-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old man presents with jaundice. He is a heavy drinker, consuming approximately 30-35 units per week. There is no history of abdominal pain, and pain is not elicited on abdominal examination. However, examination does reveal a palpable gallbladder. Bloods are taken and the results are:
Albumin 28 g/L
Alk Phos 320 U/L
ALT 90 U/L
Bilirubin 98 mol/L
INR 1.5
GGT 120 U/L
What is the likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Alcoholic hepatitis
Correct Answer: Pancreatic cancer
Explanation:Pancreatic cancer is the most likely cause based on Courvoisier’s sign, which indicates that a painless, enlarged gallbladder and mild jaundice are unlikely to be caused by gallstones and more likely to be caused by a malignancy of the pancreas or biliary tree. Alcoholic hepatitis and primary biliary cirrhosis are possible differentials, but the absence of pain and an enlarged gallbladder makes them less likely. Paracetamol overdose is not a probable cause as it does not typically result in a painless, palpable gallbladder and jaundice.
Pancreatic cancer is a type of cancer that is often diagnosed late due to its non-specific symptoms. The majority of pancreatic tumors are adenocarcinomas and are typically found in the head of the pancreas. Risk factors for pancreatic cancer include increasing age, smoking, diabetes, chronic pancreatitis, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma, and mutations in the BRCA2 and KRAS genes.
Symptoms of pancreatic cancer can include painless jaundice, pale stools, dark urine, and pruritus. Courvoisier’s law states that a palpable gallbladder is unlikely to be due to gallstones in the presence of painless obstructive jaundice. However, patients often present with non-specific symptoms such as anorexia, weight loss, and epigastric pain. Loss of exocrine and endocrine function can also occur, leading to steatorrhea and diabetes mellitus. Atypical back pain and migratory thrombophlebitis (Trousseau sign) are also common.
Ultrasound has a sensitivity of around 60-90% for detecting pancreatic cancer, but high-resolution CT scanning is the preferred diagnostic tool. The ‘double duct’ sign, which is the simultaneous dilatation of the common bile and pancreatic ducts, may be seen on imaging.
Less than 20% of patients with pancreatic cancer are suitable for surgery at the time of diagnosis. A Whipple’s resection (pancreaticoduodenectomy) may be performed for resectable lesions in the head of the pancreas, but side-effects such as dumping syndrome and peptic ulcer disease can occur. Adjuvant chemotherapy is typically given following surgery, and ERCP with stenting may be used for palliation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 29 year old woman presents to the medical assessment unit with pleuritic chest pain at 30 weeks gestation. Her ECG shows sinus tachycardia and her blood tests are normal except for a positive D-dimer test ordered by the referring emergency physician. As per the guidelines of the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists, what is the appropriate next step in investigating this patient?
Your Answer: Chest x-ray
Explanation:When dealing with suspected pulmonary embolism in pregnant patients, the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists suggests the following course of action:
1. Conduct a chest x-ray to rule out any other potential diagnoses.
2. If the chest x-ray is normal, perform a compression duplex doppler of both legs to check for DVT. If DVT is present, administer full dose low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) as warfarin can be harmful to the fetus.
3. If both the above tests come back normal, but there is still a strong suspicion of pulmonary embolism, clinicians should consider a CTPA or ventilation perfusion/scan. The decision should be based on the risks and benefits of each test, as well as the hospital’s protocol. Currently, perfusion scans are preferred as they expose the lungs to lower levels of radiation compared to CTPA.Investigation of DVT/PE during Pregnancy
Guidelines updated in 2015 by the Royal College of Obstetricians recommend different investigations for suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (PE) during pregnancy. For suspected DVT, compression duplex ultrasound should be performed if there is clinical suspicion. On the other hand, for suspected PE, an ECG and chest x-ray should be performed in all patients. If women also have symptoms and signs of DVT, compression duplex ultrasound should be performed. If DVT is confirmed, no further investigation is necessary, and treatment for VTE should continue. The decision to perform a V/Q or CTPA should be taken at a local level after discussion with the patient and radiologist.
