MSFinals-4595
A 14-year-old boy comes to the GP complaining of left groin pain and a limp that has been gradually developing over the past 5 weeks. He has no medical or family history and his right leg is unaffected. Upon examination, there is a noticeable decrease in internal rotation of the left leg, but no swelling or warmth around the joints. The patient’s vital signs are normal, and his height is in the 50th percentile while his weight is in the 95th percentile. What is the most probable diagnosis?