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  • Question 1 - A 28-year-old woman with a history of depression comes in 2 months postpartum...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman with a history of depression comes in 2 months postpartum with symptoms of low mood, lack of energy, and loss of pleasure for the past 3 weeks. She is currently breastfeeding. She has previously taken fluoxetine and found it effective but stopped during pregnancy. After a conversation, she has decided to resume her medication.
      Which antidepressant would be the best choice to initiate treatment?

      Your Answer: Citalopram

      Correct Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems

      Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of more than 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, with sensitivity and specificity of more than 90%. The questionnaire also includes a question about self-harm.

      ‘Baby-blues’ is seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occurs 3-7 days following birth. It is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Reassurance and support from healthcare professionals, particularly health visitors, play a key role in managing this condition. Most women with the baby blues will not require specific treatment other than reassurance.

      Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features are similar to depression seen in other circumstances, and cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. Although these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant.

      Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and requires admission to hospital, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Onset usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth, and features include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies. Paroxetine is recommended by SIGN because of the low milk/plasma ratio, while fluoxetine is best avoided due to a long half-life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      29
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  • Question 2 - A 26-year-old female patient visits her general practitioner with concerns about her interpersonal...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female patient visits her general practitioner with concerns about her interpersonal relationships both at work and in her personal life. She reveals that this has been a persistent issue since her teenage years. She finds it challenging to collaborate with others and identifies herself as a perfectionist. Additionally, she has been described by others as rigid. What personality disorder is indicated by these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Borderline personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Patients diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder tend to have inflexible attitudes towards morals, ethics, and values, and are often hesitant to delegate tasks to others. They exhibit perfectionistic tendencies and adhere to strict protocols in their work. This disorder makes it challenging for them to collaborate with others and adapt to different ways of doing things.

      Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.

      Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.

      Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 3 - A 42-year-old woman visits the clinic with her husband, who is worried about...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman visits the clinic with her husband, who is worried about her recent change in behavior. For the past two weeks, she has been acting out of character, spending large amounts of money on credit cards and wearing bold makeup and clothes that she wouldn't normally choose. She has also been experiencing insomnia, often staying up late at night to work on important projects that she can't disclose to her husband. The patient has a history of depression, and her mother was hospitalized for mental illness. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Bipolar Disorder

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Mental Disorders: Understanding the Symptoms

      Bipolar Disorder:
      A patient showing signs of mania, such as inflated self-esteem, pressured speech, reduced need for sleep, and engaging in high-risk behaviors, may be diagnosed with bipolar disorder. A manic episode requires a disturbed mood plus three of the above symptoms. A history of depression and a family history of psychiatric conditions, such as bipolar disorder, further support this diagnosis.

      Personality Disorder:
      Personality disorders are maladaptive mental disorders that typically develop at an early age. A patient in their mid-forties who has recently started experiencing mood-related symptoms, such as depression and mania, is unlikely to have a personality disorder. Types of personality disorders include paranoid, schizoid, schizotypal, borderline, histrionic, narcissistic, and obsessive-compulsive.

      Anxiety Disorder:
      Symptoms of anxiety include social withdrawal, excessive worry, and avoidance of risk. A patient exhibiting symptoms of mania, such as high energy and engaging in risky behaviors, is not displaying signs of anxiety disorder. However, anxiety disorder may coexist with bipolar disorder.

      Depression:
      Depression is characterized by low mood, lack of enjoyment in activities, difficulty concentrating, and suicidal thoughts. A patient who has a history of depression but is currently experiencing symptoms of mania is not exhibiting signs of depression.

      Schizophrenia:
      Schizophrenia is a complex mental disorder that requires several criteria for diagnosis. Symptoms include hallucinations, disordered speech and thought, paranoia, and social withdrawal. A patient who does not exhibit these symptoms is not eligible for a differential diagnosis of schizophrenia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 4 - A 7-year-old boy and his mother die in a car crash. Following these...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy and his mother die in a car crash. Following these deaths, the boy’s 16-year-old brother starts playing with the dead boy’s toys.
      This would most likely be an example of which of the following defence mechanisms?

      Your Answer: Sublimation

      Correct Answer: Identification

      Explanation:

      Defense Mechanisms: Coping Strategies for Unconscious Thoughts and Emotions

      Defense mechanisms are unconscious coping strategies that individuals use to protect themselves from anxiety, guilt, and other negative emotions. These mechanisms can be helpful in reducing the impact of stressful situations, but they can also lead to maladaptive behaviors if used excessively. Here are some common defense mechanisms:

      Identification: This mechanism involves adopting the characteristics or activities of another person to reduce the pain of separation or loss. For example, a child may imitate a favorite teacher to cope with the absence of a parent.

      Rationalization: This mechanism involves offering a false but acceptable explanation for behavior to avoid feelings of guilt or shame. For example, a student who fails an exam may blame the teacher for not providing enough study materials.

      Denial: This mechanism involves behaving as if one does not know something that they should reasonably be expected to know. For example, a person with a drinking problem may deny that they have a problem despite evidence to the contrary.

      Reaction Formation: This mechanism involves adopting behavior that is opposite to one’s true feelings. For example, a person who is attracted to someone they consider inappropriate may express disgust or hostility towards that person.

      Sublimation: This mechanism involves directing unacceptable impulses into acceptable outlets. For example, a person with aggressive tendencies may channel their energy into sports or other physical activities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 5 - A 38-year-old teacher has called for the pest controller for the third time...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old teacher has called for the pest controller for the third time in the past month. She is worried that her house is infested with rats and she frequently checks under the beds and around the property for any signs of the infestation. She mentions that she saw a therapist in her early twenties for obsessive hand washing and underwent a brief period of cognitive behavioural therapy.
      Upon physical examination, there are no abnormalities found. However, upon further questioning, she admits to feeling compelled to check for rats and is constantly anxious about cleanliness.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bipolar disease

      Correct Answer: Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)

      Explanation:

      Differentiating OCD from other mental health conditions

      Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is characterized by repetitive cycles of ritualistic behavior. It is important to differentiate OCD from other mental health conditions such as schizophrenia, anxiety, bipolar disease, and depression. Cognitive behavioral therapy and exposure response prevention are the mainstays of therapy for OCD, along with medication. Features consistent with schizophrenia, anxiety, bipolar disease, and depression are absent in OCD. Understanding the differences between these conditions is crucial in providing appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 6 - A 45-year-old patient with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is currently taking sulfasalazine,...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old patient with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is currently taking sulfasalazine, paracetamol, and ibuprofen for their condition. They have been experiencing low mood and have tried non-pharmaceutical interventions with little success. The patient now reports that their depressive symptoms are worsening, prompting the GP to consider starting them on an antidepressant. Which antidepressant would pose the highest risk of causing a GI bleed in this patient, necessitating the use of a proton pump inhibitor as a precaution?

      Your Answer: Citalopram

      Explanation:

      When prescribing an SSRI such as citalopram for depression, it is important to consider the potential risk of GI bleeding, especially if the patient is already taking an NSAID. This is because SSRIs can deplete platelet serotonin, which can reduce clot formation and increase the risk of bleeding. To mitigate this risk, a PPI should also be prescribed.

      TCAs like amitriptyline are also used to treat depression and pain syndromes, but they are not commonly associated with GI bleeds. Haloperidol, a typical antipsychotic, and selegiline, a MAOI, are rarely used for depression and are not typically associated with GI bleeds either.

      St John’s Wort, a plant commonly used in alternative medicine for depression, has not been associated with an increased risk of GI bleeding, but it can interfere with other medications and increase the risk of serotonin syndrome when used with other antidepressants.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

      When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 7 - A patient in their 50s is brought to the acute mental health unit...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in their 50s is brought to the acute mental health unit by the police after being found on the street shouting at people. They have no known past medical history.

      On examination, they are poorly dressed. When asked about their mood, they begin by asking what colour the sky is, then begin to talk about their strong dislike for cheese, followed by wanting to break the table lamp they own at home. Throughout the consultation, they speak slowly.

      What term best describes this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer: Circumstantiality

      Correct Answer: Knight's move

      Explanation:

      Knight’s move thinking involves illogical leaps from one idea to another without any discernible link between them, while flight of ideas involves moving from one idea to another with discernible links between them. In this scenario, the patient is exhibiting Knight’s move thinking, which is a thought disorder associated with schizophrenia. This is different from circumstantiality, which involves giving excessive, unnecessary detail without returning to the original point, and clang associations, which involves linking ideas based on their sound or rhyme. Flight of ideas, on the other hand, involves rapid and pressured speech with discernible links between ideas.

      Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 8 - A 29-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of mood and sleep disturbances. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of mood and sleep disturbances. She reveals that she was involved in a car accident a few months ago, which left her with minor injuries. However, she has been experiencing flashbacks of the incident and feels anxious when crossing roads, often avoiding them altogether. She also mentions being easily startled by car noises and horns. The woman feels fatigued and irritable, and her sleep is affected. What is the minimum duration of symptoms required for a probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: 12 weeks

      Correct Answer: 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      To receive a diagnosis of PTSD, symptoms must be evident for a minimum of four weeks. This indicates a history of experiencing classic signs and symptoms following a traumatic event. PTSD symptoms can be categorized into hyperarousal, re-experiencing phenomenon, avoidance of reminders, and emotional numbing. These symptoms occur after a traumatic life event, such as a near-death experience. If symptoms persist for less than four weeks, it would be considered an acute stress reaction. However, if symptoms continue beyond four weeks, the patient may be diagnosed with PTSD. It is important to note that the time frame refers to the duration of symptoms, not the time since the traumatic event.

      Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include experiences such as natural disasters, accidents, or even childhood abuse. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of situations or people associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and even substance abuse.

      Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, depending on the severity of the symptoms. Single-session interventions are not recommended, and watchful waiting may be used for mild symptoms lasting less than four weeks. Military personnel have access to treatment provided by the armed forces, while trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) or eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy may be used in more severe cases.

