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Question 1
Incorrect
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What are the accurate statements about the endocrine complications observed in individuals with anorexia nervosa?
Your Answer: Insulin-like growth factor-1 is raised due to elevated growth hormone levels
Correct Answer: Severe hypoglycemia can indicate infection
Explanation:– Severe hypoglycemia can indicate infection and can be fatal
– Triiodothyronine levels are usually low
– Hypercortisolaemia does not result in Cushingoid features
– Primary and secondary amenorrhoea are common
– Insulin-like growth factor-1 is reducedAnorexia is a serious mental health condition that can have severe physical complications. These complications can affect various systems in the body, including the cardiac, skeletal, hematologic, reproductive, metabolic, gastrointestinal, CNS, and dermatological systems. Some of the recognized physical complications of anorexia nervosa include bradycardia, hypotension, osteoporosis, anemia, amenorrhea, hypothyroidism, delayed gastric emptying, cerebral atrophy, and lanugo.
The Royal College of Psychiatrists has issued advice on managing sick patients with anorexia nervosa, recommending hospital admission for those with high-risk items. These items include a BMI of less than 13, a pulse rate of less than 40 bpm, a SUSS test score of less than 2, a sodium level of less than 130 mmol/L, a potassium level of less than 3 mmol/L, a serum glucose level of less than 3 mmol/L, and a QTc interval of more than 450 ms. The SUSS test involves assessing the patient’s ability to sit up and squat without using their hands. A rating of 0 indicates complete inability to rise, while a rating of 3 indicates the ability to rise without difficulty. Proper management and treatment of anorexia nervosa are crucial to prevent of manage these physical complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 2
Incorrect
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What is the correct statement about the psychiatric care provided to individuals with HIV?
Your Answer: Clozapine must never be used in a patient with HIV
Correct Answer: Efavirenz is associated with depression and mania
Explanation:HIV and Mental Health: Understanding the Relationship and Treatment Options
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is a blood-borne virus that causes cellular immune deficiency, resulting in a decrease in the number of CD4+ T-cells. People with severe mental illness are at increased risk of contracting and transmitting HIV, and the prevalence of HIV infection among them is higher than in the general population. Antiretroviral drugs are used to manage HIV, but they are not curative.
Depression is the most common mental disorder in the HIV population, and it can result from HIV of the psycho-social consequences of having the condition. HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder (HAND) is the umbrella term for the spectrum of neurocognitive impairment induced by HIV, ranging from mild impairment through to dementia. Poor episodic memory is the most frequently reported cognitive difficulty in HIV-positive individuals.
Treatment options for mental health issues in people with HIV include atypical antipsychotics for psychosis, SSRIs for depression and anxiety, valproate for bipolar disorder, and antiretroviral therapy for HAND. It is important to avoid benzodiazepines for delirium and MAOIs for depression. Understanding the relationship between HIV and mental health and providing appropriate treatment options can improve the quality of life for people living with HIV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 3
Correct
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Which drug is most likely to cause withdrawal symptoms between doses?
Your Answer: Oxazepam
Explanation:Interdose withdrawal can occur with short-acting drugs, causing withdrawal symptoms to manifest as the effects of the previous dose start to diminish.
Benzodiazepines are a class of drugs commonly used to treat anxiety and sleep disorders. It is important to have a working knowledge of the more common benzodiazepines and their half-life. Half-life refers to the amount of time it takes for half of the drug to be eliminated from the body.
Some of the more common benzodiazepines and their half-life include diazepam with a half-life of 20-100 hours, clonazepam with a half-life of 18-50 hours, chlordiazepoxide with a half-life of 5-30 hours, nitrazepam with a half-life of 15-38 hours, temazepam with a half-life of 8-22 hours, lorazepam with a half-life of 10-20 hours, alprazolam with a half-life of 10-15 hours, oxazepam with a half-life of 6-10 hours, zopiclone with a half-life of 5-6 hours, zolpidem with a half-life of 2 hours, and zaleplon with a half-life of 2 hours. Understanding the half-life of these drugs is important for determining dosages and timing of administration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 4
Correct
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What is the recommended antidepressant for starting treatment in a pregnant woman with no prior history of depression, as per the Maudsley guidelines?
Your Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Paroxetine Use During Pregnancy: Is it Safe?
Prescribing medication during pregnancy and breastfeeding is challenging due to the potential risks to the fetus of baby. No psychotropic medication has a UK marketing authorization specifically for pregnant of breastfeeding women. Women are encouraged to breastfeed unless they are taking carbamazepine, clozapine, of lithium. The risk of spontaneous major malformation is 2-3%, with drugs accounting for approximately 5% of all abnormalities. Valproate and carbamazepine are associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects, and lithium is associated with cardiac malformations. Benzodiazepines are associated with oral clefts and floppy baby syndrome. Antidepressants have been linked to preterm delivery and congenital malformation, but most findings have been inconsistent. TCAs have been used widely without apparent detriment to the fetus, but their use in the third trimester is known to produce neonatal withdrawal effects. Sertraline appears to result in the least placental exposure among SSRIs. MAOIs should be avoided in pregnancy due to a suspected increased risk of congenital malformations and hypertensive crisis. If a pregnant woman is stable on an antipsychotic and likely to relapse without medication, she should continue the antipsychotic. Depot antipsychotics should not be offered to pregnant of breastfeeding women unless they have a history of non-adherence with oral medication. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest specific drugs for use during pregnancy and breastfeeding. NICE CG192 recommends high-intensity psychological interventions for moderate to severe depression and anxiety disorders. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with mania of psychosis who are not taking psychotropic medication. Promethazine is recommended for insomnia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 5
Correct
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How can the ICD-11 diagnosis of personality disorder with borderline pattern be identified?
Your Answer: Transient, psychotic-like features
Explanation:It is important to note that the question is asking for the option that is the most suggestive of a diagnosis of personality disorder with borderline pattern in the ICD-11. The correct answer is ‘transient, psychotic-like features’ as this is a qualifying element of the diagnosis. While the other options may also be present in individuals with this condition, they are not defining features.
Personality Disorder (Borderline)
History and Terminology
The term borderline personality disorder originated from early 20th-century theories that the disorder was on the border between neurosis and psychosis. The term borderline was coined by Adolph Stern in 1938. Subsequent attempts to define the condition include Otto Kernberg’s borderline personality organization, which identified key elements such as ego weakness, primitive defense mechanisms, identity diffusion, and unstable reality testing.
