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  • Question 1 - A client under your care has been prescribed imipramine for depression. What combination...

    Incorrect

    • A client under your care has been prescribed imipramine for depression. What combination of side-effects is most probable in an individual taking this type of antidepressant?

      Your Answer: Gastrointestinal bleeding + dyspepsia

      Correct Answer: Blurred vision + dry mouth

      Explanation:

      Tricyclic Antidepressants for Neuropathic Pain

      Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) were once commonly used for depression, but their side-effects and toxicity in overdose have led to a decrease in their use. However, they are still widely used in the treatment of neuropathic pain, where smaller doses are typically required. TCAs such as low-dose amitriptyline are commonly used for the management of neuropathic pain and the prophylaxis of headache, while lofepramine has a lower incidence of toxicity in overdose. It is important to note that some TCAs, such as amitriptyline and dosulepin, are considered more dangerous in overdose than others.

      Common side-effects of TCAs include drowsiness, dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention, and lengthening of the QT interval. When choosing a TCA for neuropathic pain, the level of sedation may also be a consideration. Amitriptyline, clomipramine, dosulepin, and trazodone are more sedative, while imipramine, lofepramine, and nortriptyline are less sedative. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the appropriate TCA and dosage for the individual’s specific needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 2 - A 42-year-old man presents to his GP with a sense of sadness and...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presents to his GP with a sense of sadness and emptiness. He lost his job 8 months ago and has been struggling to focus on his daily activities ever since. 'I'm just not the same person I used to be,' he tells the doctor. He has no interest in finding a new job and spends most of his time at home. He denies any thoughts of suicide. His sleep is disturbed and he wakes up feeling tired. He also reports a decreased interest in sex with his partner. His medical history is significant only for a bilateral hand tremor that worsens with movement. He is a non-smoker and only drinks socially. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anhedonia

      Correct Answer: Major depressive disorder

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Major Depressive Disorder from Other Conditions

      Major depressive disorder is a psychiatric condition characterized by symptoms such as anhedonia, sadness, lack of concentration, sleep impairment, social withdrawal, and hopelessness. It is often triggered by a significant stressor, such as job loss. While severe depression can also be a component of adjustment disorder, the duration of symptoms beyond 6 months following a stressor suggests a diagnosis of major depressive disorder. Anhedonia, a significant lack of interest in once pleasurable activities, is a symptom rather than a diagnosis by itself and is often present in major depressive disorder. Drug abuse can be a cause or effect of depression, but in this case, the patient’s recent stressor makes drug-related depression less likely. The patient’s hand tremor, worsened by movement, is more likely related to essential tremor than Parkinson’s disease, which typically presents with a resting hand tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia. Accurately distinguishing major depressive disorder from other conditions is crucial for effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 3 - A 27-year-old woman presents with a 3-day history of inability to use her...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman presents with a 3-day history of inability to use her right arm. She has been staying with her mother for the past 5 days after experiencing domestic abuse from her husband. The patient reports feeling very stressed. She denies any history of trauma. On examination, there is normal tone and reflexes but 0/5 power in all muscle groups of the right upper limb. The affected arm falls to the patient's side when held above her face and released. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Spinal cord lesion

      Correct Answer: Conversion disorder

      Explanation:

      The probable diagnosis for this patient is conversion disorder, which is a psychiatric condition that involves the loss of motor or sensory function and is often caused by stress. There is no evidence of neurological disease in the patient’s history or clinical findings. The condition is likely triggered by recent domestic abuse and stress. The patient also exhibits a positive drop-arm test, which is a controlled drop of the arm to prevent it from hitting the face, and is an unconscious manifestation of psychological stress.

      Acute stress disorder is a condition that occurs after life-threatening experiences, such as abuse, and is characterized by symptoms of hyperarousal, re-experiencing of the traumatic event, avoidance of stimuli, and distress. However, it does not involve physical weakness. It typically lasts between 3 days and 1 month.