When comparing CTPA to V/Q scanning in pregnancy, CTPA slightly increases the lifetime risk of maternal breast cancer (increased by up to 13.6%, background risk of 1/200 for the study population). Pregnancy makes breast tissue particularly sensitive to the effects of radiation. On the other hand, V/Q scanning carries a slightly increased risk of childhood cancer compared with CTPA (1/50,000 versus less than 1/1,000,000). D-dimer is of limited use in the investigation of thromboembolism as it is often raised in pregnancy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
A 57-year-old male with non-hodgkin's lymphoma is on his fourth cycle of R-CHOP chemotherapy. He has experienced nausea in the past but is now two days following the most recent cycle and has been admitted to the hospital due to uncontrollable vomiting.
He is vomiting more than 20 times a day and the fluid is green to clear. He has no appetite and has difficulty swallowing water. He is not experiencing diarrhea. He takes indapamide regularly and ondansetron as needed, but this has not helped him, even though his oncologist suggested doubling his dose of ondansetron.
During the examination, he appears pale and has dry mucous membranes. He is alert, has a clear chest, and a soft abdomen, but he begins to retch when he sits forward. He last urinated six hours ago, and his vital signs show a heart rate of 115 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 90/65 mmHg. The emergency department starts him on intravenous fluids.
What is the most effective medical intervention for this patient?Your Answer: Dexamethasone
Explanation:When a patient experiences refractory vomiting despite ondansetron, dexamethasone can be an effective second line antiemetic in chemotherapy-related nausea and vomiting. In this case, cyclizine is not the best option as it binds histamine receptors and is more useful in treating labyrinthitis and motion sickness. Potassium salt replacement may exacerbate vomiting, and delaying chemotherapy may be considered as a last resort. Surgery is not a viable solution in this scenario. Dexamethasone has been proven to be effective in preventing tumor lysis syndrome in lymphoma patients. Ensuring the patient can maintain fluids is crucial.
Managing Nausea and Vomiting as Side-Effects of Chemotherapy
Chemotherapy is a common treatment for cancer, but it often comes with side-effects such as nausea and vomiting. These symptoms can be triggered by various factors, including anxiety, age, concurrent use of opioids, and the type of chemotherapy used. Patients who are at low-risk of developing these symptoms may be prescribed drugs like metoclopramide as a first-line treatment. However, for high-risk patients, 5HT3 receptor antagonists like ondansetron are often more effective, especially when combined with dexamethasone.
To manage nausea and vomiting, it is important to identify the risk factors and choose the appropriate medication. Patients should also be advised to eat small, frequent meals and avoid foods that trigger their symptoms. Additionally, relaxation techniques such as deep breathing and meditation may help reduce anxiety and prevent nausea and vomiting. With proper management, patients can minimize the impact of these side-effects and focus on their recovery.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
A 36-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with intermittent palpitations, breathlessness, and non-specific chest discomfort. The previous day she had found out that she was 14-weeks pregnant which had caused significant stress and anxiety. She has a long history of anxiety and depression, managed by cognitive behavioural therapy. She reported that she had intermittently had episodes of palpitations and shortness of breath for the past 10 years and had attributed this to her anxiety. These symptoms had worsened over the past couple of weeks and today her symptoms were intolerable. Her medications consisted of over-the-counter vitamin supplements.
What is the most likely cause of her presentation?Your Answer: Takotsubo cardiomyopathy
Correct Answer: Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy
Explanation:The patient’s condition was observed during the beginning of the second trimester, which was deemed too early for PPCM. However, the changes in her haemodynamics due to pregnancy were sufficient to activate her underlying ARVC.
Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy (ARVC), also known as arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia or ARVD, is a type of inherited cardiovascular disease that can lead to sudden cardiac death or syncope. It is considered the second most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young individuals, following hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. The disease is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern with variable expression, and it is characterized by the replacement of the right ventricular myocardium with fatty and fibrofatty tissue. Approximately 50% of patients with ARVC have a mutation in one of the several genes that encode components of desmosome.