Features
The DSM-5 and ICD-11 both define borderline personality disorder as a pervasive pattern of instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affects, and marked impulsivity. Symptoms include efforts to avoid abandonment, unstable relationships, impulsivity, suicidal behavior, affective instability, chronic feelings of emptiness, difficulty controlling temper, and transient dissociative symptoms.
Abuse
Childhood abuse and neglect are extremely common among borderline patients, with up to 87% having suffered some form of trauma. The effect of abuse seems to depend on the stage of psychological development at which it takes place.
comorbidity
Borderline PD patients are more likely to receive a diagnosis of major depressive disorder, bipolar disorder, panic disorder, PTSD, OCD, eating disorders, and somatoform disorders.
Psychological Therapy
Dialectical Behavioral Therapy (DBT), Mentalization-Based Treatment (MBT), Schema-Focused Therapy (SFT), and Transference-Focused Psychotherapy (TFP) are the main psychological treatments for BPD. DBT is the most well-known and widely available, while MBT focuses on improving mentalization, SFT generates structural changes to a patient’s personality, and TFP examines dysfunctional interpersonal dynamics that emerge in interactions with the therapist in the transference.
NICE Guidelines
The NICE guidelines on BPD offer very little recommendations. They do not recommend medication for treatment of the core symptoms. Regarding psychological therapies, they make reference to DBT and MBT being effective but add that the evidence base is too small to draw firm conclusions. They do specifically say Do not use brief psychotherapeutic interventions (of less than 3 months’ duration) specifically for borderline personality disorder of for the individual symptoms of the disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 6
Incorrect
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What is the duration requirement for psychotic symptoms to be classified as an acute and transient psychotic disorder?
Your Answer: 1 month
Correct Answer: 3 months
Explanation:– Schizophrenia and other primary psychotic disorders are characterized by impairments in reality testing and alterations in behavior.
– Schizophrenia is a chronic mental health disorder with symptoms including delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech of behavior, and impaired cognitive ability.
– The essential features of schizophrenia include persistent delusions, persistent hallucinations, disorganized thinking, experiences of influence, passivity of control, negative symptoms, grossly disorganized behavior, and psychomotor disturbances.
– Schizoaffective disorder is diagnosed when all diagnostic requirements for schizophrenia are met concurrently with mood symptoms that meet the diagnostic requirements of a moderate or severe depressive episode, a manic episode, of a mixed episode.
– Schizotypal disorder is an enduring pattern of unusual speech, perceptions, beliefs, and behaviors that are not of sufficient intensity of duration to meet the diagnostic requirements of schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, of delusional disorder.
– Acute and transient psychotic disorder is characterized by an acute onset of psychotic symptoms, which can include delusions, hallucinations, disorganized thinking, of experiences of influence, passivity of control, that emerge without a prodrome, progressing from a non-psychotic state to a clearly psychotic state within 2 weeks.
– Delusional disorder is diagnosed when there is a presence of a delusion of set of related delusions, typically persisting for at least 3 months and often much longer, in the absence of a depressive, manic, of mixed episode. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 7
Correct
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Which of the following symptoms would not be indicative of PTSD in a soldier who has been referred by their GP due to concerns about mental health issues resulting from their experience in the Iraq war?
Your Answer: He is planning to return to Iraq to seek revenge
Explanation:It is typical for individuals with PTSD to try to steer clear of circumstances that trigger memories of the traumatic event.
Stress disorders, such as Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), are emotional reactions to traumatic events. The diagnosis of PTSD requires exposure to an extremely threatening of horrific event, followed by the development of a characteristic syndrome lasting for at least several weeks, consisting of re-experiencing the traumatic event, deliberate avoidance of reminders likely to produce re-experiencing, and persistent perceptions of heightened current threat. Additional clinical features may include general dysphoria, dissociative symptoms, somatic complaints, suicidal ideation and behaviour, social withdrawal, excessive alcohol of drug use, anxiety symptoms, and obsessions of compulsions. The emotional experience of individuals with PTSD commonly includes anger, shame, sadness, humiliation, of guilt. The onset of PTSD symptoms can occur at any time during the lifespan following exposure to a traumatic event, and the symptoms and course of PTSD can vary significantly over time and individuals. Key differentials include acute stress reaction, adjustment disorder, and complex PTSD. Management of PTSD includes trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR), and supported trauma-focused computerized CBT interventions. Drug treatments, including benzodiazepines, are not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD in adults, but venlafaxine of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) may be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if the person has a preference for drug treatment. Antipsychotics such as risperidone may be considered in addition if disabling symptoms and behaviors are present and have not responded to other treatments. Psychological debriefing is not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD. For children and young people, individual trauma-focused CBT interventions of EMDR may be considered, but drug treatments are not recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 8
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman is brought into hospital by her husband. She has been refusing to go outside for the past 12 months, telling her husband she is afraid of catching avian flu. This is despite there being no known cases of avian flu in the country. When asked about this she becomes agitated and says there are too many migrating birds in her garden. On further questioning she reports that approximately twelve months ago she saw a man lift his hat off his head twice in a supermarket and knew instantly that her life was in danger. She appears euthymic in mood. You note that her speech is highly disorganised and almost incoherent.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Schizophrenia
Explanation:The patient displays a strong fear for her safety due to what appears to be delusions regarding the severity of the threat posed by avian flu. Despite attempts to reason with her, her belief remains firmly held with delusional conviction. This is an example of delusional perception, a first rank symptom strongly indicative of schizophrenia. If the patient also exhibits disorganized speech for a duration of over six months, a diagnosis of schizophrenia is likely. Delusional disorder is not diagnosed if the criteria for schizophrenia are met. A schizophreniform disorder is similar to schizophrenia, but with a symptom duration of less than six months, while a brief psychotic disorder has a symptom duration of less than one month.
– Schizophrenia and other primary psychotic disorders are characterized by impairments in reality testing and alterations in behavior.
– Schizophrenia is a chronic mental health disorder with symptoms including delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech of behavior, and impaired cognitive ability.
– The essential features of schizophrenia include persistent delusions, persistent hallucinations, disorganized thinking, experiences of influence, passivity of control, negative symptoms, grossly disorganized behavior, and psychomotor disturbances.
– Schizoaffective disorder is diagnosed when all diagnostic requirements for schizophrenia are met concurrently with mood symptoms that meet the diagnostic requirements of a moderate or severe depressive episode, a manic episode, of a mixed episode.
– Schizotypal disorder is an enduring pattern of unusual speech, perceptions, beliefs, and behaviors that are not of sufficient intensity of duration to meet the diagnostic requirements of schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, of delusional disorder.
