MSFinals-1945

As you review your daily results, you come across a cervical smear test for a 32-year-old patient. The result indicates that it is a repeat test and states that she is ‘high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV) negative’. Upon further examination of her medical records, you discover that this is her second repeat test after an abnormal result during a routine screening two years ago. Her last test was 12 months ago, where she tested ‘hrHPV positive. Cytologically normal’. Interestingly, she has never been invited for a colposcopy. What would be the most appropriate next step in this situation?