      Post-traumatic stress disorder is another condition that occurs after life-threatening experiences, such as abuse, and has similar symptoms to acute stress disorder. However, it lasts longer than 1 month.

      Patients with somatisation disorder have multiple bodily complaints that last for months to years and persistent anxiety about their symptoms. However, based on this patient’s history and physical findings, conversion disorder is the most likely diagnosis.

      Given the patient’s normal tone and reflexes and the absence of trauma to the neck or spine, it is highly unlikely that a spinal cord lesion is causing total arm paralysis.

      Psychiatric Terms for Unexplained Symptoms

      There are various psychiatric terms used to describe patients who exhibit symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. One such disorder is somatisation disorder, which involves the presence of multiple physical symptoms for at least two years, and the patient’s refusal to accept reassurance or negative test results. Another disorder is illness anxiety disorder, which is characterized by a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results.

      Conversion disorder is another condition that involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient does not consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Patients with this disorder may be indifferent to their apparent disorder, a phenomenon known as la belle indifference. Dissociative disorder, on the other hand, involves the process of ‘separating off’ certain memories from normal consciousness, and may manifest as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is the most severe form of dissociative disorder and was previously known as multiple personality disorder.

      Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms. Finally, malingering is the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms with the intention of financial or other gain. Understanding these psychiatric terms can help healthcare professionals better diagnose and treat patients with unexplained symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 4 - A 30-year-old woman, with a history of hearing voices, was brought to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman, with a history of hearing voices, was brought to the Emergency Department by her family. She described the voices as telling her to kill her father as ‘he has the devil in him’. She also reported noting her intelligence being tapped through the Internet by a higher power. This has been going on for the past 6 months. Her family denies either depression or manic episodes. The patient was admitted to an inpatient Psychiatry Unit and started on haloperidol for her symptoms, after an evaluation and diagnosis of schizophrenia. Twelve hours after initiation of therapy, the patient started to have stiffness in the neck muscles and spine. Physical examination revealed muscular spasms in the neck and spine, a temperature of 37.2 °C, blood pressure 125/70 mmHg and a pulse of 80 bpm.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

      Correct Answer: Acute dystonia

      Explanation:

      Complications of Haloperidol: Acute Dystonia, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome, Serotonin Syndrome, and Meningitis

      Haloperidol is an anti-psychotic medication commonly used to treat schizophrenia. However, it can also cause various complications. Acute dystonia is a condition where the patient experiences muscle spasms in different muscle groups, which can occur shortly after taking haloperidol. Treatment for acute dystonia involves administering anticholinergics.

      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is another complication that can occur as a result of taking anti-psychotic medication, particularly high-potency ones like haloperidol. Symptoms include abnormal vital signs, such as high fever, and treatment involves discontinuing the medication and managing symptoms with cooling measures and medications like dantrolene or bromocriptine.

      Serotonin syndrome is a condition that can occur when a patient takes multiple doses or an overdose of medications like selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs), or serotonin agonists like sumatriptans. Symptoms include muscular twitching, agitation, confusion, hyperthermia, sweating, hypertension, tachycardia, and diarrhea.

      Meningitis, on the other hand, is not a complication of haloperidol. It is an inflammation of the protective membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord, usually caused by a bacterial or viral infection.

      Finally, malignant hyperthermia is a condition that can manifest with similar symptoms to neuroleptic malignant syndrome, but it usually occurs during anesthesia administration and is caused by an inherited autosomal dominant disorder of the ryanodine receptor gene in the skeletal muscle. Treatment involves using dantrolene and providing supportive care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 5 - A 32-year-old male construction worker presents to the clinic with concerns about his...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male construction worker presents to the clinic with concerns about his recent behavior at work. Over the past week, he has been very talkative and easily distracted while on the job. This is unusual for him as he typically prefers to stay focused and get his work done efficiently. He also reports feeling more energetic than usual and needing less sleep. He denies any impulsive behavior, drug use, or sexual promiscuity. There is no significant medical history, but his father has a history of bipolar disorder.

