You are a male FY1 working in obstetrics. A 35-year-old female is on the ward in labour, 10 minutes ago she suffered a placental abruption and is in need of emergency care. Her midwife comes to see you, informing you that she is requesting to only be seen and cared for by female doctors. How do you respond?
A 35-year-old pregnant woman presents with anaemia at 20 weeks gestation. Her full blood count reveals a serum Hb of 104 g/L and MCV of 104 fL. Hypersegmented neutrophils are observed on a blood film. The patient has a medical history of coeliac disease. What is the probable reason for her anaemia?
A 25-year-old primiparous female is at 39 weeks gestation. Upon examination by a midwife, her Bishop score is determined to be 4. What is the significance of this score?
A 28-year-old woman has recently delivered a baby in the labour ward. Following the delivery, an evaluation is conducted to determine the amount of blood loss for recording purposes. The medical records indicate that she experienced a primary postpartum haemorrhage. Can you provide the accurate definition of primary postpartum haemorrhage (PPH)?
A 29-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department, worried about her pregnancy. She is currently 32 weeks pregnant and has not experienced any complications. However, during a shopping trip a few hours ago, she felt a sudden rush of fluid from her vagina and noticed that her underwear was wet.
The triage nurse has already taken her vital signs, which are all within normal limits.
What is the initial test that should be performed based on the probable diagnosis?
A 35-year-old female presents in the emergency department. She is concerned that her waters broke earlier today and reports a sudden ‘gush’ that soaked her pants. She is currently 28 weeks pregnant and has had an uneventful pregnancy thus far. What is the initial investigation that should be conducted?
A 30-year-old woman undergoes a vaginal delivery and is examined on the ward after the placenta is delivered. The examination shows a minor tear on the perineum without any muscle involvement. What is the best course of action?
You are a GP in a local surgery and the next patient is a 25-year-old type 1 diabetic who is interested in getting pregnant. She discontinued the use of the combined oral contraceptive pill (Microgynon) two weeks ago. Her body mass index is 23 kg/m² and she is only taking insulin as medication. What other advice should you give her?
A 30-year-old woman who gave birth a week ago presents to the emergency department with concerns about vaginal bleeding. She reports that the bleeding started as bright red but has now turned brown. She is changing her pads every 3 hours and is worried about possible damage to her uterus from her recent caesarean section. On examination, she appears distressed but has no fever. Her vital signs are stable with a heart rate of 95 beats per minute and a respiratory rate of 19 breaths per minute. Abdominal examination is unremarkable except for a pink, non-tender caesarean section scar. What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?
A 28-year-old pregnant woman is undergoing screening for gestational diabetes. She has no significant medical history and this is her first pregnancy. During the screening, her fasting blood glucose level is measured at 7.2 mmol/L. What is the best course of action for management?