-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A 5-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her parents. For the past two days, she has had severe diarrhea and vomiting. She has not passed urine so far today. She normally weighs 20 kg. On examination, she has sunken eyes and dry mucous membranes. She is tachycardic and tachypneic and has cool peripheries. Her capillary refill time is prolonged.
What is her estimated fluid loss?Your Answer: 2000 ml
Correct Answer: 3000 ml
Explanation:Generally speaking, if a child shows clinical signs of dehydration but does not exhibit shock, it can be assumed that they are 5% dehydrated. On the other hand, if shock is also present, it can be assumed that the child is 10% dehydrated or more. When a child is 5% dehydrated, it means that their body has lost 5 grams of fluid per 100 grams of body weight, which is equivalent to 50 ml of fluid per kilogram. In the case of 10% dehydration, the body has lost 100 ml of fluid per kilogram.
For example, if a child is 10% dehydrated and weighs 30 kilograms, their estimated fluid loss would be 100 ml/kg x 30 kg = 3000 ml.
The clinical features of dehydration and shock are summarized below:
Dehydration (5%):
– The child appears unwell
– Their heart rate may be normal or increased (tachycardia)
– Their respiratory rate may be normal or increased (tachypnea)
– Peripheral pulses are normal
– Capillary refill time (CRT) is normal or slightly prolonged
– Blood pressure is normal
– Extremities feel warm
– Urine output is decreased
– Skin turgor is reduced
– Eyes may appear sunken
– The fontanelle (soft spot on the baby’s head) may be depressed
– Mucous membranes are dryClinical shock (10%):
– The child appears pale, lethargic, and mottled
– Heart rate is increased (tachycardia)
– Respiratory rate is increased (tachypnea)
– Peripheral pulses are weak
– Capillary refill time (CRT) is prolonged
– Blood pressure is low (hypotension)
– Extremities feel cold
– Urine output is decreased
– Level of consciousness is decreased -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 60-year-old woman comes in sweating and in distress, complaining of abdominal discomfort and feeling nauseous. She has a history of excessive alcohol consumption and has just completed a weekend of heavy drinking. During the examination, there is significant tenderness in her abdomen, particularly in the upper middle area, and bruising is noticeable around her belly button and on the sides of her abdomen.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Acute pancreatitis
Explanation:Acute pancreatitis is a common and serious cause of acute abdominal pain. It occurs when the pancreas becomes inflamed, leading to the release of enzymes that cause self-digestion of the organ.
The most common causes of acute pancreatitis are gallstones and alcohol consumption. Many cases are also of unknown origin. To remember the various causes, the mnemonic ‘I GET SMASHED’ can be helpful:
– I: Idiopathic
– G: Gallstones
– E: Ethanol
– T: Trauma
– S: Steroids
– M: Mumps
– A: Autoimmune
– S: Scorpion stings
– H: Hyperlipidemia/hypercalcemia
– E: ERCP
– D: DrugsThe clinical features of acute pancreatitis include severe epigastric pain, nausea and vomiting, referral of pain to specific dermatomes (or shoulder tip via the phrenic nerve), fever/sepsis, epigastric tenderness, jaundice, and signs such as Gray-Turner sign (ecchymosis of the flank) and Cullen sign (ecchymosis of the peri-umbilical area).
The stimulation of the thoracic splanchnic nerves is responsible for the referred pain to the T6-10 dermatomes that is sometimes observed in pancreatitis and other pancreatic disorders.
When investigating acute pancreatitis in the emergency department, it is important to perform blood glucose testing, a full blood count (which often shows an elevated white cell count), urea and electrolyte testing, calcium testing, liver function tests, coagulation screening, serum amylase testing (which should be more than 5 times the normal limit), an ECG, arterial blood gas analysis, and an abdominal X-ray.
Treatment for acute pancreatitis involves providing the patient with oxygen, adequate pain relief (including antiemetics), and fluid resuscitation. A nasogastric tube and urinary catheter should be inserted, and fluid balance should be carefully monitored. Most patients require management in a high dependency unit (HDU) or intensive care unit (ICU) setting.
