A 32-year-old man presents with aching pain and discomfort in his right testicle. He has generally been feeling unwell for the past 48 hours as well. On examination, tenderness of the right testicle and an exaggerated cremasteric reflex has been found. What should be the appropriate course of action?
A 24-year-old woman presents with an infected sebaceous cyst. On examination, it is swollen, erythematous, and discharging pus. What should be the most appropriate treatment?
A 27-year-old professional tennis player presents to the A&E department with a swollen, painful right arm. On examination, his fingers are dusky. Out of the following, which is the most appropriate investigation?
A 33-year-old man is brought to the A&E department following a road traffic accident. He complains of lower abdominal pain. On examination, a fracture of the pelvis along with distended, tender bladder is observed. What should be the best step of management for distended bladder?
A 51-year-old man is brought to the A&E department following a road traffic accident. He complains of lower abdominal pain. On examination, fracture of the pelvis along with distended, tender bladder is observed. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 30-year-old man is undergoing surgery for a left inguinal hernia. During the operation, the sac is opened to reveal a large Meckel’s diverticulum. What type of hernia is this?
A 25-year-old man is involved in vigorous intercourse and suddenly feels a snap. His penis becomes swollen and painful immediately after. The admitting surgeon suspects a penile fracture. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?
A 29-year-old man presents with a five-month history of intermittent retrosternal chest pain along with episodes of dysphagia to liquids. An upper GI endoscopy is performed and no mucosal abnormality is seen. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 24-year-old man presents with a six-day history of bloody diarrhoea along with passage of mucus. He has been defecating about eight to nine times per day. Digital rectal examination is carried out in which no discrete abnormality is felt. However, some blood-stained mucus is seen on the glove. What could be the most likely diagnosis?
A 28-year-old woman is admitted with a 48-hour history of worsening pain in the right iliac fossa. She has also been feeling nauseous and has vomited twice. On examination, there is marked tenderness in the right iliac fossa with localised guarding. Vaginal examination is unremarkable and urine dipstick (including beta hCG) is negative. Her blood reports show WCC of 13.5 x 10^9/L and CRP of 70 mg/dL. What should be the most appropriate course of action?