– Acute and transient psychotic disorder is characterized by an acute onset of psychotic symptoms, which can include delusions, hallucinations, disorganized thinking, of experiences of influence, passivity of control, that emerge without a prodrome, progressing from a non-psychotic state to a clearly psychotic state within 2 weeks.
– Delusional disorder is diagnosed when there is a presence of a delusion of set of related delusions, typically persisting for at least 3 months and often much longer, in the absence of a depressive, manic, of mixed episode. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 9
Correct
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What is the relationship between Takotsubo cardiomyopathy and anorexia nervosa?
Your Answer: It results from coronary vasospasm
Explanation:Takotsubo cardiomyopathy is a form of cardiomyopathy that is not caused by a lack of blood flow to the heart. It is believed to be caused by spasms in the coronary arteries and can resemble a heart attack. Typically, levels of cardiac enzymes are elevated. In individuals with anorexia, Takotsubo cardiomyopathy is a rare event that usually occurs after stress of low blood sugar. Although it is usually self-limiting and only requires supportive care, in rare cases, it can progress to cardiogenic shock.
Anorexia is a serious mental health condition that can have severe physical complications. These complications can affect various systems in the body, including the cardiac, skeletal, hematologic, reproductive, metabolic, gastrointestinal, CNS, and dermatological systems. Some of the recognized physical complications of anorexia nervosa include bradycardia, hypotension, osteoporosis, anemia, amenorrhea, hypothyroidism, delayed gastric emptying, cerebral atrophy, and lanugo.
The Royal College of Psychiatrists has issued advice on managing sick patients with anorexia nervosa, recommending hospital admission for those with high-risk items. These items include a BMI of less than 13, a pulse rate of less than 40 bpm, a SUSS test score of less than 2, a sodium level of less than 130 mmol/L, a potassium level of less than 3 mmol/L, a serum glucose level of less than 3 mmol/L, and a QTc interval of more than 450 ms. The SUSS test involves assessing the patient’s ability to sit up and squat without using their hands. A rating of 0 indicates complete inability to rise, while a rating of 3 indicates the ability to rise without difficulty. Proper management and treatment of anorexia nervosa are crucial to prevent of manage these physical complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 10
Correct
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What characteristic is commonly observed in individuals with paranoid personality disorder?
Your Answer: Increased sensitivity to criticism and setbacks
Explanation:Paranoid Personality Disorder is a type of personality disorder where individuals have a deep-seated distrust and suspicion of others, often interpreting their actions as malevolent. This disorder is characterized by a pattern of negative interpretations of others’ words, actions, and intentions, leading to a reluctance to confide in others and holding grudges for long periods of time. The DSM-5 criteria for this disorder include at least four of the following symptoms: unfounded suspicions of exploitation, harm, of deception by others, preoccupation with doubts about the loyalty of trustworthiness of friends of associates, reluctance to confide in others due to fear of malicious use of information, reading negative meanings into benign remarks of events, persistent grudges, perceiving attacks on one’s character of reputation that are not apparent to others and reacting angrily of counterattacking, and recurrent suspicions of infidelity in a partner without justification. The ICD-11 does not have a specific category for paranoid personality disorder but covers many of its features under the negative affectivity qualifier under the element of mistrustfulness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 11
Incorrect
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What is the recommended initial treatment for acute mania in individuals with rapid cycling bipolar disorder?
Your Answer: Lithium monotherapy
Correct Answer: Olanzapine
Explanation:Bipolar Disorder: Diagnosis and Management
Bipolar disorder is a lifelong condition characterized by episodes of mania or hypomania and episodes of depressed mood. The peak age of onset is 15-19 years, and the lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorders is estimated to be around 2.1%. The diagnosis of bipolar disorder is based on the presence of manic or hypomanic episodes, which are characterized by elevated of expansive mood, rapid speech, and increased activity of energy. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions and hallucinations, may also be present.
Bipolar depression differs from unipolar depression in several ways, including more rapid onset, more frequent episodes, and shorter duration. Rapid cycling is a qualifier that can be applied to bipolar I of bipolar II disorder and is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode.
The management of bipolar disorder involves acute and long-term interventions. Acute management of mania or hypomania may involve stopping antidepressants and offering antipsychotics of mood stabilizers. Long-term management may involve psychological interventions and pharmacological treatments such as lithium, valproate, of olanzapine.
It is important to note that valproate should not be offered to women of girls of childbearing potential for long-term bipolar disorder unless other options are ineffective of not tolerated and a pregnancy prevention program is in place. Aripiprazole is recommended as an option for treating moderate to severe manic episodes in adolescents with bipolar I disorder.
Overall, the diagnosis and management of bipolar disorder require a comprehensive approach that takes into account the individual’s symptoms, history, and preferences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not a known adverse effect of bulimia nervosa?
Your Answer: Mallory–Weiss syndrome
Correct Answer: Peptic ulcer disease
Explanation:Eating Disorders: Lab Findings and Medical Complications
Eating disorders can lead to a range of medical complications, including renal failure, peripheral edema, sinus bradycardia, QT-prolongation, pericardial effusion, and slowed GI motility. Other complications include constipation, cathartic colon, esophageal esophagitis, hair loss, and dental erosion. Blood abnormalities are also common in patients with eating disorders, including hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypophosphatemia, and hypoglycemia. Additionally, patients may experience leucopenia, anemia, low albumin, elevated liver enzymes, and vitamin deficiencies. These complications can cause significant morbidity and mortality in patients with eating disorders. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients for these complications and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 13
Incorrect
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What factor indicates a poor outcome for individuals with anorexia nervosa?
Your Answer: Being a gymnast
Correct Answer: Late onset
Explanation:Contrary to traditional beliefs, the latest evidence indicates that being male is actually a positive prognostic indicator in anorexia.
Anorexia Prognosis
The long-term outcomes of anorexia are difficult to determine due to high drop-out rates from follow-up. However, one study found that over a 29 year period, half of patients recovered completely, a third recovered partially, 20% had a chronic eating disorder, and 5% died. Factors associated with a poor prognosis include a long duration of hospital care, psychiatric comorbidity, being adopted, growing up in a one-parent household, and having a young mother. Other factors that have been found to contribute to a poor prognosis include lower minimum weight, poor family relationships, failed treatment, late age of onset, and social problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 14
Correct
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Among the listed medications, which one has the strongest evidence for reducing persistent aggression and violence in individuals with schizophrenia?