      It is important to note that drug treatments for PTSD should not be used as a routine first-line treatment for adults. If drug treatment is used, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), such as sertraline, should be tried. In severe cases, NICE recommends that risperidone may be used. Overall, understanding the symptoms and effective management of PTSD is crucial in supporting individuals who have experienced traumatic events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 9 - As a core trainee on call in England, you are faced with a...

    Incorrect

    • As a core trainee on call in England, you are faced with a situation where a 35-year-old patient who is informally admitted and may be suffering from psychosis threatens to leave the hospital while being suicidal. What section of the Mental Health Act can be used to detain this patient?

      Your Answer: 2

      Correct Answer: 5

      Explanation:

      Emergency Detention under Section 5(2) of the Mental Health Act

      Section 5(2) of the Mental Health Act provides a legal provision for emergency detention of patients suspected of having a psychiatric cause for their illness. This section can be invoked by registered medical practitioners who are F2 and above. Once invoked, the patient can be detained for up to 72 hours while awaiting a Mental Health Act assessment. This provision is crucial in situations where a patient’s mental health poses a risk to themselves or others, and urgent intervention is required. The 72-hour period allows for a thorough assessment of the patient’s mental health status and the development of an appropriate care plan. It is important to note that the use of this section should be in line with the principles of the Mental Health Act, which prioritizes the least restrictive option for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 10 - You are asked to assess a 76-year-old man who was admitted to the...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to assess a 76-year-old man who was admitted to the ward yesterday with agitation and distressing hallucinations believed to be caused by delirium from a urinary tract infection (UTI). The nursing staff is concerned that he is now exhibiting rigid movements and hand tremors, in addition to being very confused. The patient's wife mentions that he had previously experienced confusion, sleep disturbances, visual hallucinations, and abnormal movements. Which medication is most likely responsible for the patient's decline?

      Your Answer: Donepezil

      Correct Answer: Haloperidol

      Explanation:

      Medications for Lewy Body Dementia

      Lewy body dementia is a type of dementia that can cause confusion, sleep difficulties, visual hallucinations, and abnormal movements. It is important to choose the right medication for patients with this condition, as some drugs can worsen symptoms. Here are some medications that can be used to treat Lewy body dementia:

      1. Clonazepam: This drug can be used to treat rapid eye movement (REM) sleep behavior disorders.

      2. Donepezil: This medication is an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor that can help improve symptoms such as hallucinations and confusion.

      3. Memantine: This drug is an N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor antagonist that can be used in patients who cannot take acetylcholinesterase inhibitors.

      4. Rivastigmine: This medication is another type of acetylcholinesterase inhibitor that can be used to relieve some of the symptoms of Lewy body dementia.

      It is important to consult with a healthcare professional before starting any medication for Lewy body dementia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 11 - A 27-year-old man is brought to the hospital by his sister after he...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man is brought to the hospital by his sister after he spent all of his savings on buying expensive gifts for strangers on the street, claiming that he is here to spread love and happiness. He insists that he is the chosen one to bring joy to the world and will do anything to achieve it. He is very restless, and the doctor cannot communicate with him to gather a medical history. His sister confirms that he has a known diagnosis of bipolar disorder and is currently on medication. For the past few days, the patient has not slept much and has been up all night planning his mission to spread love. There is no evidence of any overdose, but his sister says that he may have missed his medication while on a trip last week. The doctor decides to keep the patient in the hospital under a Section until tomorrow morning when an approved mental health professional can evaluate him.
      For how long can the patient be detained under the Section used?

      Your Answer: One year

      Correct Answer: 72 hours

      Explanation:

      Time Limits for Mental Health Detention in the UK

      In the UK, there are several time limits for mental health detention that healthcare professionals must adhere to. These time limits vary depending on the type of detention and the circumstances of the patient. Here are the time limits for mental health detention in the UK:

      Section 5(2): 72 hours
      A doctor can use Section 5(2) to keep a patient in hospital for a maximum of 72 hours. This cannot be extended, so an approved mental health professional should assess the patient as soon as possible to decide if the patient needs to be detained under Section 2 or 3.

      Section 5(4): 6 hours
      Mental health or learning disability nurses can use Section 5(4) to keep a patient in hospital for a maximum of six hours. This cannot be extended, so arrangements should be made for Section 2 or 3 if the patient is to be kept longer in hospital.

      Section 3: 6 months initially, renewable for one year at a time
      Section 3 can be used to keep a patient in hospital for treatment for six months. It can be extended for another six months, and then after that for one year for each renewal. During the first six months, patients can only be treated against their will in the first three months. For the next three months, the patient can only be treated after an ‘approved second-opinion doctor’ gives their approval for the treatment.

      Section 2: 28 days
      Approved mental health professionals can use Section 2 to keep a patient in hospital for assessment for a maximum of 28 days. It cannot be extended, so if a longer stay is required for treatment, Section 3 needs to be applied for.

      Section 3 Renewal: one year
      Section 3 can be renewed for a second time, after it has been renewed for a first time for six months after an initial six months upon application of the Section. The renewal is for one year at a time.

      Understanding Time Limits for Mental Health Detention in the UK

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 12 - A 9-year-old patient is brought to the general practitioner by his parents because...

    Correct

    • A 9-year-old patient is brought to the general practitioner by his parents because he has been disruptive at school. His teachers report that he does not pay attention in class, bullies other classmates and takes their food during lunchtime without their permission. One teacher also reported that the patient was seen hurting the class hamster.
      What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Conduct disorder

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between Conduct Disorder, Major Depression, Oppositional Defiant Disorder, Antisocial Disorder, and Manic Episode

      Conduct Disorder, Major Depression, Oppositional Defiant Disorder, Antisocial Disorder, and Manic Episode are all mental health conditions that can present with similar symptoms. However, each disorder has its own unique characteristics that differentiate it from the others.

      Conduct Disorder is a disorder that affects individuals under the age of 18 and is associated with disruptive, bullying behavior and often torture of animals. It is characterized by repetitive behavior that violates the rights of others.

      Major Depression is associated with depressed mood, in addition to five of the following symptoms: sleep changes, loss of interest in previous hobbies or activities, guilt, decreased energy, difficulty concentrating, changes in appetite, sluggishness, and suicidal thoughts persisting for 2 weeks.

      Oppositional Defiant Disorder is characterized by behavior in opposition to authority, but there is no violation of the rights of others or extreme behavior such as bullying or animal cruelty.

      Antisocial Disorder is diagnosed in individuals who are 18 or older and exhibit signs of Conduct Disorder. It is characterized by a disregard for the rights of others and a lack of empathy.

      Manic Episode is associated with elevated mood lasting for 7 days. These patients feel as though they have increased energy, do not need sleep, engage in risky sexual activity and sometimes illicit behavior, feel above the law or invincible, are easily distractible, have flight of fancy, are agitated, and have pressured speech.

      It is important to differentiate between these disorders to ensure that individuals receive the appropriate treatment and support for their specific condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 13 - During an out of hours shift, you are called to see an 80-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • During an out of hours shift, you are called to see an 80-year-old man who has developed acute urinary retention on a background of 3 years of urinary hesitancy and poor stream. He has a history of ischaemic heart disease, hypertension and he tells you that his usual GP has recently started him on a new medication for neuropathic pain. Which of the following drugs is most likely to have precipitated the urinary retention?

      Your Answer: Diazepam

      Correct Answer: Amitriptyline

      Explanation:

      Urinary retention may be a side effect of tricyclic antidepressants, particularly with the use of Amitriptyline due to its anticholinergic properties. This can lead to symptoms such as tachycardia, dry mouth, and mydriasis. However, SSRIs like fluoxetine and SNRIs like venlafaxine are less likely to cause urinary retention and dry mouth. Benzodiazepines like diazepam do not have anticholinergic effects.

      Tricyclic Antidepressants for Neuropathic Pain

      Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) were once commonly used for depression, but their side-effects and toxicity in overdose have led to a decrease in their use. However, they are still widely used in the treatment of neuropathic pain, where smaller doses are typically required. TCAs such as low-dose amitriptyline are commonly used for the management of neuropathic pain and the prophylaxis of headache, while lofepramine has a lower incidence of toxicity in overdose. It is important to note that some TCAs, such as amitriptyline and dosulepin, are considered more dangerous in overdose than others.

      Common side-effects of TCAs include drowsiness, dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention, and lengthening of the QT interval. When choosing a TCA for neuropathic pain, the level of sedation may also be a consideration. Amitriptyline, clomipramine, dosulepin, and trazodone are more sedative, while imipramine, lofepramine, and nortriptyline are less sedative. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the appropriate TCA and dosage for the individual’s specific needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 14 - A 60-year-old female with depression is seen by her psychiatrist. She reports that...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old female with depression is seen by her psychiatrist. She reports that her antidepressants are not improving her depressed mood. She expresses a sense of detachment from her surroundings, including her loved ones.
      What is the most appropriate term to describe the patient's abnormality?

      Your Answer: Reduced affect display

      Correct Answer: Derealisation

      Explanation:

      Derealisation

      Derealisation is a phenomenon where an individual experiences a sense of detachment from their surroundings, leading them to believe that the world around them is not real. It is different from depersonalisation, which is a feeling of detachment from oneself. While depression may cause symptoms such as anhedonia, nihilistic delusions, and reduced affect display, these are not necessarily present in someone experiencing derealisation.

      In summary, derealisation is a dissociative experience that can make an individual feel as though their environment is not real. It is important to note that this is a distinct experience from depersonalisation and may occur without other symptoms commonly associated with depression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 15 - A 32-year-old woman confides in you that she experienced childhood sexual abuse. Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman confides in you that she experienced childhood sexual abuse. Which one of the following features is not a characteristic feature of post-traumatic stress disorder?

