MSFinals-6544
A 78-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with bothersome urinary symptoms. He reports difficulty with urination, including a weak stream and the need to strain. These symptoms are causing increased pain in his abdominal incisional hernia. Additionally, he experiences significant post-void dribbling, requiring the use of incontinence pads.
Upon examination, the physician notes a significantly enlarged prostate that is smooth with a clear median sulcus. A urine dipstick test is unremarkable. The patient’s blood test reveals a prostate-specific antigen level of 1 ng/mL (normal range <4 ng/mL). What is the most appropriate course of treatment for this patient?