistent with the diagnosis of left heart failure. If there were a ventricular septal defect, the PCWP would be markedly elevated along with the RV pressure, but this is not the case here. There is no evidence to suggest the other two conditions.
Overall, the diagnosis post anterior myocardial infarction is likely to be left heart failure, which is supported by the raised PCWP and mildly elevated pulmonary and RV pressures. It is important to rule out other conditions such as RV failure and ventricular septal defect, which can have similar symptoms but require different treatment approaches. Proper diagnosis and management are crucial for improving patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with seven days of fever. She was previously seen six days ago and advised to return if the fever persisted. Despite taking paracetamol, there has been no improvement. She has no past medical history.
Observations:
Heart rate 88 beats per minute
Blood pressure 102/72 mmHg
Temperature 39.5C
During examination, her conjunctivae appear red. She has red, cracked lips and a 'strawberry tongue'. There is unilateral cervical lymphadenopathy. The palms of her hands and soles of her feet are red. The rest of the examination is unremarkable.
Urinalysis and a chest x-ray show no abnormalities.
Blood tests:
Hb 140 g/L Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 195 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 9.2 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Na+ 141 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4.1 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 4.9 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 72 µmol/L (55 - 120)
CRP 38 mg/L (< 5)
Bilirubin 12 µmol/L (3 - 17)
ALP 90 u/L (30 - 100)
ALT 60 u/L (3 - 40)
γGT 42 u/L (8 - 60)
Albumin 38 g/L (35 - 50)
Apart from aspirin, what other treatment has the strongest evidence for effectiveness in managing this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intravenous immunoglobulin
Explanation:Intravenous immunoglobulin is the appropriate treatment for the child’s condition, which is Kawasaki disease. This is a medium-vessel vasculitis that commonly affects children and can lead to the formation of coronary artery aneurysms. Along with aspirin, IVIG is administered to prevent this complication. Antibiotic treatment is not necessary as Kawasaki disease is an inflammatory rather than infective condition. Cyclophosphamide is not the first-line treatment for this condition due to its potential side effects, and corticosteroids may be considered as an adjunctive treatment in certain high-risk groups or in the presence of specific blood test abnormalities or cardiac involvement.
Understanding Kawasaki Disease
Kawasaki disease is a rare type of vasculitis that primarily affects children. It is important to identify this disease early on as it can lead to serious complications such as coronary artery aneurysms. The disease is characterized by a high-grade fever that lasts for more than five days, which is resistant to antipyretics. Other features include conjunctival injection, bright red, cracked lips, strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, and red palms and soles that later peel.
Diagnosis of Kawasaki disease is based on clinical presentation as there is no specific diagnostic test available. Management of the disease involves high-dose aspirin, which is one of the few indications for aspirin use in children. Intravenous immunoglobulin is also used as a treatment option. Echocardiogram is the initial screening test for coronary artery aneurysms instead of angiography.
Complications of Kawasaki disease include coronary artery aneurysm, which can be life-threatening. Early recognition and treatment of Kawasaki disease can prevent serious complications and improve outcomes for affected children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman presents to the hospital with a two-month history of increasing fatigue. She has a past medical history of stable exertional angina, but recently she has noticed that her episodes of angina occur with less physical exertion. Additionally, she has noticed swelling in her ankles. Ten years ago, she underwent an aortic valve replacement with a mechanical valve and two coronary artery vein grafts due to significant coronary artery disease. On examination, she appeared pale, had a pulse of 90/minute, and a BP of 185/100 mmHg. Investigations revealed abnormal levels of Hb, creatinine, and albumin. Which investigation would be most helpful in establishing the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bone marrow aspiration
Explanation:Diagnosis of Multiple Myeloma
The diagnosis of multiple myeloma is highly likely based on the patient’s test results. The level of globulin in the blood is significantly elevated, which indicates the presence of a paraprotein. This finding is consistent with multiple myeloma, a type of cancer that affects plasma cells in the bone marrow. The blood film also shows the presence of rouleaux formation, which is a characteristic feature of this disease. Additionally, the total protein level is elevated, primarily due to the increased globulin component. These findings suggest that the patient may have multiple myeloma and further diagnostic tests are necessary to confirm the diagnosis. Proper diagnosis and treatment are crucial for managing this condition and improving the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presents to the Cardiology Clinic with his daughter. She is very concerned because he fainted while walking to the kitchen. He reports feeling dizzy and then losing consciousness, falling to the ground. He was unresponsive for about 20-30 seconds and had some shaking movements. He has a history of high blood pressure and takes a daily dose of amlodipine 5 mg.
During the examination, his blood pressure is 160/95 mmHg, and the cardiovascular examination is unremarkable. Neurological examination is normal.