      Your Answer: Avoidance

      Correct Answer: Loss of inhibitions

      Explanation:

      Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include experiences such as natural disasters, accidents, or even childhood abuse. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of situations or people associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and even substance abuse.

      Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, depending on the severity of the symptoms. Single-session interventions are not recommended, and watchful waiting may be used for mild symptoms lasting less than four weeks. Military personnel have access to treatment provided by the armed forces, while trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) or eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy may be used in more severe cases.

      It is important to note that drug treatments for PTSD should not be used as a routine first-line treatment for adults. If drug treatment is used, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), such as sertraline, should be tried. In severe cases, NICE recommends that risperidone may be used. Overall, understanding the symptoms and effective management of PTSD is crucial in supporting individuals who have experienced traumatic events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      10
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  • Question 16 - A person in their mid-30s has been taking an anti-psychotic medication for a...

    Incorrect

    • A person in their mid-30s has been taking an anti-psychotic medication for a few years. They have also recently begun taking fluoxetine. During a visit to their general practitioner, they reported experiencing troubling symptoms such as lip smacking, difficulty swallowing, and excessive blinking. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute dystonia

      Correct Answer: Tardive dyskinesia

      Explanation:

      Tardive dyskinesia is a side effect that occurs after taking antipsychotics for an extended period of time. The patient’s recent use of fluoxetine is not relevant to this condition. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome and acute dystonia typically manifest within the first few days or weeks of starting an antipsychotic medication, making them unlikely in this case. Malignant hyperthermia, on the other hand, is a potential side effect of anaesthetic drugs.

      Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 17 - A 40-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with symptoms, including chorea, incoordination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with symptoms, including chorea, incoordination, personality changes and psychiatric symptoms such as depression. His father died at the age of 55. You suspect this may be a case of Huntington’s disease.
      Which of the following investigations would be the most useful to confirm this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Positron emission tomography (PET) scan

      Correct Answer: Genetic testing

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Huntington’s Disease: Genetic Testing, CT Scan, EEG, MRI Scan, and PET Scan

      Huntington’s Disease is a genetic disorder that affects the brain, causing progressive motor, cognitive, and psychiatric symptoms. There are several investigations that can be done to confirm the diagnosis and assess disease progression.

      Genetic testing is the most useful way to confirm the diagnosis of Huntington’s Disease. A positive result consists of 40 or more CAG repeats on one of the alleles. It is important to provide genetic counselling to patients if they choose to get this test done.

      CT scans can be useful later on in the disease, showing loss of striatal volume and an increase in the size of the frontal horns of the lateral ventricles of the brain. However, these findings are not always present early on in the disease, so a CT scan would not be the most useful investigation.

      EEGs are not usually done unless another cause for the symptoms, such as epilepsy, is suspected.

      MRI scans can also show caudate or striatal atrophy. However, it is important to note that these findings are not always specific to Huntington’s Disease, making this investigation less useful.

      PET scans are not routinely done to detect Huntington’s Disease but may be used in combination with other investigations to assess disease progression. Systematic reviews have shown that when they are used, the scan results show differences in brain metabolism, dopaminergic function, and phosphodiesterase levels when assessing the progression of Huntington’s Disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 18 - A 36-year-old man with a known history of severe depression has been in...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man with a known history of severe depression has been in hospital for the past year. He was diagnosed with depression at the age of 23 and has been on antidepressants since. He has had multiple self-harm and suicide attempts in the past. For the past year, he has been receiving treatment in hospital and has been making some progress with regard to his mental health. He is not happy to be in hospital, but the doctors thought that it was in his best interests to keep him in hospital for treatment. He has been under a Section which allowed him to be kept in hospital for six months. At the end of the first six months, the doctors applied for a second time for him to be kept for another six months, as they feel he is not yet fit for discharge.
      For how long can the relevant Section be renewed for this patient for the third time?

      Your Answer: Three months

      Correct Answer: One year

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Time Limits of Mental Health Detention in the UK

      In the UK, mental health detention is governed by specific time limits depending on the type of detention and the purpose of the detention. Here are some of the key time limits to be aware of:

      – Section 2: This is the Section used for assessment, and a patient can be kept in hospital for a maximum of 28 days under this Section. It cannot be extended.
      – Section 3: This is the Section used for treatment, and a patient can be detained for up to six months initially. The Section can be renewed for another six months, and then for one year at a time. Treatment without consent can be given for the first three months, and then only with the approval of an ‘approved second-opinion doctor’ for the next three months.
      – Two years: While a patient can be kept in hospital for up to two years for treatment, Section 3 cannot be renewed for two years at a time. The patient can also be discharged earlier if the doctor thinks the patient is well enough.
      – Six months: This is the time for which an initial Section 3 can be applied for and the time for which it can be renewed for a second time. For a third time and onwards, Section 3 can be renewed for one year each time, but the patient can be discharged earlier if doctors think it is not necessary for the patient to be under Section anymore.

      Understanding these time limits is important for both patients and healthcare professionals involved in mental health detention in the UK.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 19 - You are part of the mental health team assessing a 65-year-old woman in...

    Incorrect

    • You are part of the mental health team assessing a 65-year-old woman in the emergency department who has presented with an intentional paracetamol overdose. She is a retired teacher and a devout Christian. She lives alone in a house and her two adult daughters live in a different state. When you ask her, she says that she regrets taking the paracetamol, but is not sure if she would try to do it again.

      What factor decreases her likelihood of carrying out another attempt in the future?

      Your Answer: His employment status

      Correct Answer: His religious beliefs

      Explanation:

      Protective factors against completed suicide include religious beliefs, social support, regretting a previous attempt, and having children living at home. However, older age, male gender, and lack of social support are risk factors for suicide. While women are more likely to attempt suicide, men are more likely to die by suicide, possibly due to stigma and different suicide methods. In the case of the individual mentioned, his children living far away may increase his risk of suicide due to a lack of social support.

      Suicide Risk Factors and Protective Factors

      Suicide risk assessment is a common practice in psychiatric care, with patients being stratified into high, medium, or low risk categories. However, there is a lack of evidence on the positive predictive value of individual risk factors. A review in the BMJ concluded that such assessments may not be useful in guiding decision-making, as 50% of suicides occur in patients deemed low risk. Nevertheless, certain factors have been associated with an increased risk of suicide, including male sex, history of deliberate self-harm, alcohol or drug misuse, mental illness, depression, schizophrenia, chronic disease, advancing age, unemployment or social isolation, and being unmarried, divorced, or widowed.

      If a patient has attempted suicide, there are additional risk factors to consider, such as efforts to avoid discovery, planning, leaving a written note, final acts such as sorting out finances, and using a violent method. On the other hand, there are protective factors that can reduce the risk of suicide, such as family support, having children at home, and religious belief. It is important to consider both risk and protective factors when assessing suicide risk and developing a treatment plan.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 20 - A 21-year-old woman comes to your clinic for an appointment scheduled by her...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old woman comes to your clinic for an appointment scheduled by her father, who is worried about her lack of sleep. During the consultation, the patient reveals that she no longer feels the need to sleep for more than 2-3 hours. She appears talkative and mentions that she has been working on an online business that will bring her a lot of money. She is annoyed that people are questioning her, especially since she usually feels down, but now feels much better. There are no reports of delusions or hallucinations. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hypomanic phase of bipolar disorder

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing a significant decrease in sleep, but does not feel tired. This, along with other symptoms such as being excessively talkative and irritable, having an overconfident attitude towards their business, and a history of depression, suggests that they may be in a hypomanic phase of bipolar disorder. Insomnia, which typically results in feelings of tiredness and a desire to sleep, is less likely to be the cause of the patient’s symptoms. The absence of delusions or hallucinations rules out psychosis as a possible explanation. A manic phase of bipolar disorder is also unlikely, as the patient does not exhibit any delusions or hallucinations. The combination of symptoms suggests that there is more to the patient’s condition than just a resolution of depression.

      Understanding Bipolar Disorder

      Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by alternating periods of mania/hypomania and depression. It typically develops in the late teen years and has a lifetime prevalence of 2%. There are two recognized types of bipolar disorder: type I, which involves mania and depression, and type II, which involves hypomania and depression.

      Mania and hypomania both refer to abnormally elevated mood or irritability, but mania is more severe and can include psychotic symptoms for 7 days or more. Hypomania, on the other hand, involves decreased or increased function for 4 days or more. The presence of psychotic symptoms suggests mania.

      Management of bipolar disorder may involve psychological interventions specifically designed for the condition, as well as medication. Lithium is the mood stabilizer of choice, but valproate can also be used. Antipsychotic therapy, such as olanzapine or haloperidol, may be used to manage mania/hypomania, while fluoxetine is the antidepressant of choice for depression. It is important to address any co-morbidities, as there is an increased risk of diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and COPD in individuals with bipolar disorder.

      If symptoms suggest hypomania, routine referral to the community mental health team (CMHT) is recommended. However, if there are features of mania or severe depression, an urgent referral to the CMHT should be made. Understanding bipolar disorder and its management is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 21 - A 25-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of feeling down for the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of feeling down for the past 4 months. She reports having trouble sleeping and losing interest in activities she used to enjoy. Additionally, she has been experiencing excessive worry about the future. The patient has a history of dysmenorrhoea, which is managed with mefenamic acid. The GP recommends cognitive behavioural therapy and prescribes sertraline. What other medication should be considered given the patient's medical history?

      Your Answer: Duloxetine

      Correct Answer: Omeprazole

      Explanation:

      To reduce the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding when taking both an SSRI and an NSAID like mefenamic acid, it is recommended to prescribe a PPI such as omeprazole. The combined oral contraceptive pill is not appropriate in this case as the patient is already taking mefenamic acid for dysmenorrhoea. Duloxetine, an SNRI, should not be prescribed as the patient has not yet tried an SSRI. Naproxen, another NSAID, is also not recommended as the patient is already taking mefenamic acid.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

      When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 22 - Barbara, a 75-year-old recently widowed woman, visits your medical practice with her son,...

