MSFinals-6448
A 65-year-old man presents with a lump on his right groin that he is unsure of when it first appeared. He reports no changes in bowel habits or abdominal discomfort. The patient has a medical history of hypercholesterolemia and type 2 diabetes and is currently taking atorvastatin and metformin.
During examination, a mass is visible above and towards the middle of the pubic tubercle. The lump disappears when the patient is lying down and does not transilluminate. There is no abdominal tenderness or bruising. The patient’s heart rate is 85 bpm, and his blood pressure is 143/85 mmHg.
What is the most effective next step in the management of this patient, given the likely diagnosis?