      What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Urgent referral to the community mental health team

      Correct Answer: Routine referral to the community mental health team

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with symptoms of hypomania in primary care, it is important to refer them to the community mental health team for confirmation of the diagnosis before prescribing any medication. Quetiapine is often used as a first-line treatment for acute bipolar disorder, but it should not be prescribed until the diagnosis is confirmed. SSRIs are not recommended for depressive episodes in bipolar disorder, and olanzapine and fluoxetine should only be used in rare circumstances for acute depression. Lithium is a common medication for bipolar disorder, but it should not be prescribed until the diagnosis is confirmed. Routine referral to the community mental health team is advised for patients presenting with hypomania in primary care, and urgent referral may be necessary if the patient is at risk of self-harm or harm to others. Referral may also be necessary if the patient demonstrates poor judgment in areas such as employment, personal relationships, finances, driving, sexual activity, or drug use.

      Understanding Bipolar Disorder

      Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by alternating periods of mania/hypomania and depression. It typically develops in the late teen years and has a lifetime prevalence of 2%. There are two recognized types of bipolar disorder: type I, which involves mania and depression, and type II, which involves hypomania and depression.

      Mania and hypomania both refer to abnormally elevated mood or irritability, but mania is more severe and can include psychotic symptoms for 7 days or more. Hypomania, on the other hand, involves decreased or increased function for 4 days or more. The presence of psychotic symptoms suggests mania.

      Management of bipolar disorder may involve psychological interventions specifically designed for the condition, as well as medication. Lithium is the mood stabilizer of choice, but valproate can also be used. Antipsychotic therapy, such as olanzapine or haloperidol, may be used to manage mania/hypomania, while fluoxetine is the antidepressant of choice for depression. It is important to address any co-morbidities, as there is an increased risk of diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and COPD in individuals with bipolar disorder.

      If symptoms suggest hypomania, routine referral to the community mental health team (CMHT) is recommended. However, if there are features of mania or severe depression, an urgent referral to the CMHT should be made. Understanding bipolar disorder and its management is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 6 - A 28-year-old woman is currently on 40 mg fluoxetine for her depression but...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman is currently on 40 mg fluoxetine for her depression but is planning to conceive. Her psychiatrist has recommended switching to sertraline. What is the appropriate regimen for transitioning from one selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) to another?

      Your Answer: Stop fluoxetine immediately, and start sertraline the following day

      Correct Answer: Reduce fluoxetine gradually over two weeks, and wait 4–7 days after stopping fluoxetine before starting sertraline

      Explanation:

      Switching from Fluoxetine to Sertraline: Recommended Approach

      When switching from fluoxetine to sertraline, it is important to follow a recommended approach to minimize the risk of adverse effects. Here are some options and their respective explanations:

      1. Reduce fluoxetine gradually over two weeks, and wait 4-7 days after stopping fluoxetine before starting sertraline. This approach is recommended because fluoxetine has a long half-life, and a washout period is necessary before starting another SSRI. Gradual withdrawal is also recommended for doses over 20 mg.

      2. Reduce fluoxetine gradually over two weeks, then start sertraline as soon as fluoxetine has stopped. This approach is not recommended because a washout period is necessary before starting another SSRI.

      3. Reduce fluoxetine to 20 mg, and cross-taper with low-dose sertraline for two weeks. This approach is not recommended because fluoxetine has a long half-life, and a washout period is necessary before starting another SSRI.

      4. Stop fluoxetine immediately, and start sertraline the following day. This approach is not recommended because fluoxetine has a long half-life, and a washout period is necessary before starting another SSRI. Gradual withdrawal is also recommended for doses over 20 mg.

      5. Stop fluoxetine immediately, wait 4-7 days, then start sertraline. This approach is not recommended because gradual withdrawal is recommended for doses over 20 mg. Abruptly stopping fluoxetine can lead to adverse effects.