Your Answer: Clozapine
Explanation:Recent research suggests that clozapine may be effective in reducing persistent aggression in individuals with schizophrenia, even independent of its antipsychotic properties. However, this evidence is largely based on uncontrolled trials. Additionally, there is some indication that mood stabilizers, specifically carbamazepine, may be helpful as an adjunct treatment for assaultive behavior in schizophrenia. On the other hand, there is currently no strong evidence to support the use of benzodiazepines of high-dose antipsychotics for chronic aggression in this population. These findings were discussed in a 2005 article by Davison on the management of violence in general psychiatry.
Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 15
Incorrect
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What is your suspicion regarding the male remand prisoner's condition based on his inconsistent responses during the interview, despite retaining core details about his identity and awareness of his surroundings?
Your Answer: Dissociative amnesia
Correct Answer: Ganser's syndrome
Explanation:Ganser’s syndrome is a disputed diagnosis that typically involves vague responses, confusion, physical symptoms without a clear medical explanation, false perceptions, and memory loss for the time when the symptoms were present. It is commonly observed in incarcerated individuals awaiting trial and seems to be a manifestation of their perception of what a psychotic disorder entails. As a result, some experts argue that it is a type of feigning illness. The condition is classified as a dissociative disorder.
Somatoform and dissociative disorders are two groups of psychiatric disorders that are characterized by physical symptoms and disruptions in the normal integration of identity, sensations, perceptions, affects, thoughts, memories, control over bodily movements, of behavior. Somatoform disorders are characterized by physical symptoms that are presumed to have a psychiatric origin, while dissociative disorders are characterized by the loss of integration between memories, identity, immediate sensations, and control of bodily movements. The ICD-11 lists two main types of somatoform disorders: bodily distress disorder and body integrity dysphoria. Dissociative disorders include dissociative neurological symptom disorder, dissociative amnesia, trance disorder, possession trance disorder, dissociative identity disorder, partial dissociative identity disorder, depersonalization-derealization disorder, and other specified dissociative disorders. The symptoms of these disorders result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning. Diagnosis of these disorders involves a thorough evaluation of the individual’s symptoms and medical history, as well as ruling out other possible causes of the symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 16
Correct
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A 38-year-old woman who has frequently attended in the past with multiple somatic complaints is diagnosed with generalised anxiety disorder. She is initially treated with a low intensity psychological interventions which unfortunately fails to improve her symptoms. What is the most appropriate medication to offer her next line?
Your Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Anxiety (NICE guidelines)
The NICE Guidelines on Generalised anxiety disorder and panic disorder were issued in 2011. For the management of generalised anxiety disorder, NICE suggests a stepped approach. For mild GAD, education and active monitoring are recommended. If there is no response to step 1, low-intensity psychological interventions such as CBT-based self-help of psychoeducational groups are suggested. For those with marked functional impairment of those who have not responded to step 2, individual high-intensity psychological intervention of drug treatment is recommended. Specialist treatment is suggested for those with very marked functional impairment, no response to step 3, self-neglect, risks of self-harm or suicide, of significant comorbidity. Benzodiazepines should not be used beyond 2-4 weeks, and SSRIs are first line. For panic disorder, psychological therapy (CBT), medication, and self-help have all been shown to be effective. Benzodiazepines, sedating antihistamines, of antipsychotics should not be used. SSRIs are first line, and if they fail, imipramine of clomipramine can be used. Self-help (CBT based) should be encouraged. If the patient improves with an antidepressant, it should be continued for at least 6 months after the optimal dose is reached, after which the dose can be tapered. If there is no improvement after a 12-week course, an alternative medication of another form of therapy should be offered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 17
Correct
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A teenager with bipolar disorder who has been symptom free for over 2 years is eager to have a trial without medication. You explain the potential risks involved but ultimately agree to support their decision. They are eager to discontinue the medication as soon as possible. What is the minimum duration of time that the lithium should be gradually tapered off to minimize the risk of relapse?
Your Answer: Over one month
Explanation:According to NICE, it is recommended to gradually decrease the dose of lithium over a period of at least 4 weeks, and ideally up to 3 months, when discontinuing it, even if the individual has begun taking another antimanic medication.
Bipolar Disorder: Diagnosis and Management
Bipolar disorder is a lifelong condition characterized by episodes of mania or hypomania and episodes of depressed mood. The peak age of onset is 15-19 years, and the lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorders is estimated to be around 2.1%. The diagnosis of bipolar disorder is based on the presence of manic or hypomanic episodes, which are characterized by elevated of expansive mood, rapid speech, and increased activity of energy. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions and hallucinations, may also be present.
Bipolar depression differs from unipolar depression in several ways, including more rapid onset, more frequent episodes, and shorter duration. Rapid cycling is a qualifier that can be applied to bipolar I of bipolar II disorder and is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode.
The management of bipolar disorder involves acute and long-term interventions. Acute management of mania or hypomania may involve stopping antidepressants and offering antipsychotics of mood stabilizers. Long-term management may involve psychological interventions and pharmacological treatments such as lithium, valproate, of olanzapine.
It is important to note that valproate should not be offered to women of girls of childbearing potential for long-term bipolar disorder unless other options are ineffective of not tolerated and a pregnancy prevention program is in place. Aripiprazole is recommended as an option for treating moderate to severe manic episodes in adolescents with bipolar I disorder.
Overall, the diagnosis and management of bipolar disorder require a comprehensive approach that takes into account the individual’s symptoms, history, and preferences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 18
Correct
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What is the recommended alternative for bipolar disorder prophylaxis when lithium and valproate are not viable options, according to NICE?
Your Answer: Olanzapine
Explanation:Bipolar Disorder: Diagnosis and Management
Bipolar disorder is a lifelong condition characterized by episodes of mania or hypomania and episodes of depressed mood. The peak age of onset is 15-19 years, and the lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorders is estimated to be around 2.1%. The diagnosis of bipolar disorder is based on the presence of manic or hypomanic episodes, which are characterized by elevated of expansive mood, rapid speech, and increased activity of energy. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions and hallucinations, may also be present.
Bipolar depression differs from unipolar depression in several ways, including more rapid onset, more frequent episodes, and shorter duration. Rapid cycling is a qualifier that can be applied to bipolar I of bipolar II disorder and is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode.
The management of bipolar disorder involves acute and long-term interventions. Acute management of mania or hypomania may involve stopping antidepressants and offering antipsychotics of mood stabilizers. Long-term management may involve psychological interventions and pharmacological treatments such as lithium, valproate, of olanzapine.
It is important to note that valproate should not be offered to women of girls of childbearing potential for long-term bipolar disorder unless other options are ineffective of not tolerated and a pregnancy prevention program is in place. Aripiprazole is recommended as an option for treating moderate to severe manic episodes in adolescents with bipolar I disorder.