The presentation of ARVC may include palpitations, syncope, or sudden cardiac death. ECG abnormalities in V1-3, such as T wave inversion, are typically observed. An epsilon wave, which is best described as a terminal notch in the QRS complex, is found in about 50% of those with ARVC. Echo changes may show an enlarged, hypokinetic right ventricle with a thin free wall, although these changes may be subtle in the early stages. Magnetic resonance imaging is useful in showing fibrofatty tissue.
Management of ARVC may involve the use of drugs such as sotalol, which is the most widely used antiarrhythmic. Catheter ablation may also be used to prevent ventricular tachycardia, and an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator may be recommended. Naxos disease is an autosomal recessive variant of ARVC that is characterized by a triad of ARVC, palmoplantar keratosis, and woolly hair.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
A 29-year-old gentleman student from Germany presents to you with right foot drop ongoing for two weeks with some numbness and tingling of the foot. These symptoms developed after he knelt down to pick something up from the floor. Three years ago he woke up from sleep with clawing of his fourth and fifth digit after having been asleep in a prone position and this lasted a week. Eight years ago he also had a left wrist and finger drop lasting three weeks after he sat on the couch with his left arm draped over the back of the couch for ten minutes. He denies falling asleep or remaining on the couch for a prolonged period. He has no other past medical history of note and has never sought medical advice for his problems.
On examination, there is right foot drop (2/5 power) and similar weakness of dorsiflexion and eversion of the right foot. There is also sensory loss over the lower lateral part of the right leg and dorsum of the right foot in all modalities. Reflexes are intact. Neurological examination and general examination are otherwise unremarkable. Which of the following tests would confirm the suspected diagnosis?Your Answer: PMP22 gene testing
Explanation:The patient has been diagnosed with Hereditary Neuropathy with Liability to Pressure Palsy (HNPP), a neurological syndrome that causes mononeuropathy due to minor trauma to a peripheral nerve. This condition is most commonly seen in families with Dutch or German ancestry and is caused by a deletion in the peripheral myelin protein 22 gene on chromosome 17. It is an autosomal dominant condition that usually presents in the second or third decade of life.
The patient has previously experienced ulnar and radial nerve palsy, also known as Saturday night palsy. Nerve conduction studies in HNPP show slow conduction and small action potentials, indicating a demyelinating neuropathy. A nerve biopsy may also reveal a predominance of smaller fibers and localized thickening of the myelin sheath. Gene testing can confirm the diagnosis.
Management of HNPP is conservative and includes the use of wrist splints, ankle-foot orthoses, and protective padding.
Understanding Peripheral Neuropathy: Demyelinating vs. Axonal Pathology
Peripheral neuropathy is a condition that affects the nerves outside of the brain and spinal cord. It can be caused by a variety of factors, including alcohol, diabetes mellitus, vasculitis, vitamin B12 deficiency, and hereditary sensorimotor neuropathies. However, the pathology of peripheral neuropathy can be classified into two main types: demyelinating and axonal.
Demyelinating pathology is characterized by damage to the myelin sheath, which is the protective covering around nerve fibers. This type of neuropathy can be caused by conditions such as Guillain-Barre syndrome, chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (CIDP), amiodarone, hereditary sensorimotor neuropathies (HSMN) type I, and paraprotein neuropathy.
On the other hand, axonal pathology is characterized by damage to the nerve fibers themselves. This type of neuropathy can be caused by factors such as alcohol, diabetes mellitus, vasculitis, vitamin B12 deficiency, and hereditary sensorimotor neuropathies (HSMN) type II.
It is important to note that some conditions, such as diabetes mellitus and vitamin B12 deficiency, can cause both demyelinating and axonal pathology. Understanding the type of pathology involved in peripheral neuropathy can help with diagnosis and treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old accountant presents with an acute inferior myocardial infarction and is urgently scheduled for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). He has a history of smoking 30 cigarettes a day and hypercholesterolaemia. He occasionally drinks alcohol but denies any drug use.