Acute pancreatitis has a significant mortality rate, and complications are common. Early complications may include severe sepsis and circulatory shock, acute renal failure, disseminated intravascular coagulation, hypocalcemia, acute respiratory distress syndrome and pancreatic encephalopathy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgical Emergencies
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
You witness the sudden arrival of a baby in one of the rooms in the Emergency Department. Your supervisor evaluates the newborn one minute after birth and informs you that:
The entire body appears pale
The heart rate is 90 beats per minute
The baby reacts with a grimace when suctioned
There is some bending of the limbs
The cry is feeble, and the baby is gasping for breath
What is the Apgar score of the newborn at one minute?Your Answer: 5
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:The Apgar score is a straightforward way to evaluate the well-being of a newborn baby right after birth. It consists of five criteria, each assigned a score ranging from zero to two. Typically, the assessment is conducted at one and five minutes after delivery, with the possibility of repeating it later if the score remains low. A score of 7 or higher is considered normal, while a score of 4-6 is considered fairly low, and a score of 3 or below is regarded as critically low. To remember the five criteria, you can use the acronym APGAR:
Appearance
Pulse rate
Grimace
Activity
Respiratory effortThe Apgar score criteria are as follows:
Score of 0:
Appearance (skin color): Blue or pale all over
Pulse rate: Absent
Reflex irritability (grimace): No response to stimulation
Activity: None
Respiratory effort: AbsentScore of 1:
Appearance (skin color): Blue at extremities (acrocyanosis)
Pulse rate: Less than 100 per minute
Reflex irritability (grimace): Grimace on suction or aggressive stimulation
Activity: Some flexion
Respiratory effort: Weak, irregular, gaspingScore of 2:
Appearance (skin color): No cyanosis, body and extremities pink
Pulse rate: More than 100 per minute
Reflex irritability (grimace): Cry on stimulation
Activity: Flexed arms and legs that resist extension
Respiratory effort: Strong, robust cry -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatal Emergencies
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 42-year-old man was involved in a car accident where his vehicle collided with a wall. He was rescued at the scene and has been brought to the hospital by ambulance. He is currently wearing a cervical immobilization device. He is experiencing chest pain on the left side and difficulty breathing. As the leader of the trauma response team, his vital signs are as follows: heart rate 110, blood pressure 102/63, oxygen saturation 90% on room air. His Glasgow Coma Scale score is 15 out of 15. Upon examination, he has extensive bruising on the left side of his chest, reduced chest expansion, dullness to percussion, and decreased breath sounds throughout the entire left side of his chest. He is receiving high-flow oxygen and a blood transfusion of his specific blood type has been initiated.
What is the most appropriate next step in managing his condition?Your Answer: Chest drain insertion
Explanation:A massive haemothorax occurs when more than 1500 mL of blood, which is about 1/3 of the patient’s blood volume, rapidly accumulates in the chest cavity. The classic signs of a massive haemothorax include decreased chest expansion, decreased breath sounds, and dullness to percussion. Both tension pneumothorax and massive haemothorax can cause decreased breath sounds, but they can be differentiated through percussion. Hyperresonance indicates tension pneumothorax, while dullness suggests a massive haemothorax.
The first step in managing a massive haemothorax is to simultaneously restore blood volume and decompress the chest cavity by inserting a chest drain. In most cases, the bleeding in a haemothorax has already stopped by the time management begins, and simple drainage is sufficient. It is important to use a chest drain of adequate size (preferably 36F) to ensure effective drainage of the haemothorax without clotting.
If 1500 mL of blood is immediately drained or if the rate of ongoing blood loss exceeds 200 mL per hour for 2-4 hours, early thoracotomy should be considered.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
You evaluate a 35-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with epilepsy. She has been initiated on an anti-epileptic drug but has subsequently developed a tremor when assuming a certain posture.
Which INDIVIDUAL anti-epileptic medication is most likely to be accountable for this?Your Answer: Levetiracetam
Correct Answer: Sodium valproate
Explanation:Postural tremor is frequently seen as a neurological side effect in individuals taking sodium valproate. Additionally, a resting tremor may also manifest. It has been observed that around 25% of patients who begin sodium valproate therapy develop a tremor within the first year. Other potential side effects of sodium valproate include gastric irritation, nausea and vomiting, involuntary movements, temporary hair loss, weight gain in females, and impaired liver function.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
A 30-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of pain in his right testis that has been bothering him for the past five days. The pain has been increasing gradually and he has also noticed swelling in the affected testis. During the examination, his temperature is measured at 38.5°C and the scrotum appears red and swollen on the affected side. Palpation reveals extreme tenderness in the testis.
What is the most probable organism responsible for this condition?Your Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Explanation:Epididymo-orchitis refers to the inflammation of the epididymis and/or testicle. It typically presents with sudden pain, swelling, and inflammation in the affected area. This condition can also occur chronically, which means that the pain and inflammation last for more than six months.