Overall, the diagnosis and management of bipolar disorder require a comprehensive approach that takes into account the individual’s symptoms, history, and preferences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 19
Correct
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For what purpose is the SCOFF questionnaire used as a screening tool?
Your Answer: Eating disorders
Explanation:The SCOFF Questionnaire for Screening Eating Disorders
The SCOFF questionnaire is a tool used to screen for eating disorders. It consists of five questions that aim to identify symptoms of anorexia nervosa or bulimia. The questions include whether the individual makes themselves sick because they feel uncomfortably full, worries about losing control over how much they eat, has recently lost more than one stone in a three-month period, believes themselves to be fat when others say they are too thin, and whether food dominates their life.
A score of two or more positive responses indicates a likely case of anorexia nervosa or bulimia. The questionnaire has a sensitivity of 84.6% and specificity of 98.6% when two or more questions are answered positively. This means that if a patient responds positively to two of more questions, there is a high likelihood that they have an eating disorder. The negative predictive value of the questionnaire is 99.3%, which means that if a patient responds negatively to the questions, there is a high probability that they do not have an eating disorder.
Overall, the SCOFF questionnaire is a useful tool for healthcare professionals to quickly screen for eating disorders and identify individuals who may require further assessment and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 20
Correct
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What is the primary treatment recommended for chronic insomnia that persists for more than three months?
Your Answer: CBT-I
Explanation:Insomnia is a sleep disorder characterized by difficulty falling asleep, staying asleep, waking up too early, of feeling unrefreshed after sleep. The management of insomnia depends on whether it is short-term (lasting less than 3 months) of long-term (lasting more than 3 months). For short-term insomnia, sleep hygiene and a sleep diary are recommended first. If severe daytime impairment is present, a short course of a non-benzodiazepine hypnotic medication may be considered for up to 2 weeks. For long-term insomnia, cognitive behavioral therapy for insomnia (CBT-I) is the first-line treatment.
Pharmacological therapy should be avoided, but a short-term hypnotic medication may be appropriate for some individuals with severe symptoms of an acute exacerbation. Referral to a sleep clinic of neurology may be necessary if another sleep disorder is suspected of if long-term insomnia has not responded to primary care management. Good sleep hygiene practices include establishing fixed sleep and wake times, relaxing before bedtime, maintaining a comfortable sleeping environment, avoiding napping during the day, avoiding caffeine, nicotine, and alcohol before bedtime, avoiding exercise before bedtime, avoiding heavy meals late at night, and using the bedroom only for sleep and sexual activity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 21
Correct
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What is the approximate occurrence rate of depression after giving birth?
Your Answer: 10%
Explanation:Perinatal Depression, Baby Blues, and Postpartum Depression
Perinatal depression, also known as postpartum depression, is a common mood disorder experienced by new mothers after childbirth. The term baby blues is used to describe the emotional lability that some mothers experience during the first week after childbirth, which usually resolves by day 10 without treatment. The prevalence of baby blues is around 40%. Postpartum depression, on the other hand, refers to depression that occurs after childbirth. While neither DSM-5 nor ICD-11 specifically mention postpartum depression, both diagnostic systems offer categories that encompass depression during pregnancy of in the weeks following delivery. The prevalence of postpartum depression is approximately 10-15%.
Various factors have been shown to increase the risk of postnatal depression, including youth, marital and family conflict, lack of social support, anxiety and depression during pregnancy, substance misuse, previous pregnancy loss, ambivalence about the current pregnancy, and frequent antenatal admissions to a maternity hospital. However, obstetric factors such as length of labor, assisted delivery, of separation of the mother from the baby in the Special Care Baby Unit do not seem to influence the development of postnatal depression. Additionally, social class does not appear to be associated with postnatal depression.
Puerperal psychosis, along with severe depression, is thought to be mainly caused by biological factors, while psychosocial factors are most important in the milder postnatal depressive illnesses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 22
Correct
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Which mood stabilizer has the strongest evidence for preventing suicide in individuals diagnosed with bipolar affective disorder?
Your Answer: Lithium
Explanation:Lithium – Clinical Usage
Lithium is primarily used as a prophylactic agent for bipolar disorder, where it reduces the severity and number of relapses. It is also effective as an augmentation agent in unipolar depression and for treating aggressive and self-mutilating behavior, steroid-induced psychosis, and to raise WCC in people using clozapine.
Before prescribing lithium, renal, cardiac, and thyroid function should be checked, along with a Full Blood Count (FBC) and BMI. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.
Once daily administration is preferred, and various preparations are available. Abrupt discontinuation of lithium increases the risk of relapse, and if lithium is to be discontinued, the dose should be reduced gradually over a period of at least 4 weeks.
Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and it is often an exam hot topic. Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio, and samples should ideally be taken 12 hours after the dose. The target range for prophylaxis is 0.6–0.75 mmol/L.
Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI and neuro symptoms.
The severity of toxicity can be assessed using the AMDISEN rating scale.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 23
Correct
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What methods can be employed to increase the number of white blood cells in individuals with neutropenia?
Your Answer: Lithium
Explanation:Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 24
Correct
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What are the accurate statements about evaluating and handling self-injury in adults?
Your Answer: A psychosocial assessment should not be delayed until after medical treatment is complete
Explanation:It is important to conduct a psychosocial assessment early on in the treatment process, rather than waiting until after medical treatment is complete. During this assessment, it is crucial to speak with the service user alone to ensure confidentiality and allow for open discussion. In cases where physical treatment may trigger traumatic memories, sedation should be offered beforehand. It is also important to assume mental capacity unless evidence suggests otherwise when assessing and treating individuals who have self-harmed. All members of the healthcare team should be able to assess capacity, and challenging cases should involve a team discussion.
Self-Harm and its Management
Self-harm refers to intentional acts of self-poisoning of self-injury. It is prevalent among younger people, with an estimated 10% of girls and 3% of boys aged 15-16 years having self-harmed in the previous year. Risk factors for non-fatal repetition of self-harm include previous self-harm, personality disorder, hopelessness, history of psychiatric treatment, schizophrenia, alcohol abuse/dependence, and drug abuse/dependence. Suicide following an act of self-harm is more likely in those with previous episodes of self-harm, suicidal intent, poor physical health, and male gender.
Risk assessment tools are not recommended for predicting future suicide of repetition of self-harm. The recommended interventions for self-harm include 4-10 sessions of CBT specifically structured for people who self-harm and considering DBT for adolescents with significant emotional dysregulation. Drug treatment as a specific intervention to reduce self-harm should not be offered.