    Incorrect

    • Barbara, a 75-year-old recently widowed woman, visits your medical practice with her son, who is concerned about his mother's memory. Over the past few months, she has been forgetting appointments and conversations that they had just a few days ago, requiring frequent reminders to recall recent events. When you speak with Barbara, she mentions that she has lost her appetite and is waking up earlier than usual. She denies experiencing any hallucinations or issues with movement.
      After administering a mini mental state exam, Barbara scores 23, and you observe that she is having difficulty focusing on your questions, often responding with I don't know.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vascular dementia

      Correct Answer: Depression

      Explanation:

      Depression and Alzheimer’s can have similar presentations in elderly patients, so it’s important to consider depression as a possible cause. Depression is a common issue among the elderly, and it can cause concentration problems that may be mistaken for memory loss.

      There are several key symptoms that suggest depression, including loss of appetite, early morning wakening, poor concentration, and recent loss of a spouse. When conducting a mini mental state examination, patients with depression may respond with I don’t know, while those with Alzheimer’s may try to answer but give incorrect responses.

      MMSE scores can help determine the severity of cognitive impairment, with scores of 24-30 indicating no impairment, 18-23 indicating mild impairment, and 0-17 indicating severe impairment.

      Differentiating between Depression and Dementia

      Depression and dementia are two conditions that can have similar symptoms, making it difficult to distinguish between the two. However, there are certain factors that can suggest a diagnosis of depression over dementia.

      One of the key factors is the duration and onset of symptoms. Depression often has a short history and a rapid onset, whereas dementia tends to develop slowly over time. Additionally, biological symptoms such as weight loss and sleep disturbance are more commonly associated with depression than dementia.

      Patients with depression may also express concern about their memory, but they are often reluctant to take tests and may be disappointed with the results. In contrast, patients with dementia may not be aware of their memory loss or may not express concern about it.

      The mini-mental test score can also be variable in patients with depression, whereas in dementia, there is typically a global memory loss, particularly in recent memory.

      In summary, while depression and dementia can have overlapping symptoms, careful consideration of the duration and onset of symptoms, biological symptoms, patient concerns, and cognitive testing can help differentiate between the two conditions.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 23 - A 40-year-old mid-level manager is referred by his company after a recent incident....

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old mid-level manager is referred by his company after a recent incident. He had been working on a major project that would secure his promotion and position in the firm. After months of hard work, he was just about to finalize the project when his team member made a mistake that caused a setback. Frustrated by the setback, your patient began yelling, stomping on the floor and throwing objects until he broke a window.
      Which one of the following ego defences best describes his behaviour?

      Your Answer: Sublimation

      Correct Answer: Regression

      Explanation:

      Understanding Ego Defence Mechanisms: Types and Examples

      Regression, Sublimation, Identification, Dissociation, and Reaction Formation are all ego defence mechanisms that individuals use to cope with stress and anxiety.

      Regression is an immature defence mechanism where individuals revert to childish behaviour when faced with stress. For example, a frustrated person may throw a temper tantrum like a toddler.

      Sublimation, on the other hand, is a mature defence mechanism where individuals channel their unacceptable personality traits into respectable work that aligns with their values.

      Identification is when individuals model the behaviour of a more powerful person. For instance, a victim of child abuse may become a child abuser in adulthood.

      Dissociation is an immature defence mechanism where individuals temporarily modify their personal identity to avoid distress. An extreme form of dissociation is dissociative identity disorder.

      Finally, Reaction Formation is an immature defence mechanism where individuals repress unacceptable emotions and replace them with their exact opposite. For example, a man with homoerotic desires may champion anti-homosexual public policy.

      Understanding these ego defence mechanisms can help individuals recognize and cope with their own stress and anxiety in a healthy way.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 24 - A 50-year-old woman comes to you complaining of experiencing electric shock sensations and...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to you complaining of experiencing electric shock sensations and dizziness in her arms and legs for the past three days. She has a medical history of chronic pain, depression, and schizophrenia. When you inquire about her medications and drug use, she seems hesitant to provide a clear answer. What could be the probable reason behind her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Alcohol withdrawal

      Correct Answer: SSRI discontinuation syndrome

      Explanation:

      If someone suddenly stops or reduces their use of SSRIs, they may experience symptoms of SSRI discontinuation syndrome, including dizziness, electric shock sensations, and anxiety. It is possible that this woman has decided to stop taking her antidepressants. Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically include anxiety, tremors, and sweating. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare reaction that can occur with antipsychotic use and may present with fever, confusion, and muscle rigidity. Opiate withdrawal may cause anxiety, sweating, and gastrointestinal symptoms such as diarrhea and vomiting.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

      When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 25 - A 30-year-old man comes to see his GP complaining of headaches, nausea, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man comes to see his GP complaining of headaches, nausea, and anxiety that have been ongoing for the past year. He has sought medical attention from various healthcare providers and was prescribed codeine pain relief, which he has now finished. Upon examination, there are no notable findings, and private investigations including a CT and MRI of the head have come back normal. Despite being reassured multiple times, he remains convinced that he has a brain tumour and requests further testing and pain relief. His paternal grandfather died from a brain tumour. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Somatisation disorder

      Correct Answer: Hypochondriasis

      Explanation:

      The correct diagnosis for this patient is hypochondriasis, also known as illness anxiety disorder. This is characterized by a persistent belief in the presence of a serious underlying disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results and reassurance from healthcare providers. It is helpful to remember that hypochondriasis is worrying about cancer, as both words contain the letter C and cancer is an example of a serious underlying disease.

      Conversion disorder, factitious disorder, and malingering are all incorrect diagnoses for this patient. Conversion disorder involves functional neurological symptoms without clear cause, often traced back to a psychological trigger. Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves intentionally producing physical or psychological problems to assume a sick role or deceive healthcare providers. Malingering involves fraudulently simulating or exaggerating symptoms for financial or other gains. None of these diagnoses fit the patient’s symptoms and concerns, as they are not consciously feigning symptoms, seeking material gain, or assuming a sick role. The patient is genuinely worried about a serious underlying condition being missed.

      Psychiatric Terms for Unexplained Symptoms

      There are various psychiatric terms used to describe patients who exhibit symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. One such disorder is somatisation disorder, which involves the presence of multiple physical symptoms for at least two years, and the patient’s refusal to accept reassurance or negative test results. Another disorder is illness anxiety disorder, which is characterized by a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results.

      Conversion disorder is another condition that involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient does not consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Patients with this disorder may be indifferent to their apparent disorder, a phenomenon known as la belle indifference. Dissociative disorder, on the other hand, involves the process of ‘separating off’ certain memories from normal consciousness, and may manifest as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is the most severe form of dissociative disorder and was previously known as multiple personality disorder.

      Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms. Finally, malingering is the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms with the intention of financial or other gain. Understanding these psychiatric terms can help healthcare professionals better diagnose and treat patients with unexplained symptoms.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 26 - A 70-year-old man comes in for his routine psychiatric follow-up appointment. He has...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man comes in for his routine psychiatric follow-up appointment. He has a history of schizophrenia that has been difficult to manage, but has been stable for the past 5 years on various antipsychotic medications. He also has type II diabetes. During the appointment, he reports experiencing repetitive, involuntary movements of his lips and tongue, including lip smacking and grimacing. Which medication is the most likely culprit for these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Haloperidol

      Explanation:

      Understanding Tardive Dyskinesia and its Association with Antipsychotic Drugs

      Tardive dyskinesia is a disorder characterized by involuntary and repetitive movements, including lip puckering, excessive blinking, and pursing of the lips. This condition is commonly associated with the use of typical (older generation) antipsychotics such as haloperidol, prochlorperazine, and flupentixol. However, newer generation (atypical) antipsychotics like olanzapine, quetiapine, risperidone, and clozapine have a lower risk of causing tardive dyskinesia.

      If tardive dyskinesia is diagnosed, the causative drug should be discontinued. It is important to note that the dyskinesia may persist for months after drug withdrawal and may even be permanent. Metformin is not linked to tardive dyskinesia.

      Risperidone is an atypical antipsychotic used to treat schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, and autism. Current evidence suggests that the risk of developing tardive dyskinesia is lower than with typical antipsychotic use. To prevent tardive dyskinesia in chronic psychoses, it is recommended to use the lowest effective dose for the shortest possible time, while balancing the fact that increased doses are more beneficial to prevent recurrence.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 27 - A 38-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department complaining of epigastric pain. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department complaining of epigastric pain. The patient reports that he developed acute abdominal pain 2 hours prior to presentation after eating a cheeseburger. The patient otherwise has no significant past medical history. He does not take any medications and denies smoking, alcohol consumption and drug use. He has been recently been released from prison and has not got stable living and has had to sleep outside since his release.
      On examination, the patient has normal vital signs. His abdominal examination demonstrates normoactive bowel sounds, no tenderness to palpation in the epigastrium and no guarding or rebound tenderness. Rectal exam for stool occult blood is negative and a chest X-ray does not reveal free air under the diaphragm. A right upper quadrant ultrasound does not demonstrate stones. The doctor recommends antacids. When the doctor tells the patient that he is safe for discharge, the patient insists that he must be admitted to hospital for further tests.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Factitious or induced illness

      Correct Answer: Malingering

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between Malingering, Factitious Disorder, Conversion Disorder, and Hypochondriasis

      When a patient presents with physical symptoms but there are no physical or imaging signs of significant illness, the likely diagnosis is malingering. In such cases, it is important to investigate the patient’s history to see if there could be other factors impacting their symptoms. Malingering is often suspected when a patient insists on staying in the hospital despite negative test results.