      In summary, reducing fluoxetine gradually over two weeks and waiting for a washout period before starting sertraline is the recommended approach. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before making any changes to medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old woman complains that she is unable to leave the house and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman complains that she is unable to leave the house and as a result, her children are missing out and she is a bad mother. She reports feeling anxious most of the time, but when she is in public, she experiences a rapid heartbeat, fast breathing, and believes that everyone is staring at her. These symptoms began approximately three weeks after she lost her job when the company she worked for shut down. Since then, she has been unable to find enjoyment in anything and feels constantly fatigued. What is her diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Panic disorder

      Correct Answer: Depression with secondary anxiety

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Relationship Between Depression and Anxiety: A Clinical Perspective

      Depression and anxiety are two common mental health conditions that often co-occur. However, it is important to distinguish between the two and determine which is the primary diagnosis, as this will guide treatment. In cases where depression is the underlying main diagnosis, patients may develop secondary symptoms such as anxiety and panic attacks. On the other hand, in cases where anxiety is the primary diagnosis, patients may also experience secondary depressive symptoms.

      One key factor in determining the primary diagnosis is the temporal development of symptoms. In cases where depressive symptoms clearly started first, a correct diagnosis of depression is important, as treating the underlying disorder can also improve secondary anxiety symptoms. Symptoms of depression include low mood, anhedonia, and anergia.

      Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by uncontrollable and irrational worry or anxiety about a wide range of issues and situations, while agoraphobia is an excessive fear of being in a situation where a person cannot freely escape or where help may not be available. Panic disorder is diagnosed when a person has recurrent, severe panic attacks without an obvious precipitant.

      In cases where anxiety is secondary to depression, it is important to address the underlying depressive symptoms in order to improve the abnormal anxiety. Symptoms of abnormal anxiety and depression frequently present co-morbidly, and careful history-taking is necessary to determine which is the primary diagnosis. By understanding the relationship between depression and anxiety, clinicians can provide more effective treatment for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 8 - A 78-year-old man is admitted with new-onset confusion. He is usually independent and...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man is admitted with new-onset confusion. He is usually independent and enjoys gardening in his spare time. When he didn't show up for his weekly gardening club meeting, a friend went to his house. The friend noticed that the patient appeared disoriented and was speaking nonsensically, prompting them to call for medical assistance.
      What distinguishes delirium from dementia?

      Your Answer: Dysarthria

      Correct Answer: Fluctuating level of consciousness

      Explanation:

      Dementia vs Delirium: Understanding the Differences

      Dementia and delirium are two conditions that can affect cognitive abilities and behavior. While they share some similarities, there are also important differences between them.

      Dementia is a group of neurodegenerative disorders that cause a progressive decline in cognition and/or behavior from previous levels of functioning. It is characterized by a slow, insidious progression and is rarely reversible. Memory loss, executive functioning problems, speech and language difficulties, social interaction loss, personality changes, and visuospatial problems are some of the areas of loss associated with dementia. Mobility and gait disturbances are also common.

      Delirium, on the other hand, is an acute confusional state characterized by a relatively rapid onset and variable, fluctuating progression. It may cause a global reduction in cognitive abilities but is usually reversible if the underlying cause is promptly identified. Common causes include sepsis, medications, metabolic derangement, and causes of raised intracranial pressure.

      While there are some similarities between dementia and delirium, there are also some differences. For example, dementia is never associated with a persistent fluctuating level of consciousness, which is a feature of delirium. Visual hallucinations are present in both delirium and dementia, particularly Lewy body dementia. Impaired memory and dysarthria are also present in both conditions, as is urinary incontinence.

