mrcem2-1250

A 4-year-old child is brought in by ambulance. He has been experiencing seizures for the past 35 minutes. So far, he has received two doses of IV lorazepam. His bowel movement is normal. He has a history of epilepsy and is on phenytoin as maintenance therapy.

According to the current APLS guidelines, what would be the most suitable next step in managing his condition?