      Factitious disorder refers to a patient who assumes the sick role without any physical or organic disease. These patients find satisfaction in being taken care of and often seek frequent outpatient visits and psychotherapy.

      Factitious or induced illness is similar to factitious disorder, but it involves a patient seeking the sick role vicariously through a second patient. For example, a mother suffering from factitious disorder may abuse her child so that she can bring the child to the doctor for treatment. The patient assumes the sick role by proxy through the child.

      Conversion disorder refers to the manifestation of psychological illness as neurologic pathology. Patients with conversion disorder suffer from symptoms such as weakness, numbness, blindness, or paralysis as a result of underlying psychiatric illness. They are often not bothered by their symptoms, a condition known as la belle indifférence.

      Hypochondriasis refers to the fear of having a medical illness despite negative tests and reassurance. It is not associated with secondary gain.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 28 - You are a junior doctor working at an inpatient psychiatry unit. You have...

    Incorrect

    • You are a junior doctor working at an inpatient psychiatry unit. You have been asked to assess a patient by the nursing staff as they are currently occupied by a distressed patient and relative. The patient you've been asked to review has known schizophrenia and wishes to leave the unit. However, following consultation with the patient, you are concerned they are exhibiting features of an acute psychotic episode.
      Which section of the Mental Health Act (2007) could be used to detain the patient?

      Your Answer: Section 7

      Correct Answer: Section 5(2)

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Different Sections of the Mental Health Act (2007)

      The Mental Health Act (2007) provides a legal framework for patients with confirmed or suspected mental disorders that pose a risk to themselves or the public. The Act outlines specific guidelines for detention, treatment, and the individuals authorized to use its powers. Here are some of the key sections of the Mental Health Act:

      Section 5(2): This section allows for the temporary detention of a patient already in the hospital for up to 72 hours, after which a full Mental Health Act assessment must be conducted. A doctor who is fully registered (FY2 or above) can use this section to detain a patient.

      Section 3: This section is used for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, with the exact mental disorder being treated stated on the application. It can be renewed for a further six months if required, and the patient has the right to appeal.

      Section 2: This section allows for compulsory admission for assessment of presumed mental disorder. The section lasts for 28 days and must be signed by two doctors, one of whom is approved under Section 12(2), usually a consultant psychiatrist, and another doctor who knows the patient in a professional capacity, usually their GP.

      Section 5(4): This section can be used by psychiatric nursing staff to detain a patient for up to 6 hours while arranging review by appropriate medical personnel for further assessment and either conversion to a Section 5(2). If this time elapses, there is no legal right for the nursing staff to detain the patient. In this scenario, the nursing staff are unavailable to assess the patient.

      Section 7: This section is an application for guardianship. It is used for patients in the community where an approved mental health practitioner (AMHP), usually a social worker, requests compulsory treatment requiring the patient to live in a specified location, attend specific locations for treatment, and allow access for authorized persons.

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  • Question 29 - A 28-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of poor memory. He works...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of poor memory. He works in a consulting company and recently faced trouble at work after missing a flight to a client in Tokyo. He has difficulty falling asleep and wakes up feeling exhausted. Sometimes he wakes up in the middle of the night screaming. When awake, he cannot relax and appears to be constantly on edge.

      The patient has a history of attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder during childhood and one major depressive episode during his university years. He has not had any mental health-related complaints since then. He drinks one bottle of wine on Saturdays with his wife and admits to occasional past cocaine use. However, he stopped using cocaine after being ambushed and stabbed while dealing with a dealer during his last vacation in Thailand two months ago. His wife has recently complained that he appears emotionally unavailable.

      Upon physical examination, no abnormalities are found. However, during the mental state examination, the patient exhibits low mood and an increased startle response. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute stress disorder

      Correct Answer: Post-traumatic stress disorder

      Explanation:

      The individual is displaying common symptoms of PTSD, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through nightmares, avoiding triggers associated with the event, and experiencing hyperarousal such as hypervigilance and difficulty sleeping. It has been over a month since the traumatic event occurred, ruling out acute stress disorder. There are no signs of psychosis, and the individual has been sober from cocaine for two months. While anxiety is a symptom of PTSD, there is no indication of a generalized anxiety disorder or major depressive episode.

      Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include experiences such as natural disasters, accidents, or even childhood abuse. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of situations or people associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and even substance abuse.

      Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, depending on the severity of the symptoms. Single-session interventions are not recommended, and watchful waiting may be used for mild symptoms lasting less than four weeks. Military personnel have access to treatment provided by the armed forces, while trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) or eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy may be used in more severe cases.

      It is important to note that drug treatments for PTSD should not be used as a routine first-line treatment for adults. If drug treatment is used, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), such as sertraline, should be tried. In severe cases, NICE recommends that risperidone may be used. Overall, understanding the symptoms and effective management of PTSD is crucial in supporting individuals who have experienced traumatic events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 30 - A 32-year-old man with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is brought in by...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is brought in by police under section 136 of the mental health act. His psychiatrist has recently adjusted his medication. He was found dancing in the middle of a busy street claiming to be the king of the world.

      Upon assessment, he appears elated, his speech is rapid and he appears easily distracted. He believes he has been chosen by a higher power to save the world from destruction and hasn't slept for days as a result.

      The patient is sectioned and admitted to the mental health ward.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Stop sertraline

      Correct Answer: Stop sertraline and start olanzapine

      Explanation:

      When managing mania or hypomania in patients who are taking antidepressants, it may be necessary to discontinue the use of the antidepressant and initiate treatment with antipsychotic medication.

      Understanding Bipolar Disorder

      Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by alternating periods of mania/hypomania and depression. It typically develops in the late teen years and has a lifetime prevalence of 2%. There are two recognized types of bipolar disorder: type I, which involves mania and depression, and type II, which involves hypomania and depression.

      Mania and hypomania both refer to abnormally elevated mood or irritability, but mania is more severe and can include psychotic symptoms for 7 days or more. Hypomania, on the other hand, involves decreased or increased function for 4 days or more. The presence of psychotic symptoms suggests mania.

      Management of bipolar disorder may involve psychological interventions specifically designed for the condition, as well as medication. Lithium is the mood stabilizer of choice, but valproate can also be used. Antipsychotic therapy, such as olanzapine or haloperidol, may be used to manage mania/hypomania, while fluoxetine is the antidepressant of choice for depression. It is important to address any co-morbidities, as there is an increased risk of diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and COPD in individuals with bipolar disorder.

      If symptoms suggest hypomania, routine referral to the community mental health team (CMHT) is recommended. However, if there are features of mania or severe depression, an urgent referral to the CMHT should be made. Understanding bipolar disorder and its management is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 31 - Samantha is a 38-year-old female who has come to the crisis team with...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 38-year-old female who has come to the crisis team with suicidal thoughts. Upon further inquiry, Samantha also reveals experiencing low mood, lack of energy, early morning awakenings, and difficulty concentrating. She reports that these symptoms are persistent, but she has both good and bad days. Samantha has no prior psychiatric history. What medication would be the most suitable to initiate treatment for Samantha?

      Your Answer: Mirtazapine

      Correct Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      When managing a patient with depression, it is important to consider several factors according to NICE guidelines. These include managing suicide risk, safeguarding concerns for vulnerable individuals, and any comorbid conditions such as substance abuse. If the patient exhibits psychotic symptoms or eating disorders, seeking expert advice is recommended. For those with mild depression or subthreshold symptoms, active monitoring and follow-up appointments are suggested. Psychological interventions through IAPT are recommended for persistent subthreshold or mild-to-moderate depression, while antidepressants and high-intensity psychological interventions are recommended for moderate or severe depression. When prescribing antidepressants, it is important to consider the patient’s history and any chronic physical health problems, with sertraline being preferred in such cases due to its lower risk of drug interactions. Practical solutions to stressors contributing to depression should also be discussed.

      In 2022, NICE updated its guidelines on managing depression and now classifies it as either less severe or more severe based on a patient’s PHQ-9 score. For less severe depression, NICE recommends discussing treatment options with patients and considering the least intrusive and resource-intensive treatment first. Antidepressant medication should not be routinely offered as first-line treatment unless it is the patient’s preference. Treatment options for less severe depression include guided self-help, group cognitive behavioral therapy, group behavioral activation, individual CBT or BA, group exercise, group mindfulness and meditation, interpersonal psychotherapy, SSRIs, counseling, and short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy. For more severe depression, NICE recommends a shared decision-making approach and suggests a combination of individual CBT and an antidepressant as the preferred treatment option. Other treatment options for more severe depression include individual CBT or BA, antidepressant medication, individual problem-solving, counseling, short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy, interpersonal psychotherapy, guided self-help, and group exercise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 32 - As an F2 in psychiatry, you come across the notes of a 27-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • As an F2 in psychiatry, you come across the notes of a 27-year-old man who is noted to prefer solitude, has never been in a romantic relationship, and has no desire for one. He also displays minimal interest in engaging in sexual activities with others. Despite performing well at work, he places little importance on feedback from his colleagues. Based on this information, which personality disorder is most likely present in this individual?

      Your Answer: Antisocial

      Correct Answer: Schizoid

      Explanation:

      Schizoid personality disorder is characterized by a preference for solitude, a lack of interest in close relationships, and a low libido. It is important to note that while asexuality is recognized as part of the LGBTQ+ spectrum, it is not included in the diagnostic criteria for this disorder. The DSM-5 and ICD-10 both list a lack of desire for close relationships, a preference for solitary activities, and a limited capacity for expressing emotions as key features of schizoid personality disorder. Individuals with this disorder may also appear indifferent to praise or criticism, lack close friends or confidants, and exhibit emotional detachment or flattened affectivity. In contrast, borderline personality disorder is characterized by emotional instability in relationships, including sudden mood swings, rages, self-harming behaviors, and intense jealousy. Dependent personality disorder involves a reliance on others for reassurance and decision-making.

      Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.

      Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.

      Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 33 - A 28-year-old woman has had >10 very short relationships in the past year,...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman has had >10 very short relationships in the past year, all of which she thought were the love of her life. She is prone to impulsive behaviour such as gambling and binge eating, and she has dabbled in drugs. She also engages in self-harm.
      Which of the following personality disorders most accurately describes her?

      Your Answer: Borderline personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Understanding Personality Disorders: Clusters and Traits

      Personality disorders can be categorized into three main clusters based on their characteristics. Cluster A includes odd or eccentric personalities such as schizoid and paranoid personality disorder. Schizoid individuals tend to be emotionally detached and struggle with forming close relationships, while paranoid individuals are suspicious and distrustful of others.

      Cluster B includes dramatic, erratic, or emotional personalities such as borderline and histrionic personality disorder. Borderline individuals often have intense and unstable relationships, exhibit impulsive behavior, and may have a history of self-harm or suicide attempts. Histrionic individuals are attention-seeking, manipulative, and tend to be overly dramatic.

      Cluster C includes anxious personalities such as obsessive-compulsive personality disorder. These individuals tend to be perfectionists, controlling, and overly cautious.

      Understanding the different clusters and traits associated with personality disorders can help individuals recognize and seek appropriate treatment for themselves or loved ones.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 34 - A 45-year-old man with a history of schizophrenia no longer reports hallucinations or...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man with a history of schizophrenia no longer reports hallucinations or delusions. However, he spends many hours doing nothing, has trouble reading a book or watching a film and rarely speaks spontaneously or fluently. His grooming is poor and he is socially withdrawn.
      What is a positron emission tomography (PET) scan most likely to show?

      Your Answer: Symmetrical decrease in volume of ventricles

      Correct Answer: Hypoactivity of the prefrontal lobes, enlarged cerebral ventricles

      Explanation:

      Brain Function and Psychiatric Disorders: PET Scan Findings

      Major psychiatric syndromes, such as schizophrenia, mania, and depression, involve alterations in sensory processing, volitional behavior, environmental adaptation, and regulation of strong emotions. PET scans have shown that hypoactivity of the prefrontal lobes and enlarged cerebral ventricles are most likely to be associated with schizophrenia. On the other hand, hyperactivity of the prefrontal lobes is linked to obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). The prefrontal cortex plays a crucial role in planning, temporal sequencing, abstract thought, problem-solving, motility, attention, and the modulation of emotion. Lesions of these pathways impair pursuit of goal-oriented activity. PET scans have also revealed decreased metabolic activity in the temporal lobes in some patients with schizophrenia. However, increased occipital lobe activity is not likely to be seen on PET scans. Additionally, symmetrical enlargement of cerebral ventricles is a well-validated finding in patients suffering from schizophrenia.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 35 - A 35-year-old male with a history of daily alcohol consumption for the last...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male with a history of daily alcohol consumption for the last five years is admitted to the hospital emergency room. He is experiencing acute visual hallucinations, seeing spiders all around him, and is unable to recognize his family members. He is also exhibiting aggressive behavior and tremors. The patient had stopped drinking alcohol for two days prior to admission. On examination, he has a blood pressure of 170/100 mmHg, tremors, increased psychomotor activity, fearful affect, hallucinatory behavior, disorientation, impaired judgment, and insight. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Schizophrenia

      Correct Answer: Delirium tremens

      Explanation:

      Delirium Tremens

      Delirium tremens (DT) is a severe and potentially life-threatening condition that can occur when someone abruptly stops drinking alcohol. Symptoms can begin within a few hours of cessation, but they may not peak until 48-72 hours later. The symptoms of DT can include tremors, irritability, insomnia, nausea and vomiting, hallucinations (auditory, visual, or olfactory), confusion, delusions, severe agitation, and seizures. Physical findings may be non-specific and include tachycardia, hyperthermia, hypertension, tachypnea, diaphoresis, tremor, mydriasis, ataxia, altered mental status, hallucinations, and cardiovascular collapse.

      It is important to note that not everyone who stops drinking alcohol will experience DT. However, those who have a history of heavy alcohol use or have experienced withdrawal symptoms in the past are at a higher risk. DT can be a medical emergency and requires immediate treatment.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 36 - A man has been hospitalised for severe psychiatric disease. The patient is unable...

    Incorrect

    • A man has been hospitalised for severe psychiatric disease. The patient is unable to form new memories and, as such, is stuck in 1992, believing that the Gulf War is ongoing. He has been hospitalised since 1993. He is unaware of his memory problem and confabulates his story when you try to point out the discrepancies between his stories and reality. He is able to remember everything up until 1992 without any problem.
      Which of the following is the most likely aetiology of his disorder?

      Your Answer: Conversion disorder

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B1 deficiency

      Explanation:

      Common Nutrient Deficiencies and Associated Neurological Disorders

      Vitamin B1 Deficiency:
      Korsakoff’s amnesia is a severe neurological disorder caused by a deficiency in thiamine (vitamin B1). This condition is commonly seen in chronic alcoholics and is characterized by anterograde amnesia, confabulations, and bilateral loss of the mammillary bodies in the brain. Thiamine deficiency can also lead to beriberi, which presents with polyneuritis and symmetrical muscle wasting in the dry form and dilated cardiomyopathy in the wet form.

      Vitamin B6 Deficiency:
      Vitamin B6 is essential for GABA synthesis, and its deficiency can lead to convulsions, neuropathy, and hyperirritability.

      Conversion Disorder:
      Conversion disorder is a neurological condition characterized by the presence of a deficit, such as paralysis or numbness, without any identifiable somatic cause. Patients are usually unconcerned about the symptom but are aware of the problem.

      Vitamin B12 Deficiency:
      Vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to macrocytic megaloblastic anemia, subacute combined neurodegeneration, and glossitis.

      Vitamin C Deficiency:
      Vitamin C is essential for collagen synthesis, and its deficiency can lead to scurvy, which presents with swollen gums, easy bruising, anemia, and poor wound healing.

      Nutrient Deficiencies and Associated Neurological Disorders

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 37 - A 4-year-old boy is brought to the General Practitioner (GP) by his parents...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy is brought to the General Practitioner (GP) by his parents due to concerns raised by his nursery. Although he is meeting his developmental milestones, he seems to struggle with social interaction and play with other children.

      The parents report that he was born via normal vaginal delivery at term and has met all of his speech and motor milestones. However, they have noticed that he is different from his older siblings as he has never made any friends or engaged in any imaginative play. He prefers to play alone and becomes upset if anyone touches his toys. He insists on following the same routine every day, including eating the same meals and taking the same route to nursery. He struggles during weekends and holidays when his routine is disrupted.

      Which of the following diagnoses would be most consistent with the signs and symptoms observed in this child?

      Your Answer: Rett syndrome

      Correct Answer: Autism spectrum disorder

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Developmental Disorders: A Comparison

      When observing a child’s behavior, it is important to consider various developmental disorders that may be present. In this case, the girl in question is displaying signs of autism spectrum disorder, which is characterized by persistent difficulties with social communication and interaction, as well as restrictive and repetitive patterns of behavior. This disorder must have been present since early childhood and cause significant impairment in important areas of functioning.

      It is important to differentiate autism spectrum disorder from other disorders, such as obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), which is characterized by the presence of obsessions and compulsions, and attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD), which is characterized by a persistent pattern of inattention and/or hyperactivity-impulsivity that interferes with functioning or development.

      Additionally, a learning disability may be considered if the child has a significantly reduced ability to understand new or complex information and learn new skills, with a reduced ability to cope independently. However, this is unlikely if the child is performing well academically.

      Finally, Rett syndrome is a progressive neurological condition that is usually only seen in girls and has features similar to autism spectrum disorder, such as the inability to show feelings. However, it also has other features such as microcephaly, abnormal gait, seizures, and hypotonia, and usually presents at a much younger age.

      Overall, understanding the differences between these developmental disorders is crucial in accurately identifying and addressing a child’s needs.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 38 - A 22-year-old first-year graduate student presents to the Student Health Clinic because she...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old first-year graduate student presents to the Student Health Clinic because she feels depressed. She describes feeling homesick and is so sad that it is interfering with her ability to focus, work or make new friends. Her sleep, appetite and energy have been unaffected. She denies suicidal ideation or feelings of guilt. She thought it would have gotten better by now, but she said it has already been 2 months since she left home and she is still unhappy. She is worried that she is experiencing major depression.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bipolar disorder

      Correct Answer: Adjustment disorder

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Adjustment Disorder from Other Mood Disorders

      Adjustment disorder is a type of mood disorder that occurs in response to a major stressor. It is characterized by symptoms of depression or anxiety that present within three months of the stressor and last for less than six months. In contrast, major depressive disorder requires two episodes of major depression with a symptom-free interval, all in two months. Dysthymia, on the other hand, requires a depressive mood for at least two years. Bipolar disorder is characterized by manic symptoms, which the patient in question does not exhibit. Acute stress disorder is associated with psychotic symptoms that last less than one month from an identifiable stressor. Therefore, it is important to differentiate adjustment disorder from other mood disorders to provide appropriate treatment.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 39 - A 16-year-old is brought to her General Practitioner by her parents after they...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old is brought to her General Practitioner by her parents after they noticed her eating habits had become irregular. The parents report that the patient eats large volumes of foods and is sometimes found vomiting shortly after eating dinner. This behaviour has been occurring for the past 6 months. On examination, the patient’s vital signs are normal and she has a body mass index (BMI) of 23. She has excoriations on the knuckles of her right hand. She also has erosions on her teeth and swelling bilaterally on the lateral aspects of the face along the mandibular rami.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Avoidant personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Bulimia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Common Mental Health Disorders: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Bulimia Nervosa
      Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by binge eating followed by purging, usually in the form of vomiting. Patients with bulimia nervosa often have normal BMI, despite purging behavior. Symptoms associated with vomiting include teeth erosion, swelling along the mandibular rami (parotitis), and excoriations of the knuckles (Russell’s sign).

