MRCS-1264
A 41-year-old man presents with a severe left-sided loin pain radiating to the groin. Imaging demonstrates a 2 mm left-sided calculus in the distal ureter. Renal function is normal. What should be the most appropriate course of action?
A 41-year-old man presents with a severe left-sided loin pain radiating to the groin. Imaging demonstrates a 2 mm left-sided calculus in the distal ureter. Renal function is normal. What should be the most appropriate course of action?
A 40-year-old man is brought to the A&E department in an unconscious state, following a car collision. He was driving at a high speed of 140 km/hr, wearing a seat belt, when his car collided with a brick wall. CT scan of the brain appears to be normal. However, he remains in a persistent vegetative state. What is the most likely underlying cause?
A 41-year-old man presents with a newly pigmented lesion on his right shin, which has been increasing in size. On examination, the lesion has regular borders and normal-appearing skin appendages.What should be the best course of action?
A 29-year-old lady who is a known case of Graves’ disease presents with a relapse on stopping the antithyroid drugs. Radioiodine is offered as the next treatment by the endocrinologists. Which of the following statements regarding such treatment is false?
A 21-year-old woman presents with intermittent diarrhoea for the past eight months and loss in weight of about two kilograms. Colonoscopy is carried out in which appearances of melanosis coli are identified. This is confirmed on biopsy. What could be the most likely cause of melanosis coli in this patient?
A 20-year-old woman is admitted with right upper quadrant pain. On examination, there is tenderness in the right upper quadrant region. Imaging shows signs of acute cholecystitis due to gallstones. The common bile duct appears normal and liver function tests are normal as well. What should be the most appropriate course of action?
A 32-year-old woman is vomiting persistently following a laparoscopic appendicectomy for a perforated gangrenous appendicitis. Imaging shows some dilated small bowel loops. What should be the most appropriate course of action?
A 20-year-old woman presents with a posteriorly-sited anal fissure. Treatment with stool softeners and topical GTN have failed to improve the condition. Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step of management?
A 24-year-old rugby player sustains a fracture of the distal radius after falling on his outstretched right hand during the game. X-ray shows a dorsally angulated comminuted fracture. What is the most appropriate management?
A 34-year-old female teacher is admitted with severe epigastric pain. Her blood reports show normal levels of serum amylase. In order to exclude a perforated viscus and determine whether pancreatitis is present, what should be the best course of action?