The causes of epididymo-orchitis vary depending on the age of the patient. In men under 35 years old, the infection is usually sexually transmitted and caused by Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae. In men over 35 years old, the infection is usually non-sexually transmitted and occurs as a result of enteric organisms that cause urinary tract infections, with Escherichia coli being the most common. However, there can be some overlap between these groups, so it is important to obtain a thorough sexual history in all age groups.
Mumps should also be considered as a potential cause of epididymo-orchitis in the 15 to 30 age group, as mumps orchitis occurs in around 40% of post-pubertal boys with mumps.
While most cases of epididymo-orchitis are infective, non-infectious causes can also occur. These include genito-urinary surgery, vasectomy, urinary catheterization, Behcet’s disease, sarcoidosis, and drug-induced cases such as those caused by amiodarone.
Patients with epididymo-orchitis typically present with unilateral scrotal pain and swelling that develops relatively quickly. The affected testis will be tender to touch, and there is usually a palpable swelling of the epididymis that starts at the lower pole of the testis and spreads towards the upper pole. The testis itself may also be involved, and there may be redness and/or swelling of the scrotum on the affected side. Patients may experience fever and urethral discharge as well.
The most important differential diagnosis to consider is testicular torsion, which requires immediate medical attention within 6 hours of onset to save the testicle. Testicular torsion is more likely in men under the age of 20, especially if the pain is very severe and sudden. It typically presents around four hours after onset. In this case, the patient’s age, longer history of symptoms, and the presence of fever are more indicative of epididymo-orchitis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A 35-year-old woman with a background of mental health issues is behaving strangely and making threats to harm herself and those nearby in the shopping district. The authorities are contacted and determine the necessity to relocate the woman to a secure location.
Which section of the 2007 Mental Health Act (MHA) permits a police officer to transfer an individual displaying signs of a mental health disorder to a place of safety?Your Answer: Section 136
Explanation:Section 136 of the Mental Health Act (MHA) grants authority to a police officer to relocate an individual who seems to be experiencing a mental health disorder to a secure location. This provision permits detention for a period of 72 hours, during which time the patient can undergo evaluation by a medical professional.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
A 40 year old is brought to the emergency department by his hiking guide after complaining of right sided chest pain and difficulty breathing whilst on the hike back to the trailhead following a strenuous climb. On examination you note reduced breath sounds and hyper-resonant percussion to the right base and right apex. Observations are shown below:
Pulse 98 bpm
Blood pressure 130/82 mmHg
Respiratory rate 22 bpm
Oxygen saturations 96% on air
Temperature 37.2°C
What is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Pneumothorax
Explanation:SCUBA divers face the potential danger of developing pulmonary barotrauma, which can lead to conditions like arterial gas embolism (AGE) or pneumothorax. Based on the patient’s diving history and clinical symptoms, it is highly likely that they are experiencing a left-sided pneumothorax caused by barotrauma. To confirm the presence of pneumothorax, a chest X-ray is usually performed, unless the patient shows signs of tension pneumothorax. In such cases, immediate decompression is necessary, which can be achieved by inserting a chest tube.
Further Reading:
Decompression illness (DCI) is a term that encompasses both decompression sickness (DCS) and arterial gas embolism (AGE). When diving underwater, the increasing pressure causes gases to become more soluble and reduces the size of gas bubbles. As a diver ascends, nitrogen can come out of solution and form gas bubbles, leading to decompression sickness or the bends. Boyle’s and Henry’s gas laws help explain the changes in gases during changing pressure.
Henry’s law states that the amount of gas that dissolves in a liquid is proportional to the partial pressure of the gas. Divers often use atmospheres (ATM) as a measure of pressure, with 1 ATM being the pressure at sea level. Boyle’s law states that the volume of gas is inversely proportional to the pressure. As pressure increases, volume decreases.
Decompression sickness occurs when nitrogen comes out of solution as a diver ascends. The evolved gas can physically damage tissue by stretching or tearing it as bubbles expand, or by provoking an inflammatory response. Joints and spinal nervous tissue are commonly affected. Symptoms of primary damage usually appear immediately or soon after a dive, while secondary damage may present hours or days later.