      Avoidant Personality Disorder
      Avoidant personality disorder is characterized by a person who desires social connections but is too shy to form relationships due to fear of rejection. This is different from the schizoid personality, which prefers to be alone.

      Anorexia Nervosa
      Anorexia nervosa is associated with decreased dietary intake, with or without purging behavior. Patients with anorexia nervosa tend to have extremely low BMI due to low calorie intake. They also suffer from early osteoporosis and electrolyte abnormalities due to malnutrition.

      Binge Eating Disorder
      Binge eating disorder is characterized by purely binge eating, without purging behavior. Patients with binge eating disorder often experience distress and weight gain.

      Gender Dysphoria
      Gender dysphoria is characterized by a strong identification with a gender other than that assigned at birth. This can be managed through social transition (living as their preferred gender) or medical transition (hormone or surgical treatments that are gender-affirming).

      Understanding Common Mental Health Disorders

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 40 - A 38-year-old woman and her 14-year-old daughter are apprehended after being caught trying...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman and her 14-year-old daughter are apprehended after being caught trying to destroy a statue in the town square. When asked why, they both explain how the statue comes to life and terrorizes them at night, breaking things in their house, whispering violent thoughts in their minds and urging them to kill themselves. The police officer brings them to the Emergency Department where you evaluate them. The mother is a well-known psychiatric patient, but the daughter has never been seen before.
      Which of the following is most likely to acutely reverse the psychosis in at least one of the patients?

      Your Answer: Benzodiazepines

      Correct Answer: Separate the patients

      Explanation:

      Treatment Approach for Shared Delusional Disorder

      Shared delusional disorder, also known as folie à deux, is a rare psychiatric condition where two individuals develop a paired delusion. In cases where one of the individuals has a history of psychiatric illness, separating the patients is the first step in treating the disorder. This is because the dominant force in the duo may be the source of the delusion, and separating them may resolve the delusion in the other individual.

      While benzodiazepines can sedate the patients, they will not acutely reverse psychosis. Similarly, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are not indicated as they take time to work and are not effective in acutely reversing psychosis.

      Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) is a treatment approach that takes time and is not effective in acutely reversing psychosis in either of the patients. Therefore, in cases of shared delusional disorder, separating the patients and providing anti-psychotic therapy to the dominant individual may be the most effective treatment approach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 41 - A patient is brought to see you by his daughter. She is very...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is brought to see you by his daughter. She is very concerned about him, saying that over the last few weeks, he has been hiding himself in their bedroom, heard to be talking to himself and accusing her of stealing his secret work and selling it to the government.
      You conduct a mental state examination and elicit the following symptoms.
      Which of these symptoms is a negative symptom?

      Your Answer: Auditory hallucinations

      Correct Answer: Blunted affect

      Explanation:

      Understanding Symptoms of Schizophrenia

      Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that affects a person’s ability to think, feel, and behave clearly. It is characterized by a range of symptoms, including positive and negative symptoms. Positive symptoms are those that reflect an increase or excess of the sufferer’s normal function, while negative symptoms are those that reflect a decrease or loss of normal function.

      Blunted affect, social withdrawal, apathy, and anhedonia are examples of negative symptoms. These symptoms can be very prominent and are often associated with a less favorable prognosis. On the other hand, auditory hallucinations, delusions of grandeur, and thought echo are examples of positive symptoms.

      Delusions of passivity, which imply that a person feels their actions, feelings, or impulses are being controlled by an external force, are not negative symptoms. It is important to understand the different symptoms of schizophrenia to properly diagnose and treat the disorder.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 42 - A 30-year-old woman is brought to your office by her brother. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman is brought to your office by her brother. He is concerned about her lack of close friends and her eccentric behavior, speech, and beliefs. The patient believes she has psychic abilities and is fascinated with the paranormal. Her brother reports that she has displayed these behaviors since childhood, but he is only seeking help now as he is moving to another state and worries about how she will manage alone with their parents. What personality disorder might this patient have?

      Your Answer: Schizoid personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Schizotypal personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Individuals with schizotypal personality disorder exhibit peculiar behavior, speech, and beliefs and typically do not have any close friends outside of their family.

      Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.

      Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.

      Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 43 - A 35-year-old man is brought to his GP by his partner who is...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man is brought to his GP by his partner who is concerned he may have developed bipolar disorder over the last few months.
      The man experiences periods of elevated mood, where he spends a lot of money and sleeps very little. He denies having any delusions of grandeur. These episodes usually last for a few days, and he has never put himself or others in danger.
      The man also has episodes of severe depression, where he feels suicidal, loses interest in his hobbies, and sleeps excessively. He is referred to a psychiatrist for further evaluation.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anxiety disorder

      Correct Answer: Type 2 bipolar disorder

      Explanation:

      The woman’s alternating episodes of hypomania and severe depression suggest that she has type 2 bipolar disorder. There are no indications of an anxiety disorder, and the severity of her symptoms is not consistent with cyclothymia. Major depressive disorder is also not a likely diagnosis, as she experiences ‘highs’ consistent with hypomania. Type 1 bipolar disorder is also unlikely, as her ‘high’ periods are more in line with hypomania rather than full-blown mania.

      Understanding Bipolar Disorder

      Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by alternating periods of mania/hypomania and depression. It typically develops in the late teen years and has a lifetime prevalence of 2%. There are two recognized types of bipolar disorder: type I, which involves mania and depression, and type II, which involves hypomania and depression.

      Mania and hypomania both refer to abnormally elevated mood or irritability, but mania is more severe and can include psychotic symptoms for 7 days or more. Hypomania, on the other hand, involves decreased or increased function for 4 days or more. The presence of psychotic symptoms suggests mania.

      Management of bipolar disorder may involve psychological interventions specifically designed for the condition, as well as medication. Lithium is the mood stabilizer of choice, but valproate can also be used. Antipsychotic therapy, such as olanzapine or haloperidol, may be used to manage mania/hypomania, while fluoxetine is the antidepressant of choice for depression. It is important to address any co-morbidities, as there is an increased risk of diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and COPD in individuals with bipolar disorder.

      If symptoms suggest hypomania, routine referral to the community mental health team (CMHT) is recommended. However, if there are features of mania or severe depression, an urgent referral to the CMHT should be made. Understanding bipolar disorder and its management is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.

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  • Question 44 - A 65-year-old male has been admitted to the in-patient psychiatric unit. Upon review...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male has been admitted to the in-patient psychiatric unit. Upon review this morning, he appears to be a poor historian, providing minimal answers and insisting that he is deceased and does not belong in a hospital meant for the living. What is the specific name of this delusional disorder and with which condition is it typically linked?

      Your Answer: Othello syndrome and Paranoid Schizophrenia

      Correct Answer: Cotard syndrome and Major Depressive Disorder

      Explanation:

      Severe depression is often linked to Cotard syndrome, a rare form of nihilistic delusions where individuals believe they are dead or non-existent. This condition can also be observed in individuals with schizophrenia.

      Understanding Cotard Syndrome

      Cotard syndrome is a mental disorder that is characterized by the belief that the affected person or a part of their body is dead or non-existent. This rare condition is often associated with severe depression and psychotic disorders, making it difficult to treat. Patients with Cotard syndrome may stop eating or drinking as they believe it is unnecessary, leading to significant health problems.

      The delusion experienced by those with Cotard syndrome can be challenging to manage, and it can have a significant impact on their quality of life. The condition is often accompanied by feelings of hopelessness and despair, which can make it challenging for patients to seek help. Treatment for Cotard syndrome typically involves a combination of medication and therapy, but it can take time to find an effective approach.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 45 - A 14-year-old boy comes to the clinic with complaints of sudden jerking movements...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy comes to the clinic with complaints of sudden jerking movements of his neck, causing his head to move involuntarily from left to right. He has been experiencing these symptoms for a few years, but lately, he has been feeling embarrassed as he involuntarily utters swear words in social situations. These symptoms worsen when he is under stress. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Malingering

      Correct Answer: Tourette’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Tourette’s Syndrome: Symptoms and Treatment Options

      Tourette’s syndrome is a neurological disorder that typically presents in childhood or adolescence. It is characterized by the presence of multiple motor tics and one or more vocal tics, which may not occur concurrently. The vocal tics can be throat-clearing, grunting, or other sounds that are not complete words or phrases. In some cases, there may also be associated gestural echopraxia, which can be of an obscene nature.

      Schizophrenia, on the other hand, does not typically present with involuntary movements or tics. Conduct disorder is a mental disorder that is diagnosed before or after the age of 10 and is characterized by a persistent pattern of behavior that violates the basic rights of others or goes against age-developmental norms. Malingering is the fabrication of symptoms for some sort of secondary gain, while dissocial personality disorder is characterized by a long-term disregard for others or the violation of others.

      Treatment options for Tourette’s syndrome include anti-psychotics such as pimozide, risperidone, and sulpiride, which have been shown to be effective. It is important to seek professional help if you or someone you know is experiencing symptoms of Tourette’s syndrome to receive an accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 46 - A 49-year-old male with schizophrenia is being evaluated by his psychiatrist. According to...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old male with schizophrenia is being evaluated by his psychiatrist. According to his family, he has become increasingly apathetic and neglectful of his personal hygiene and household chores. When asked about his behavior, he responds with statements such as it doesn't matter and why bother? What symptom of schizophrenia is this patient exhibiting?