The next day, he experiences restlessness, rapid heartbeat, and excessive sweating. His blood pressure is 160/75 mmHg, with a pulse rate of 110 and regular rhythm. Although his ECG does not show any new ischaemic changes, there is significant baseline interference due to the development of a tremor.
What is the appropriate course of action for his management?Your Answer: IV fluid loading
Correct Answer: Reducing course of oral benzodiazepines
Explanation:Management of a Patient with Suspected Alcohol Withdrawal and Chest Pain
When managing a patient with suspected alcohol withdrawal and chest pain, it is important to consider the appropriate interventions. In this case, the most likely diagnosis is alcohol withdrawal, and the patient is exhibiting signs of anxiety and sympathetic activation. Therefore, a reducing course of oral benzodiazepines is the most appropriate intervention.
While maintaining right ventricular filling pressure is important, there is no indication for IV fluid loading in this patient as their blood pressure is well-preserved and there are no new ECG changes. Similarly, there is no need to return to the catheter lab as there is no evidence of new ischemia on the ECG.
IV metoprolol is not necessary as the patient’s blood pressure is maintained and there are no indications of new ischemia. IV thrombolysis is also not indicated in the absence of new ischemia. Overall, the management of this patient should focus on addressing their alcohol withdrawal symptoms while monitoring for any changes in their condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A 42-year-old woman has been diagnosed with stage II non-bulky follicular lymphoma (low grade). During a routine examination, her GP noticed a few small neck nodes, but she is otherwise asymptomatic. Her full blood count, renal function, and LDH are all normal. What would be the most appropriate next step in her management plan?
Your Answer: Wait and watch approach
Explanation:Treatment Options for Asymptomatic Low Grade Lymphoma
Asymptomatic patients with low grade lymphoma, specifically follicular lymphoma grades 1 and 2, can be closely monitored without the need for intensive chemotherapy. There is no evidence to suggest that this approach provides any long-term survival benefits. Additionally, autologous or allogeneic transplants are not considered as front-line therapy for lymphomas, and immunosuppressive therapy is rarely used as a monotherapy for lymphomas.
Instead, enrolling in a clinical trial would be a viable option for patients with asymptomatic low grade lymphoma, as the best treatment approach has yet to be established. However, if the patient were symptomatic or had end organ damage due to lymphoma, immediate treatment would be necessary. Overall, close observation and monitoring are recommended for asymptomatic low grade lymphoma patients, with treatment options being reserved for those who develop symptoms or complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
A 35-year-old woman has just returned from a trip to Southeast Asia. She reports experiencing pain in her knees, ankles, and feet that is symmetrical, as well as discomfort in her eyes. Upon further inquiry, she reveals that she engaged in unprotected sexual activity multiple times while abroad and is now experiencing pain during urination. Her ESR is elevated, and a synovial fluid aspiration shows a high neutrophil count but is sterile. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Reactive arthropathy
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Arthritis and Recent Travel History to the Far East
A patient presents with arthritis and a recent travel history to the Far East with episodes of unprotected sexual encounters. The differential diagnosis includes reactive arthropathy, septic arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, rheumatoid arthritis, and Still’s disease.
Reactive arthropathy is the most likely diagnosis due to the presence of oligoarthritis, urethritis/dysuria, and conjunctivitis. A penile swab should be taken, and treatment should include addressing the probable underlying sexually transmitted infection. Septic arthritis is less likely due to the sterile synovial fluid aspirate and concurrent symptom of sore eyes. Ankylosing spondylitis is unlikely due to the absence of back or buttock pain. Rheumatoid arthritis is less likely due to the presence of conjunctivitis and evidence of urethritis. Still’s disease is unlikely due to the absence of high spiking fevers and oligoarthritis over a few weeks/months, which is not typical for this age group.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
A 27-year-old man who has sex with men presents to his local sexual health clinic with a 1 cm indurated painless ulcer under his foreskin. Dark ground microscopy is positive for spirochaetes and he is treated for presumed primary syphilis with IM benzathine penicillin 2.4 MU.