      In summary, understanding the differences between dementia and delirium is important for proper diagnosis and treatment. While both conditions can affect cognitive abilities and behavior, they have distinct features that can help differentiate them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 9 - A 27-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by her father after...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by her father after attempting suicide with an overdose of medication. Upon questioning, she says that she has recently broken up with her boyfriend and that he does not let her use cocaine and marijuana. This is the second time that they have broken up, and she tells you that she fights constantly with him. Hospital records show that she has been admitted to hospital many times and that she has had many previous suicide attempts. She admits to drinking heavily at weekends and to having had unprotected sex with multiple partners over the last year.
      Which one of the following personality disorders best describes this patient?

      Your Answer: Dependent

      Correct Answer: Borderline

      Explanation:

      Personality Disorders: Types and Characteristics

      Personality disorders are a group of mental health conditions that affect the way individuals think, feel, and behave. There are several types of personality disorders, each with its own set of characteristics.

      Borderline Personality Disorder: This disorder is characterized by impulsive behavior, intense mood swings, and unpredictable behavior. Individuals with this disorder may struggle with maintaining stable relationships and may have difficulty regulating their emotions.

      Avoidant Personality Disorder: People with this disorder tend to be socially inhibited and may avoid social situations due to a fear of rejection. They may also struggle with feelings of inadequacy and low self-esteem.

      Dependent Personality Disorder: Individuals with this disorder may have an excessive need for nurture and may struggle with making decisions on their own. They may also have low self-confidence and be overly submissive in relationships.

      Schizoid Personality Disorder: People with this disorder tend to be socially isolated and may have limited emotional expression. They may prefer to be alone and may struggle with forming close relationships.

      Schizotypal Personality Disorder: This disorder is characterized by odd thought patterns and interpersonal awkwardness. Individuals with this disorder may also have an unusual appearance or behavior.

      Overall, personality disorders can significantly impact an individual’s daily life and relationships. It is important to seek professional help if you or someone you know may be struggling with a personality disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 10 - You are on a pediatric liaison rotation, and have been asked to talk...

    Incorrect

    • You are on a pediatric liaison rotation, and have been asked to talk to a 6-year-old patient with known ADHD. Upon trying to take a history from him, you struggle to follow his train of thought, as he keeps saying things like: 'I like pizza, it's so cheesy and easy -- my dog is brown, he likes to run around -- I have a blue pencil, it's my favorite utensil -'. You suspect that his thought process is characterized by rapid shifts from one idea to another without any apparent connection.
      What is the medical term for this psychiatric symptom?

      Your Answer: Echolalia

      Correct Answer: Clang associations

      Explanation:

      White kite, bright light, tight fight – these are examples of clang associations, where words are linked by their similar sounds or rhymes. It is a symptom often seen in individuals with schizophrenia or bipolar disorder. However, this patient is not currently displaying any signs of psychosis or mania. It is important to note that aphasic speech, where the patient loses the ability to form language, and echolalia, where they repeat words or phrases of others, are different from clang associations.

      Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 11 - A 28-year-old man visits his General Practitioner on the advice of the Community...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man visits his General Practitioner on the advice of the Community Psychiatric Nurse. He has been experiencing a fever and sore throat lately. He is currently on clozapine for treatment-resistant schizophrenia.
      What would be the most crucial investigation to conduct, considering his recent symptoms?

      Your Answer: Urea and electrolytes

      Correct Answer: Full blood count

      Explanation:

      When treating patients with clozapine, it is important to monitor for agranulocytosis, a rare but potentially fatal side-effect. Patients should report flu-like symptoms and undergo regular blood tests. In this case, the patient’s sore throat and fever may indicate agranulocytosis, so a full blood count is necessary. While an ECG should be done before starting antipsychotic treatment, it is not the most important test in this scenario. Blood glucose should be monitored to exclude organic causes and hyperglycemia caused by antipsychotics. Liver function and urea/electrolytes should also be monitored regularly, but are not the most important tests to conduct immediately in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 12 - A 59-year-old man is admitted with pneumonia. He drinks 25 units of alcohol...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man is admitted with pneumonia. He drinks 25 units of alcohol per day. His liver function is normal.