The following investigations were performed:
- Haemoglobin (Hb): 140 g/l (normal range: 130-170 g/l)
- White cell count (WCC): 6.2 × 109/l (normal range: 4.0-11.0 × 109/l)
- Platelets (PLT): 180 × 109/l (normal range: 150-400 × 109/l)
- Sodium (Na+): 142 mmol/l (normal range: 135-145 mmol/l)
- Potassium (K+): 4.2 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l)
- Creatinine (Cr): 120 µmol/l (normal range: 50-120 µmol/l)
- Resting electrocardiogram (ECG): Sinus rhythm, no significant abnormalities
- Chest X-ray (CXR): Mild cardiomegaly, no other significant findings
Which of the following investigations is most likely to reveal the underlying cause of his fainting episode?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-mitochondrial antibodies
Explanation:Primary biliary cholangitis (PBC) is a condition that affects middle-aged women and leads to the gradual destruction of intrahepatic bile ducts, resulting in fibrosis, cholestasis, and ultimately hepatic cirrhosis. Common symptoms include pruritis, fatigue, and elevated alkaline phosphatase. The most specific test for PBC is the presence of anti-mitochondrial antibodies, which are present in over 90% of cases. Myeloma screening is less likely to be positive in PBC patients, as myeloma is a disease of older adults characterized by bone pain, anemia, and kidney disease. Smooth muscle autoantibodies and antinuclear antibodies are associated with antibody-negative PBC or autoimmune cholangitis. Anti-liver kidney microsomes (LKM) antibody testing is useful in diagnosing autoimmune hepatitis, but a liver biopsy may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis. Bone marrow aspiration is not specific for the diagnosis of PBC. In conclusion, the presence of anti-mitochondrial antibodies is the most specific test for the diagnosis of PBC.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents to the Cardiology Clinic referred by his primary care physician. He has been experiencing progressive difficulty breathing for the past six months, and even minimal exertion now causes shortness of breath. He denies any chest pain, palpitations, or cough. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any medications. Despite seeing his primary care physician for the past few months, no abnormalities were detected in his full blood count, liver function tests, electrolytes, or chest X-ray.
During the examination, his blood pressure is 130/70 mmHg, his pulse is 90 bpm and regular. His jugular venous pressure is elevated to 6 cm, and there is a parasternal heave. The apex beat is in the 5th intercostal space at the mid-clavicular line. There is an increased pulmonary component of the second heart sound and tricuspid regurgitation. Blood tests and biochemistry are all within normal limits.
A chest X-ray reveals enlarged central pulmonary arteries and clear lung fields. An electrocardiogram shows right axis deviation, tall R waves in V1–V2, and right ventricular strain pattern.
An echocardiogram demonstrates tricuspid regurgitation, right ventricular enlargement, a reduction in left ventricular cavity size, and abnormal septal configuration consistent with right ventricular pressure overload.
Acute vasodilator testing yields a positive response.
What is the appropriate first-line medication for treating this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Calcium channel blockers
Explanation:Treatment Options for Primary Pulmonary Hypertension
Primary pulmonary hypertension (PPH) is a condition that can be caused by various factors such as obesity, portal hypertension, anorexigens, HIV, and systemic hypertension. Calcium channel blockers are the initial therapy of choice for PPH, but only in patients who show a response to vasodilator testing. However, only 10-15% of patients appear to have a pulmonary vascular tree responsive to calcium antagonism. Endothelin receptor antagonists, PDE-5 inhibitors, and prostacyclin are options for later-stage disease. Hydralazine is an option for treating patients with left ventricular dysfunction where ACE inhibitors are neither tolerated nor contraindicated. Beta-blockers have no impact on outcomes in primary pulmonary hypertension and should be avoided. ACE inhibitors have a primary role in the treatment of left ventricular dysfunction. Prostacyclin can be used in combination with endothelin receptor antagonists and PDE-5 inhibitors to impact both quality of life and survival time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old Afro-Caribbean female presents with a four-month history of fatigue, transient fever lasting hours, 12kg weight loss and non-specific bilateral headaches. She has presented to the Emergency Department four times in the past 3 months with non-specific abdominal pains that are worse after eating and also blue-lighted into her local hyperacute stroke unit as a thrombolysis patient after sudden onset loss of monocular blindness in her left eye, which resolved before any treatment was given. She has no other past medical history, does not smoke and drinks minimally.
On examination, cranial nerve examination and fundoscopy are both unremarkable. Upper and lower limb neurology are intact with downgoing plantars. Her heart sounds demonstrates a gallop rhythm, an early diastolic murmur and a mild radial-radial delay. Chest auscultation is clear. She appears very warm and measures 38.4ºC in your clinic with facial flushing. Blood tests are as follows:
Hb 94 g/l
Platelets 245 * 109/l
WBC 18.4 * 109/l
Eosinophil 0.1 * 109/l
ESR 121 mm/hr
Na+ 141 mmol/l
K+ 4.0 mmol/l
Urea 5.2 mmol/l
Creatinine 68 µmol/l
CRP 56 mg/l
Complement levels were reported as normal and an antibody screen including ANCA and ANA was negative. Urine dip is negative. Chest X-ray demonstrates focal consolidation. Her heart rate is 95 and regular, her blood pressure is 185/110 mmHg.
What is the underlying diagnosis that unifies all of these symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Takayasu arteritis
Explanation:The patient exhibits symptoms of a systemic condition, including fever, weight loss, abdominal pain, cerebral occlusion, elevated inflammatory markers, and hypertension with radial-radial delay. The potential diagnoses are PAN and Takayasu arteries, both types of vasculitis affecting medium-sized and large vessels. While ischaemic colitis is a common symptom of PAN, it is typically accompanied by positive ANCA, eosinophilia, peripheral neuropathy, or hepatitis B. The involvement of temporal arteries and the ascending aorta causing radial-radial delay further supports the possibility of these conditions.
Takayasu’s arteritis is a type of vasculitis that affects the large blood vessels, often leading to blockages in the aorta. This condition is more commonly seen in young women and Asian individuals. Symptoms may include malaise, headaches, unequal blood pressure in the arms, carotid bruits, absent or weak peripheral pulses, and claudication in the limbs during physical activity. Aortic regurgitation may also occur in around 20% of cases. Renal artery stenosis is a common association with this condition. To diagnose Takayasu’s arteritis, vascular imaging of the arterial tree is necessary, which can be done through magnetic resonance angiography or CT angiography. Treatment typically involves the use of steroids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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