In the management of ingestion, activated charcoal can help if used early, while emetics and cathartics should not be used. Gastric lavage should generally not be used unless recommended by TOXBASE. Paracetamol is involved in 30-40% of acute presentations with poisoning. Intravenous acetylcysteine is the treatment of choice, and pseudo-allergic reactions are relatively common. Naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, while flumazenil can help reduce the need for admission to intensive care in benzodiazepine overdose.
For superficial uncomplicated skin lacerations of 5 cm of less in length, tissue adhesive of skin closure strips could be used as a first-line treatment option. All children who self-harm should be admitted for an overnight stay at a pediatric ward.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman from South Africa presents with cognitive impairment, slow movements, and some psychotic symptoms. She has been referred to you by the medical team at the local hospital who are investigating her for an unexplained low-grade fever. Upon assessment, you find that she is relatively oriented and her sleep pattern is not disrupted. She is aware of her memory issues. During the physical examination, you observe signs of hypertonia and hyperreflexia. Additionally, there are raised purple plaques on her ankle. What is your preferred diagnosis?
Your Answer: Lyme disease
Correct Answer: HIV dementia
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms are consistent with subcortical dementia caused by HIV. Kaposi’s sarcoma plaques, African origin, and a fever of unknown origin provide additional evidence for this diagnosis. While delirium can be a symptom of cerebral malaria and Lyme disease, the patient in this case remains oriented. Culture bound syndromes typically do not cause fever. Alzheimer’s disease typically affects the cortical regions of the brain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 26
Correct
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A 25-year-old man is concerned about his risk of developing a condition that his grandfather and father both had. His grandfather was diagnosed in his 50s and his father in his 40s. The man is experiencing uncontrollable muscle movements, clumsiness, lack of concentration, short-term memory lapses, and changes in mood. He is also becoming more aggressive, which is not typical of his usual behavior. What is the mode of inheritance for this condition?
Your Answer: Autosomal dominant with complete penetrance
Explanation:Huntington’s disease is a degenerative disorder of the central nervous system that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. This means that if one parent has the disease, there is a 50% chance that their offspring will also develop the disease. The disease has complete penetrance, meaning that all individuals who inherit the disease-causing gene will eventually develop symptoms. Symptoms typically appear in the late 30s of early 40s. Inheritance patterns differ between maternal and paternal alleles, with paternal alleles exhibiting repeat expansion and earlier onset and severity of disease in successive generations. This phenomenon is known as genetic anticipation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 27
Correct
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Which condition is linked to sialadenosis?
Your Answer: Bulimia
Explanation:Sialadenosis is the term used to describe the enlargement of the salivary glands, particularly the parotids, without any inflammation. This condition is typically recurrent and is commonly linked to an underlying systemic disorder such as alcoholism, diabetes, malnutrition, bulimia, and anorexia nervosa.
Eating Disorders: Lab Findings and Medical Complications
Eating disorders can lead to a range of medical complications, including renal failure, peripheral edema, sinus bradycardia, QT-prolongation, pericardial effusion, and slowed GI motility. Other complications include constipation, cathartic colon, esophageal esophagitis, hair loss, and dental erosion. Blood abnormalities are also common in patients with eating disorders, including hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypophosphatemia, and hypoglycemia. Additionally, patients may experience leucopenia, anemia, low albumin, elevated liver enzymes, and vitamin deficiencies. These complications can cause significant morbidity and mortality in patients with eating disorders. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients for these complications and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 28
Incorrect
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What is a known factor that can lead to depression?
Your Answer: Hypothyroidism
Correct Answer: All of the above
Explanation:Organic Causes of Depression
Depression can have various organic causes, including medications, drug abuse, metabolic disorders, nutritional deficiencies, neurological conditions, haematological disorders, infections, and carcinomas. The following table provides a list of some of the organic causes of depression.
Category: Medications
Causes: Reserpine, interferon alpha, beta blockers, levodopa, digoxin, anabolic steroids, H2 blockers, oral contraceptivesCategory: Drug abuse
Causes: Alcohol, amphetamine, cocaine, hypnoticsCategory: Metabolic
Causes: Hyperthyroidism, hypothyroidism, Cushing’s syndrome, Addison’s disease, hypercalcemia, hyponatremia, diabetes mellitusCategory: Nutritional
Causes: Pellagra, vitamin B12 deficiencyCategory: Neurological
Causes: Stroke, MS, brain tumour, Parkinson’s disease, Huntington’s disease, epilepsy, syphilis, subdural hematomaCategory: Haematological
Causes: Anemia, leukaemiaCategory: Other
Causes: Infection, carcinomaIt is important to note that depression can have multiple causes, and a thorough evaluation by a healthcare professional is necessary to determine the underlying cause and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 29
Correct
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What is the herbal remedy that is highly effective for anxiety but not recommended due to its risk of hepatotoxicity?
Your Answer: Piper methysticum
Explanation:Herbal Remedies for Depression and Anxiety
Depression can be treated with Hypericum perforatum (St John’s Wort), which has been found to be more effective than placebo and as effective as standard antidepressants. However, its use is not advised due to uncertainty about appropriate doses, variation in preparations, and potential interactions with other drugs. St John’s Wort can cause serotonin syndrome and decrease levels of drugs such as warfarin and ciclosporin. The effectiveness of the combined oral contraceptive pill may also be reduced.
Anxiety can be reduced with Piper methysticum (kava), but it cannot be recommended for clinical use due to its association with hepatotoxicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 30
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about complex post traumatic stress disorder?
Your Answer: It should not be diagnosed if there has only been a single traumatic event
Correct Answer: Significant problems in affect regulation are an essential feature in the diagnosis
Explanation:Complex PTSD includes all the necessary criteria for PTSD, but it also involves severe challenges in regulating emotions, persistent negative self-beliefs, and ongoing struggles in maintaining relationships. While some individuals with Complex PTSD may also meet the criteria for a personality disorder, it is not considered a personality disorder itself.
Stress disorders, such as Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), are emotional reactions to traumatic events. The diagnosis of PTSD requires exposure to an extremely threatening of horrific event, followed by the development of a characteristic syndrome lasting for at least several weeks, consisting of re-experiencing the traumatic event, deliberate avoidance of reminders likely to produce re-experiencing, and persistent perceptions of heightened current threat. Additional clinical features may include general dysphoria, dissociative symptoms, somatic complaints, suicidal ideation and behaviour, social withdrawal, excessive alcohol of drug use, anxiety symptoms, and obsessions of compulsions. The emotional experience of individuals with PTSD commonly includes anger, shame, sadness, humiliation, of guilt. The onset of PTSD symptoms can occur at any time during the lifespan following exposure to a traumatic event, and the symptoms and course of PTSD can vary significantly over time and individuals. Key differentials include acute stress reaction, adjustment disorder, and complex PTSD. Management of PTSD includes trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR), and supported trauma-focused computerized CBT interventions. Drug treatments, including benzodiazepines, are not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD in adults, but venlafaxine of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) may be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if the person has a preference for drug treatment. Antipsychotics such as risperidone may be considered in addition if disabling symptoms and behaviors are present and have not responded to other treatments. Psychological debriefing is not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD. For children and young people, individual trauma-focused CBT interventions of EMDR may be considered, but drug treatments are not recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A teenager is referred after experiencing a traumatic event that has caused a decline in their mental well-being. What would be the most helpful in distinguishing between a diagnosis of post traumatic stress disorder and adjustment disorder?