      After 12 hours of admission, he suddenly becomes unwell. His vital signs are as follows:
      - Respiratory rate: 18 breaths/minute
      - Oxygen saturations: 96%
      - Blood pressure: 123/76 mmHg
      - Heart rate: 106 bpm
      - Capillary blood glucose: 4.1 mmol/L

      An ECG shows sinus tachycardia at a rate of 103 bpm. Upon examination, he appears tremulous and sweaty and complains of feeling anxious.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: 250ml 10% glucose IV

      Correct Answer: Chlordiazepoxide regimen and regular high strength IM B vitamin replacement

      Explanation:

      The administration of glucose IV is not necessary as the patient is not experiencing hypoglycemia. Simply providing regular high strength IM B vitamin replacement is insufficient as the patient also requires a benzodiazepine regimen for alcohol withdrawal. A stat dose of bisoprolol is not appropriate as the patient’s sinus tachycardia is a result of alcohol withdrawal and will not be effectively treated with bisoprolol.

      Alcohol withdrawal occurs when an individual who has been consuming alcohol chronically suddenly stops or reduces their intake. Chronic alcohol consumption enhances the inhibitory effects of GABA in the central nervous system, similar to benzodiazepines, and inhibits NMDA-type glutamate receptors. However, alcohol withdrawal leads to the opposite effect, resulting in decreased inhibitory GABA and increased NMDA glutamate transmission. Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically start at 6-12 hours and include tremors, sweating, tachycardia, and anxiety. Seizures are most likely to occur at 36 hours, while delirium tremens, which includes coarse tremors, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, and tachycardia, peak at 48-72 hours.

      Patients with a history of complex withdrawals from alcohol, such as delirium tremens, seizures, or blackouts, should be admitted to the hospital for monitoring until their withdrawals stabilize. The first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal is long-acting benzodiazepines, such as chlordiazepoxide or diazepam, which are typically given as part of a reducing dose protocol. Lorazepam may be preferable in patients with hepatic failure. Carbamazepine is also effective in treating alcohol withdrawal, while phenytoin is said to be less effective in treating alcohol withdrawal seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 13 - A 29-year-old man is admitted to a medical ward for treatment of an...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man is admitted to a medical ward for treatment of an abscess in his leg. He has a history of intravenous heroin use and reports that he is beginning to experience symptoms of opioid withdrawal. What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Ask her how much heroin she uses per day and arrange for her to receive methadone syrup equivalent to this divided into four doses per day

      Correct Answer: Give her 60 mg of codeine phosphate and wait 30 minutes to determine its effect

      Explanation:

      Managing Acute Opioid Withdrawal in Heroin Users

      Managing acute opioid withdrawal in patients who are actively using heroin can be challenging. However, a good way to manage this is by titrating codeine to effect. Codeine can be given in doses of 30-60 mg and repeated every 30 minutes until the symptoms begin to subside. It is important to note that most trusts will have a local policy on this matter.

      If a patient normally takes methadone, it is crucial to contact their dispensing pharmacy to confirm their dose before administering codeine. Codeine can be used in the meantime to alleviate symptoms of opioid withdrawal. By following this approach, healthcare professionals can effectively manage acute opioid withdrawal in heroin users.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 14 - A 67-year-old man is prescribed duloxetine for a major depressive episode after having...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man is prescribed duloxetine for a major depressive episode after having no response to citalopram or fluoxetine.

      What is the mechanism of action of the newly added drug?

      Your Answer: Alpha blocker

      Correct Answer: Serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor

      Explanation:

      The mechanism of action of duloxetine involves inhibiting the reuptake of both serotonin and noradrenaline, making it a member of the antidepressant class known as serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors. When selecting an antidepressant, patient preference, previous sensitization, overdose risk, and cost are all factors to consider. SSRIs are typically the first-line treatment due to their favorable risk-to-benefit ratio and comparable efficacy to other antidepressants.

