MSRA-2662
A 30-year-old female patient comes in for her initial cervical screening. What is the primary causative factor responsible for cervical cancer?
A 30-year-old female patient comes in for her initial cervical screening. What is the primary causative factor responsible for cervical cancer?
A 27-year-old female patient visits her general practitioner seeking information on emergency contraception. She engaged in unprotected sexual activity with a male partner a week ago. The patient has a consistent 28-day menstrual cycle and believes that today is the 17th day of her current cycle. What options are available for emergency contraception in this case?
A 27-year-old female patient presents to you for her cervical cancer screening and expresses interest in learning more about HPV (human papillomavirus). What is a true statement regarding HPV?
A 30-year-old woman has been diagnosed with breast cancer. She had been using the combined pill for contraception before her diagnosis. Now, she wants to switch to a different method of contraception before starting chemotherapy. What would be the most suitable option?
Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to using combined oral contraceptive pills?
A 41-year-old woman is worried that she may be experiencing premature ovarian failure as she has not had a period for the last six months. What is the definition of premature ovarian failure?
A 28-year-old woman presents to you for a discussion on contraception options. She is hesitant about getting an implant or coil and prefers to start taking the combined oral contraceptive pill. However, she is uncertain if she is eligible for the pill due to a family history of breast cancer in her mother and grandmother, both of whom were diagnosed in their 50s. She has undergone genetic testing privately and tested negative for the BRCA1 and BRCA2 gene. She has no significant medical history, is normotensive, and has a BMI of 22 kg/m². What method of contraception would you recommend?
A 27-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician complaining of painful menstrual bleeding. She reports having a regular 28-day cycle and bleeding for 5-6 days each month without passing clots or experiencing heavy bleeding. However, the pain is severe and often requires her to take at least 2 days off work every month. Her medical history includes a DVT after giving birth to her child 2 years ago. She has no allergies and takes no regular medications.
What is the first step in managing this patient’s symptoms?
A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor after missing her progestogen-only pill, Noriday, this morning. She usually takes it at 9am, but it’s now 12:30 pm. What guidance should the doctor provide?
What is the most frequent negative outcome encountered by females who consume the progestin-only pill?