A 35 year old woman with jaundice is scheduled for ERCP. However, the procedure is complicated and she is returned to the ward, with signs of jaundice still present accompanied by severe abdominal pain that is generalized. What should be the next best step in management?
A 35 year old lady is admitted to the clinic after experiencing an attack of pancreatitis with moderate severity according to the Glasgow criteria. Imaging reveals no gallstones or fluid surrounding the pancreas. The aetiology is unclear. How would you manage the patient?
A 32 year old woman presents to the ER with recurrent episodes of non specific abdominal pain. The labs including blood tests appear to be normal. Ct scan is done for further evaluation. The CT reveals a 1.5 cm nodule in the right adrenal gland that is associated with a lipid rich core. Urinary VMA is found to be within the normal range. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A 31 year old woman arrives at the clinic due to a tender breast lump. On examination, there is a fluctuant and tender mass. She has a 2 month old child. Which of the following most likely caused her breast lump?
A 32 year old woman complains of a sudden, severe headache, the worst one she has ever experienced and collapses. CT scan shows a subarachnoid haemorrhage. However, she currently has no signs of an elevated ICP. Which of the following drugs should be administered?
A 32 year old woman with a history of Crohn’s disease, presents with a recurrent discharging anal fistula. Examination reveals a low anal fistula with involvement of a small area of the external anal sphincter muscle. Which of the following is the most appropriate management plan?
A 34 year old man arrives at the clinic due to a painless lump in his left teste. His blood tests and US point towards a teratoma. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A 32 year old man has a perianal abscess at 6 o’clock position. Which of the following is the most appropriate step in the management of this patient?
A 31 year old woman presents to the clinic for assessment of varicose veins that she developed several years ago. Examination reveals marked truncal varicosities with a long tortuous saphenous vein. Which of the following would be the next most appropriate step in her management?
A 31 year old rugby player is brought to the ER after being crushed in a scrum. He briefly lost consciousness, regained it and collapsed again. On arrival, his GCS was noted to be 6/15 with dilatation of the left pupil. What would be the best definitive management in his case?