      Understanding Serotonin and Noradrenaline Reuptake Inhibitors

      Serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs) are a type of antidepressant medication that work by increasing the levels of serotonin and noradrenaline in the brain. These neurotransmitters are responsible for regulating mood, emotions, and anxiety levels. By inhibiting the reuptake of these chemicals, SNRIs help to maintain higher levels of serotonin and noradrenaline in the synaptic cleft, which can lead to improved mood and reduced anxiety.

      Examples of SNRIs include venlafaxine and duloxetine, which are commonly used to treat major depressive disorders, generalised anxiety disorder, social anxiety disorder, panic disorder, and menopausal symptoms. These medications are relatively new and have been found to be effective in treating a range of mental health conditions. SNRIs are often preferred over other types of antidepressants because they have fewer side effects and are less likely to cause weight gain or sexual dysfunction.

      Overall, SNRIs are an important class of medication that can help to improve the lives of people struggling with mental health conditions. By increasing the levels of serotonin and noradrenaline in the brain, these medications can help to regulate mood and reduce anxiety, leading to a better quality of life for those who take them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 15 - A 27-year-old woman is admitted to the psychiatric ward. She appears lethargic. When...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman is admitted to the psychiatric ward. She appears lethargic. When asked about her emotions, she responds, 'Let me start by telling you about my recent job interview. It went well, but I'm still waiting to hear back. I really need this job to pay off my student loans and start saving for a house. I've been feeling stressed about money lately.' She continues to talk about her financial situation.
      Upon further questioning, she exhibits similar behavior and speaks slowly throughout.
      How would you describe her behavior?

      Your Answer: Tangentiality

      Explanation:

      Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 16 - A 75-year-old woman is admitted to a medical ward and the medical team...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old woman is admitted to a medical ward and the medical team is concerned about her mental health in addition to her urgent medical needs. The patient is refusing treatment and insisting on leaving. The team suspects that she may be mentally incapacitated and unable to make an informed decision. Under which section of the Mental Health Act (MHA) can they legally detain her in England and Wales?

      Your Answer: Section 5 (2)

      Explanation:

      Section 5 (2) of the MHA allows a doctor to detain a patient for up to 72 hours for assessment. This can be used for both informal patients in mental health hospitals and general hospitals. During this time, the patient is assessed by an approved mental health professional and a doctor with Section 12 approval. The patient can refuse treatment, but it can be given in their best interests or in an emergency. Section 2 and 3 can only be used if they are the least restrictive method for treatment and allow for detention for up to 28 days and 6 months, respectively. Section 135 allows police to remove a person from their home for assessment, while Section 136 allows for the removal of an apparently mentally disordered person from a public place to a place of safety for assessment. Since the patient in this scenario is already in hospital, neither Section 135 nor Section 136 would apply.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 17 - A 42-year-old female with a lengthy history of schizophrenia has been admitted to...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old female with a lengthy history of schizophrenia has been admitted to a psychiatric inpatient facility due to a worsening of her psychosis caused by non-adherence to medication. During an interview with the patient, the psychiatrist observes that while the patient's speech is mostly comprehensible, she occasionally employs words like flibbertigibbet and snollygoster that appear to hold significance only for the patient.

      What is the most appropriate term to describe the patient's speech abnormality?

      Your Answer: Pressured speech

      Correct Answer: Neologism

      Explanation:

      Language Disturbances in Mental Health

      Neologism is the term used to describe the creation of new words. This phenomenon can occur in individuals with schizophrenia or brain injury. Clanging, on the other hand, is the use of rhyming words in speech. Pressured speech is characterized by rapid speech that is difficult to interrupt and is often seen in individuals experiencing mania or hypomania. Circumstantiality refers to speech that may wander from the topic for periods of time before finally returning to answer the question that was asked. Lastly, word salad is a type of speech that is completely disorganized and not understandable, which may occur in individuals who have suffered a stroke affecting Wernicke’s area.