Arterial gas embolism occurs when nitrogen bubbles escape into the arterial circulation and cause distal ischemia. The consequences depend on where the embolism lodges, ranging from tissue ischemia to stroke if it lodges in the cerebral arterial circulation. Mechanisms for distal embolism include pulmonary barotrauma, right to left shunt, and pulmonary filter overload.
Clinical features of decompression illness vary, but symptoms often appear within six hours of a dive. These can include joint pain, neurological symptoms, chest pain or breathing difficulties, rash, vestibular problems, and constitutional symptoms. Factors that increase the risk of DCI include diving at greater depth, longer duration, multiple dives close together, problems with ascent, closed rebreather circuits, flying shortly after diving, exercise shortly after diving, dehydration, and alcohol use.
Diagnosis of DCI is clinical, and investigations depend on the presentation. All patients should receive high flow oxygen, and a low threshold for ordering a chest X-ray should be maintained. Hydration is important, and IV fluids may be necessary. Definitive treatment is recompression therapy in a hyperbaric oxygen chamber, which should be arranged as soon as possible. Entonox should not be given, as it will increase the pressure effect in air spaces.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
A 28-year-old patient has arrived at the emergency department following an accident at a construction site. The skin has been lacerated by a dropped piece of stainless steel sheeting with a sharp edge. The plan is to suture the wound after infiltrating the area with local anesthesia. In the suture room, you find Lidocaine 1% with Adrenaline (Epinephrine) 1:200,000 and Bupivacaine 0.5% available. What is a contraindication to using local anesthesia combined with adrenaline?
Your Answer: Area to be infiltrated is in periphery
Explanation:Adrenaline is known to cause vasoconstriction, which is the narrowing of blood vessels. As a result, it is not recommended to use adrenaline in areas such as the peripheries, end arteries, and flap lacerations because it can increase the risk of ischemia, which is a lack of blood supply to tissues. Additionally, there are certain contraindications to using adrenaline locally, including conditions like pheochromocytoma, hypertension, and arteriosclerosis. It is important to be cautious of these factors as adrenaline’s vasoconstrictive effects can also lead to an elevation in blood pressure.
Further Reading:
Local anaesthetics, such as lidocaine, bupivacaine, and prilocaine, are commonly used in the emergency department for topical or local infiltration to establish a field block. Lidocaine is often the first choice for field block prior to central line insertion. These anaesthetics work by blocking sodium channels, preventing the propagation of action potentials.
However, local anaesthetics can enter the systemic circulation and cause toxic side effects if administered in high doses. Clinicians must be aware of the signs and symptoms of local anaesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST) and know how to respond. Early signs of LAST include numbness around the mouth or tongue, metallic taste, dizziness, visual and auditory disturbances, disorientation, and drowsiness. If not addressed, LAST can progress to more severe symptoms such as seizures, coma, respiratory depression, and cardiovascular dysfunction.
The management of LAST is largely supportive. Immediate steps include stopping the administration of local anaesthetic, calling for help, providing 100% oxygen and securing the airway, establishing IV access, and controlling seizures with benzodiazepines or other medications. Cardiovascular status should be continuously assessed, and conventional therapies may be used to treat hypotension or arrhythmias. Intravenous lipid emulsion (intralipid) may also be considered as a treatment option.
If the patient goes into cardiac arrest, CPR should be initiated following ALS arrest algorithms, but lidocaine should not be used as an anti-arrhythmic therapy. Prolonged resuscitation may be necessary, and intravenous lipid emulsion should be administered. After the acute episode, the patient should be transferred to a clinical area with appropriate equipment and staff for further monitoring and care.
It is important to report cases of local anaesthetic toxicity to the appropriate authorities, such as the National Patient Safety Agency in the UK or the Irish Medicines Board in the Republic of Ireland. Additionally, regular clinical review should be conducted to exclude pancreatitis, as intravenous lipid emulsion can interfere with amylase or lipase assays.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A child presents with a severe acute asthma attack. After a poor response to the initial salbutamol nebulizer, you administer another nebulizer that also contains ipratropium bromide.
What is the most common side effect experienced with ipratropium bromide?Your Answer: Paroxysmal bronchospasm
Correct Answer: Dry mouth
Explanation:Ipratropium bromide commonly leads to dry mouth as a side effect. Additionally, it may result in constipation, cough, sudden bronchospasm, headache, nausea, and palpitations. In patients with prostatic hyperplasia and bladder outflow obstruction, it can cause urinary retention. Furthermore, susceptible individuals may experience acute closed-angle glaucoma as a result of using this medication.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
0
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)