Your Answer: The patient appears hypervigilant
Correct Answer: The patient reports flashbacks
Explanation:If an individual experiences symptoms that meet the criteria for Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder but the event of situation is not considered serious, they should be diagnosed with adjustment disorder instead. Additionally, it is common for individuals who have experienced a highly traumatic event to develop adjustment disorder rather than Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder. The diagnosis should be based on meeting the full diagnostic criteria for either disorder, rather than solely on the type of stressor experienced.
Stress disorders, such as Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), are emotional reactions to traumatic events. The diagnosis of PTSD requires exposure to an extremely threatening of horrific event, followed by the development of a characteristic syndrome lasting for at least several weeks, consisting of re-experiencing the traumatic event, deliberate avoidance of reminders likely to produce re-experiencing, and persistent perceptions of heightened current threat. Additional clinical features may include general dysphoria, dissociative symptoms, somatic complaints, suicidal ideation and behaviour, social withdrawal, excessive alcohol of drug use, anxiety symptoms, and obsessions of compulsions. The emotional experience of individuals with PTSD commonly includes anger, shame, sadness, humiliation, of guilt. The onset of PTSD symptoms can occur at any time during the lifespan following exposure to a traumatic event, and the symptoms and course of PTSD can vary significantly over time and individuals. Key differentials include acute stress reaction, adjustment disorder, and complex PTSD. Management of PTSD includes trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR), and supported trauma-focused computerized CBT interventions. Drug treatments, including benzodiazepines, are not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD in adults, but venlafaxine of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) may be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if the person has a preference for drug treatment. Antipsychotics such as risperidone may be considered in addition if disabling symptoms and behaviors are present and have not responded to other treatments. Psychological debriefing is not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD. For children and young people, individual trauma-focused CBT interventions of EMDR may be considered, but drug treatments are not recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 32
Correct
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A 25-year-old female presents to the medical admissions unit with concerns of rapid weight loss. Her BMI is 14 and she has a fear of gaining weight, believing herself to be overweight. She reports amenorrhea for the past six months and denies any use of laxatives of binge eating. What laboratory findings are most likely to be observed on blood testing?
Your Answer: Low triiodothyronine (T3)
Explanation:Anorexia nervosa is the diagnosed condition, which typically results in elevated levels of serum cholesterol, cortisol, carotene, growth hormone, amylase, and liver enzymes. Conversely, reduced levels of triiodothyronine (T3), white cell count (WCC), and potassium levels are commonly observed in individuals with this disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 33
Correct
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A 56 year-old man attends the out-patient clinic. He was started on fluoxetine eight weeks ago for depression and is now requesting to stop his medication as he feels so well. Your assessment indicates that he is now in remission. What should be recommended regarding his treatment?
Your Answer: It should be continued for at least another 6 months
Explanation:To minimize the likelihood of relapse, it is recommended to maintain treatment for at least 6 months after achieving remission. It is important to note that antidepressants are not habit-forming, and patients should be reassured of this fact.
Depression Treatment Guidelines by NICE
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) provides guidelines for the treatment of depression. The following are some general recommendations:
– Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are preferred when prescribing antidepressants.
– Antidepressants are not the first-line treatment for mild depression.
– After remission, continue antidepressant treatment for at least six months.
– Continue treatment for at least two years if at high risk of relapse of have a history of severe or prolonged episodes of inadequate response.
– Use a stepped care approach to depression treatment, starting at the appropriate level based on the severity of depression.The stepped care approach involves the following steps:
– Step 1: Assessment, support, psychoeducation, active monitoring, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
– Step 2: Low-intensity psychosocial interventions, psychological interventions, medication, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
– Step 3: Medication, high-intensity psychological interventions, combined treatments, collaborative care, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
– Step 4: Medication, high-intensity psychological interventions, electroconvulsive therapy, crisis service, combined treatments, multiprofessional and inpatient care.Individual guided self-help programs based on cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) principles should be supported by a trained practitioner and last 9 to 12 weeks. Physical activity programs should consist of three sessions per week of moderate duration over 10 to 14 weeks.
NICE advises against using antidepressants routinely to treat persistent subthreshold depressive symptoms of mild depression. However, they may be considered for people with a past history of moderate or severe depression, initial presentation of subthreshold depressive symptoms that have been present for a long period, of subthreshold depressive symptoms of mild depression that persist after other interventions.
NICE recommends a combination of antidepressant medication and a high-intensity psychological intervention (CBT of interpersonal therapy) for people with moderate of severe depression. Augmentation of antidepressants with lithium, antipsychotics, of other antidepressants may be appropriate, but benzodiazepines, buspirone, carbamazepine, lamotrigine, of valproate should not be routinely used.
When considering different antidepressants, venlafaxine is associated with a greater risk of death from overdose compared to other equally effective antidepressants. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) except for lofepramine are associated with the greatest risk in overdose. Higher doses of venlafaxine may exacerbate cardiac arrhythmias, and venlafaxine and duloxetine may exacerbate hypertension. TCAs may cause postural hypotension and arrhythmias, and mianserin requires hematological monitoring in elderly people.
The review frequency depends on the age and suicide risk of the patient. If the patient is over 30 and has no suicide risk, see them after two weeks and then at intervals of 2-4 weeks for the first three months. If the patient is under 30 and has a suicide risk, see them after one week.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 34
Incorrect
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What symptom is commonly observed in individuals with anorexia nervosa?
Your Answer: Thrombocytosis
Correct Answer: Constipation
Explanation:Anorexia nervosa often leads to constipation as a common complication.
Anorexia is a serious mental health condition that can have severe physical complications. These complications can affect various systems in the body, including the cardiac, skeletal, hematologic, reproductive, metabolic, gastrointestinal, CNS, and dermatological systems. Some of the recognized physical complications of anorexia nervosa include bradycardia, hypotension, osteoporosis, anemia, amenorrhea, hypothyroidism, delayed gastric emptying, cerebral atrophy, and lanugo.