      In summary, language disturbances are common in individuals with mental health conditions. These disturbances can range from the creation of new words to completely disorganized speech. these language disturbances can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of mental health conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 18 - A 27-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by police after being...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by police after being found naked in the street and shouting about the government's plan to infect the population with a virus through the water supply. He is not known to secondary care services and a drug screen is negative. The psychiatry liaison team admits him under Section 2 of the Mental Health Act for assessment of a first psychosis. What is the most significant risk factor for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: History of severe depression

      Correct Answer: Uncle with schizophrenia

      Explanation:

      The most significant risk factor for psychotic disorders is a person’s family history.

      Understanding the Epidemiology of Schizophrenia

      Schizophrenia is a psychotic disorder that affects a significant portion of the population. The strongest risk factor for developing this condition is having a family history of the disorder. Individuals with a parent who has schizophrenia have a relative risk of 7.5. Additionally, monozygotic twins have a 50% chance of developing schizophrenia, while siblings have a 10% chance. In contrast, individuals without relatives with schizophrenia have a 1% chance of developing the disorder.

      Aside from family history, other factors can increase the risk of developing schizophrenia. Black Caribbean ethnicity has a relative risk of 5.4, while migration and living in an urban environment have relative risks of 2.9 and 2.4, respectively. Cannabis use also increases the risk of developing schizophrenia, with a relative risk of 1.4.

      Understanding the epidemiology of schizophrenia is crucial in identifying individuals who may be at risk of developing the disorder. By recognizing these risk factors, healthcare professionals can provide early interventions and support to prevent or manage the onset of schizophrenia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 19 - A 25-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with suicidal ideation after a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with suicidal ideation after a fight with her partner. She has a history of relationship problems and frequently argues with loved ones. She denies having any paranoid thoughts or unusual beliefs but reports hearing a voice in her head that describes her negative thoughts. Upon examination, you observe several superficial scars on her forearms. There is no evidence of delusions or abnormal speech. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Schizoid personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is borderline personality disorder, which is characterized by a history of self-harm and intense relationships that alternate between idealization and devaluation. Symptoms also include mood swings and the possibility of paranoid thoughts and hallucinations.

      Paranoid personality disorder is not the correct answer, as it primarily involves difficulty trusting others and interpreting situations as threatening. While the patient in question does exhibit some paranoia, their other symptoms are more indicative of borderline personality disorder.

      Schizoid personality disorder is also not the correct answer, as it involves difficulty forming close relationships and a preference for solitude. The patient in question has close relationships with others.

      Schizophrenia is not the correct answer either, as it primarily involves delusions, hallucinations, and disordered thinking.

      Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.

      Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.

      Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 20 - A 28-year-old woman contacts her doctor seeking guidance on stopping all of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman contacts her doctor seeking guidance on stopping all of her medications abruptly. She has a medical history of asthma, depression, and occasional tennis elbow pain, for which she takes a salbutamol inhaler, citalopram, and paracetamol, respectively. What is the most probable outcome if she discontinues her medications suddenly?

      Your Answer: Weight gain

      Correct Answer: Diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      When it comes to discontinuing medication, it’s important to note the specific drug being used. Abruptly stopping a salbutamol inhaler or paracetamol is unlikely to cause any adverse effects. However, stopping a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) like citalopram can lead to discontinuation symptoms. Gastrointestinal side-effects, such as diarrhoea, are commonly seen in SSRI discontinuation syndrome. To avoid this, it’s recommended to gradually taper off SSRIs. Blunted affect is not likely to occur as a result of sudden discontinuation, but emotional lability and mood swings may be observed. Cyanopsia, or blue-tinted vision, is not a known symptom of SSRI discontinuation, but it can be a side effect of other drugs like sildenafil. While hypertension has been reported in some cases, it’s less common than gastrointestinal symptoms. Weight loss, rather than weight gain, is often reported upon sudden discontinuation of SSRIs.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

      When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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