Twelve hours later he presents at the Emergency Department with a three hour history of palpitations, fevers, headache and facial flushing. He has never had similar symptoms in the past and his medical history is unremarkable. He has no known drug allergies.
On examination he appears flushed and has developed a blanching maculopapular rash on his torso. mucous membranes are intact. His heart rate is 110 beats/min with pure heart sounds. His BP is 100/70 mmHg. His respiratory rate is 12, chest is clear and there are no abnormalities on abdominal or neurological examinations. Fundoscopy is normal. His temperature is 38.1℃
Blood tests are taken and reveal:
Haemoglobin 142 g/L (115-165)
White cell count 11.50 ×109/L (4.0-11.0)
Platelets 320 ×109/L (150-400)
Sodium 141 mmol/L (135-145)
Potassium 4.0 mmol/L (3.5-5.0)
Chloride 101 mmol/L (98-108)
Urea 3.6 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
Creatinine 88 μmol/L (40-130)
Albumin 41 g/L (32-45)
Bilirubin 15 umol/L (<20)
Alanine transaminase 38 U/L (<50)
Aspartate transaminase 32 U/L (<40)
Alkaline phosphatase 130 U/L (40-150)
CRP 45 (<5)
ECG shows sinus tachycardia only.
What is the appropriate management for this patient?Your Answer: Reassure
Explanation:The Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction is a common occurrence in patients undergoing treatment for syphilis, Lyme disease, and Q fever. It is an acute febrile illness that typically presents with symptoms such as headache, myalgia, chills, and rigors within 12 hours of the first dose of treatment. The reaction is caused by the release of endotoxin from killed microorganisms and is accompanied by a rise in pro-inflammatory cytokines.
The reaction is usually not significant in early syphilis unless there is neurological or ophthalmic involvement or in pregnancy when it may cause fetal distress and premature labor. It occurs in approximately 50% of patients with primary syphilis, 90% with secondary syphilis, and 25% with early latent syphilis. However, it is very rare in late syphilis but may be dangerous if there are lesions around important anatomical sites.
Patients should be informed about the possibility of experiencing the Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction prior to receiving therapy for syphilis. Although the reaction can easily be confused with an allergic reaction, it will settle without treatment. Simple reassurance and the use of paracetamol for symptom control is the appropriate management. A single dose of benzathine penicillin should cure most cases of early syphilis, thus no further antibiotics should be necessary.
In conclusion, the Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction is important for patients undergoing treatment for syphilis, Lyme disease, and Q fever. While it can be uncomfortable, it is usually not significant and will resolve within 24 hours. Patients should be informed about the reaction and reassured that it is a normal part of the treatment process.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old woman presents with a history of intermittent diarrhoea and constipation for the past four years, which has become more problematic since returning from a backpacking trip in Thailand eight months ago. She has no significant medical history except for a family history of hyperthyroidism in her mother. On examination, her body mass index is 18.5 kg/m2, and there are no other specific abnormalities. Laboratory investigations reveal a low haemoglobin level, low MCV, and normal white cell count and platelet count. Her serum electrolytes, urea, creatinine, and thyroid function tests are within normal limits. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Tropical sprue
Correct Answer: Coeliac disease
Explanation:Possible Diagnosis for Patient’s Four-Year History with Hypocalcaemia and Iron Deficiency Anaemia
The most likely explanation for the patient’s four-year history with hypocalcaemia and iron deficiency anaemia, despite normal inflammatory markers, is coeliac disease. This condition can present with deficiencies in iron, B12, or folate, which may be reflected in a dimorphic blood picture. To confirm the diagnosis, serological evaluation with IgA anti tissue transglutaminase and IgA endomysial antibody is necessary. Additionally, the patient’s family history of autoimmunity supports this diagnosis.
On the other hand, a macrocytic anaemia would be more consistent with tropical sprue, but the patient’s history preceding the trip to Thailand argues against this possibility. Therefore, coeliac disease is the most probable diagnosis for the patient’s symptoms.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)