The Royal College of Psychiatrists has issued advice on managing sick patients with anorexia nervosa, recommending hospital admission for those with high-risk items. These items include a BMI of less than 13, a pulse rate of less than 40 bpm, a SUSS test score of less than 2, a sodium level of less than 130 mmol/L, a potassium level of less than 3 mmol/L, a serum glucose level of less than 3 mmol/L, and a QTc interval of more than 450 ms. The SUSS test involves assessing the patient’s ability to sit up and squat without using their hands. A rating of 0 indicates complete inability to rise, while a rating of 3 indicates the ability to rise without difficulty. Proper management and treatment of anorexia nervosa are crucial to prevent of manage these physical complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 35
Incorrect
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Which of the following factors have not been proven to be a risk factor for postnatal depression?
Your Answer: Substance misuse
Correct Answer: Older age of the mother
Explanation:Perinatal Depression, Baby Blues, and Postpartum Depression
Perinatal depression, also known as postpartum depression, is a common mood disorder experienced by new mothers after childbirth. The term baby blues is used to describe the emotional lability that some mothers experience during the first week after childbirth, which usually resolves by day 10 without treatment. The prevalence of baby blues is around 40%. Postpartum depression, on the other hand, refers to depression that occurs after childbirth. While neither DSM-5 nor ICD-11 specifically mention postpartum depression, both diagnostic systems offer categories that encompass depression during pregnancy of in the weeks following delivery. The prevalence of postpartum depression is approximately 10-15%.
Various factors have been shown to increase the risk of postnatal depression, including youth, marital and family conflict, lack of social support, anxiety and depression during pregnancy, substance misuse, previous pregnancy loss, ambivalence about the current pregnancy, and frequent antenatal admissions to a maternity hospital. However, obstetric factors such as length of labor, assisted delivery, of separation of the mother from the baby in the Special Care Baby Unit do not seem to influence the development of postnatal depression. Additionally, social class does not appear to be associated with postnatal depression.
Puerperal psychosis, along with severe depression, is thought to be mainly caused by biological factors, while psychosocial factors are most important in the milder postnatal depressive illnesses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 36
Correct
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Which herbal remedy has sufficient evidence to prove its effectiveness in treating anxiety?
Your Answer: Piper methysticum
Explanation:Herbal Remedies for Depression and Anxiety
Depression can be treated with Hypericum perforatum (St John’s Wort), which has been found to be more effective than placebo and as effective as standard antidepressants. However, its use is not advised due to uncertainty about appropriate doses, variation in preparations, and potential interactions with other drugs. St John’s Wort can cause serotonin syndrome and decrease levels of drugs such as warfarin and ciclosporin. The effectiveness of the combined oral contraceptive pill may also be reduced.
Anxiety can be reduced with Piper methysticum (kava), but it cannot be recommended for clinical use due to its association with hepatotoxicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 37
Correct
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Which of the following factors does not increase the risk of suicide?
Your Answer: Being female
Explanation:Suicide Risk Factors
Risk factors for completed suicide are numerous and include various demographic, social, and psychological factors. Men are at a higher risk than women, with the risk peaking at age 45 for men and age 55 for women. Being unmarried and unemployed are also risk factors. Concurrent mental disorders are present in about 90% of people who commit suicide, with depression being the most commonly associated disorder. Previous suicide attempts and substance misuse are also significant risk factors. Co-existing serious medical conditions and personality factors such as rigid thinking, pessimism, and perfectionism also increase the risk of suicide. It is important to identify and address these risk factors in order to prevent suicide.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 38
Correct
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What is a licensed treatment for PTSD?
Your Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:While NICE recommends mirtazapine for the treatment of PTSD, its license only permits its use for major depression.
Antidepressants (Licensed Indications)
The following table outlines the specific licensed indications for antidepressants in adults, as per the Maudsley Guidelines and the British National Formulary. It is important to note that all antidepressants are indicated for depression.
– Nocturnal enuresis in children: Amitriptyline, Imipramine, Nortriptyline
– Phobic and obsessional states: Clomipramine
– Adjunctive treatment of cataplexy associated with narcolepsy: Clomipramine
– Panic disorder and agoraphobia: Citalopram, Escitalopram, Sertraline, Paroxetine, Venlafaxine
– Social anxiety/phobia: Escitalopram, Paroxetine, Sertraline, Moclobemide, Venlafaxine
– Generalised anxiety disorder: Escitalopram, Paroxetine, Duloxetine, Venlafaxine
– OCD: Escitalopram, Fluoxetine, Fluvoxamine, Paroxetine, Sertraline, Clomipramine
– Bulimia nervosa: Fluoxetine
– PTSD: Paroxetine, Sertraline -
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 39
Incorrect
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What is the appropriate duration for a trial period in an individual who has been prescribed clozapine and has attained a minimum trough plasma concentration of 350µg/L?
Your Answer: 4 weeks
Correct Answer: 8 weeks
Explanation:To ensure sufficient efficacy, a proper evaluation of clozapine should span a minimum of 8 weeks while maintaining a plasma trough level of 350-400 µg/L of higher (Schulte, 2003).
Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 40
Incorrect
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What antidepressant is suggested for women who are taking tamoxifen?
Your Answer: Paroxetine
Correct Answer: Venlafaxine
Explanation:It is recommended to steer clear of fluoxetine, paroxetine, and bupropion. The safety of reboxetine is unknown due to lack of research. Venlafaxine is considered a safe option.
Tamoxifen and Antidepressant Interactions
Tamoxifen is a medication used to treat breast cancer by reducing relapse rates and increasing overall survival. It works by antagonizing estrogen in the breast, with its anti-estrogen affinity depending on its primary metabolite, endoxifen. However, tamoxifen is metabolized to endoxifen through the liver enzyme CYP2D6, and any drug that inhibits this enzyme can reduce the conversion of tamoxifen to endoxifen.
Women taking tamoxifen for breast cancer treatment of prevention may also take antidepressants for psychiatric disorders of hot flushes. Some antidepressants have been found to inhibit the metabolism of tamoxifen to its more active metabolites by the CYP2D6 enzyme, thereby decreasing its anticancer effect. Strong CYP2D6 inhibitors include paroxetine, fluoxetine, bupropion, and duloxetine, while moderate inhibitors include sertraline, escitalopram, and doxepin, and venlafaxine is a weak inhibitor.
Therefore, it is important for healthcare providers to consider potential drug interactions when prescribing antidepressants to women taking tamoxifen for breast cancer treatment of prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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