MSFinals-1643
A 58-year-old woman, with a history of fibromyalgia, presents to her General Practitioner with a 6-month history of a constant soreness in the pelvic and perineal area. She reports it is there most of the time, and she struggles to carry on with her daily activities and sleep. She is tearful and fatigued. She tried paracetamol and ibuprofen, but these have not worked. She denies any postmenopausal bleeding or vaginal discharge.
Examination is unremarkable. She had a recent abdominal computed tomography (CT) scan for investigation of acute diverticulitis that revealed no abnormality in the uterus and ovaries.
Which of the following is the next step in the patient’s management?