      Your Answer: Anhedonia

      Correct Answer: Apathy

      Explanation:

      Common Symptoms of Schizophrenia

      Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that affects a person’s ability to think, feel, and behave clearly. It is characterized by a range of symptoms, including apathy, affective flattening, alogia, anhedonia, and catatonia. Apathy is a feeling of indifference and lack of interest in things that would normally be enjoyable or important. Affective flattening refers to a reduced range of emotional expression, making it difficult for the person to express their feelings appropriately. Alogia is a lack of spontaneous speech, making it difficult for the person to communicate effectively. Anhedonia is the inability to experience pleasure from activities that were once enjoyable. Finally, catatonia is a disturbance in motor function, which can cause the person to become unresponsive to their environment.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 47 - A 32-year-old office worker presents to the Emergency Department after taking a handful...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old office worker presents to the Emergency Department after taking a handful of various tablets following an argument with her current partner. She has a history of tumultuous relationships and struggles to maintain friendships or romantic relationships due to this. She also admits to experiencing intense emotions, frequently oscillating between extreme happiness and anger or anxiety. In the past, she has engaged in self-harm and frequently drinks to excess. A psychiatry review is requested to evaluate the possibility of a personality disorder. What personality disorder is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Dependant personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Understanding Personality Disorders: Borderline Personality Disorder and Other Types

      Personality disorders are complex and severe disturbances in an individual’s character and behavior, causing significant personal and social disruption. These disorders are challenging to treat, but psychological and pharmacological interventions can help manage symptoms. One of the most common types of personality disorder is borderline personality disorder, characterized by intense emotions, unstable relationships, impulsive behavior, self-harm, and abandonment anxieties. Other types of personality disorders include schizoid personality disorder, avoidant personality disorder, dependent personality disorder, and narcissistic personality disorder. Understanding these disorders can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and support.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 48 - A mother brings her 10-year-old daughter who was recently diagnosed with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 10-year-old daughter who was recently diagnosed with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD).
      She is visiting the clinic as she is still having difficulty managing her daughter's disruptive and challenging behavior, despite receiving group-based support and environmental modifications.
      What is the primary treatment option for managing ADHD?

      Your Answer: Diazepam

      Correct Answer: Methylphenidate

      Explanation:

      Management of ADHD: First-Line Treatment and Other Options

      Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is a common neurodevelopmental disorder that affects young people. While group-based support and environmental modifications can be helpful, medication and therapy are often necessary for ongoing, persistent impairment. Here are some options for managing ADHD:

      First-Line Treatment: Methylphenidate
      Methylphenidate is a central nervous system stimulant that is considered first-line treatment for young people with ADHD who still have significant symptoms despite other interventions. However, it is not approved for use in children under six years and requires monitoring of height, weight, heart rate, blood pressure, and ECG.

      Therapy: Cognitive Behavioural Therapy (CBT)
      CBT can be helpful for patients who have already tried medication but continue to have significant symptoms. It can cover topics such as social skills, active listening, self-control, and expression of feelings.

      Alternative Medication: Dexamphetamine
      Dexamphetamine is an option for patients who cannot tolerate or do not respond to methylphenidate. However, it is not first-line treatment.

      Not Recommended: Diazepam and Melatonin
      Diazepam is not recommended for sedation in patients with ADHD. Melatonin can be used for regulating sleep in patients with learning difficulties, but it is not routinely used for ADHD management.

      In summary, ADHD management requires a tailored approach that may involve medication, therapy, or both. Methylphenidate is the first-line treatment, but other options are available for patients who do not respond or cannot tolerate it.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 49 - A 45-year-old woman who is currently an informal inpatient at a mental health...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman who is currently an informal inpatient at a mental health hospital is being evaluated for electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), a treatment she has never undergone before. What is an appropriate indication for ECT?

      Your Answer: Personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Catatonia

      Explanation:

      Electroconvulsive therapy is indicated for patients with treatment-resistant depression, as well as those experiencing manic episodes, moderate depression that has previously responded to ECT, and life-threatening catatonia. The Patient Health Questionnaire-9 (PHQ-9) is used by general practitioners to assess the severity of depression, with scores ranging from no depression to severe depression. However, the decision to pursue ECT is based on more than just the PHQ-9 score and requires a diagnosis of severe treatment-resistant depression.

      Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a viable treatment option for patients who suffer from severe depression that does not respond to medication, such as catatonia, or those who experience psychotic symptoms. The only absolute contraindication for ECT is when a patient has raised intracranial pressure.

      Short-term side effects of ECT include headaches, nausea, short-term memory impairment, memory loss of events prior to the therapy, and cardiac arrhythmia. However, these side effects are typically temporary and resolve quickly.

      Long-term side effects of ECT are less common, but some patients have reported impaired memory. It is important to note that the benefits of ECT often outweigh the potential risks, and it can be a life-changing treatment for those who have not found relief from other forms of therapy.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 50 - A 50-year-old man presented to the outpatient clinic with complaints of involuntary muscle...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presented to the outpatient clinic with complaints of involuntary muscle movements of his tongue, fingers and trunk for the past 2 months. He was diagnosed with schizophrenia 20 years ago and has been on haloperidol, with good compliance. On examination, his temperature was 37.7 °C, blood pressure 115/80 mmHg and pulse 92 bpm. Respiratory rate was 14 cycles/min. There was pronounced choreoathetoid movement of his hands and fingers.
      What is the most likely diagnosis of this patient?

      Your Answer: Acute dystonia

      Correct Answer: Tardive dyskinesia

      Explanation:

      Tardive dyskinesia is a condition where patients on long-term anti-dopaminergic medication, such as antipsychotics, may experience involuntary muscle movements in various parts of their body. Akathisia is another symptom associated with antipsychotic use, where patients experience restlessness and an inability to remain still. Serotonin syndrome can occur when patients take an overdose or combination of certain medications, resulting in symptoms such as ataxia, agitation, and tremors. Acute dystonia refers to muscle contractions following the administration of a neuroleptic agent. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition associated with the use of antipsychotic medication, characterized by hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, and changes in consciousness. Treatment involves discontinuing the medication and providing supportive care.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 51 - A 84-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital after falling outside her home....

    Incorrect

    • A 84-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital after falling outside her home. Her carers, who visit three times a day, report that the patient becomes aggressive when prevented from going outside and she also refuses to be accompanied. The patient has no next-of-kin, and she was formally diagnosed with dementia last year. She has a past medical history of hypertension. She is now medically fit for discharge from hospital, but she lacks capacity to make a decision regarding her treatment and her place of residence. It is proposed that an application is made under the Deprivation of Liberty Safeguards (DoLS), in her best interests, to prevent the patient from wandering outside. The ward manager says that this cannot be done, as the patient does not meet all the criteria.

      Which of the following is preventing a DoLS from being authorised for this patient?

      Your Answer: The patient is above 18 years of age

      Correct Answer: The patient resides in his own home

      Explanation:

      Conditions for Deprivation of Liberty Safeguards (DoLS) Authorisation

      DoLS authorisation is a legal process that allows a person to be deprived of their liberty in a care home or hospital for their own safety. However, certain conditions must be met before authorisation can be granted. Firstly, the patient must reside in a care home or hospital, and an application to the Court of Protection must be made if they reside in their own home. Secondly, the patient must lack capacity for decisions regarding treatment. Thirdly, the patient’s lack of an advance decision about their treatment does not prevent DoLS authorisation. Fourthly, the patient must be above 18 years of age. Finally, the patient must have a mental disorder, such as dementia, but it is important to consider if they meet the criteria for detention under the Mental Health Act 1983.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 52 - A 40-year-old woman is being evaluated in the Psychiatry Clinic following her third...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman is being evaluated in the Psychiatry Clinic following her third suicide attempt in the past two years. She had cut her wrist at home and was brought to the hospital after her sister found her unconscious. She was successfully resuscitated, received a blood transfusion, and was discharged after a few days in hospital. She has been diagnosed with bipolar disorder since her teenage years and works in retail. She is currently single after having had unsuccessful relationships in the past. She consumes a moderate amount of alcohol and smokes around ten cigarettes a day. She is currently taking lithium for her mental illness. She is otherwise healthy and does not suffer from any medical conditions. What will be included in her long-term risk management plan?

      Your Answer: Informing the patient that confidentiality will always be maintained

      Correct Answer: Comprehensive psychosocial assessment of needs and risks

      Explanation:

      Best Practices for Suicide Risk Management

      Comprehensive psychosocial assessment of needs and risks is recommended by NICE to identify the needs of the patient and potential risks. However, the use of risk assessment tools to predict future danger is not advised due to their limited predictive value. Instead, a holistic approach considering biological, psychological, and social factors is more effective in identifying patients at high risk of suicide.

      Establishing a crisis plan with the patient is part of the risk management strategy advocated by NICE. This plan includes self-management strategies and guidance on accessing emergency services if necessary. Asking about suicide plans and establishing a crisis plan does not increase suicide risk.

      Confidentiality is crucial in the doctor-patient relationship, but it may need to be broken if the patient poses a serious risk to themselves or others. Therefore, informing the patient that confidentiality will always be maintained is incorrect.

      While psychiatric medications are commonly used to manage underlying mental illnesses, NICE advises against prescribing them specifically to reduce self-harm. A tailored approach to medication management is necessary for each patient.

      Overall, a comprehensive and individualized approach to suicide risk management is essential for effective prevention.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 53 - A 25-year-old man is worried about several recent incidents related to his sleep....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man is worried about several recent incidents related to his sleep. He reports experiencing paralysis upon waking up and occasionally when falling asleep, accompanied by what he describes as 'hallucinations' such as seeing another person in the room. These episodes are causing him increasing anxiety. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Generalised anxiety disorder

      Correct Answer: Sleep paralysis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sleep Paralysis

      Sleep paralysis is a condition that affects many people and is characterized by a temporary inability to move the skeletal muscles when waking up or falling asleep. It is believed to be linked to the natural paralysis that occurs during REM sleep. This phenomenon is recognized in various cultures and is often accompanied by hallucinations or vivid images.

      The paralysis occurs either before falling asleep or after waking up, and it can be a frightening experience for those who are not familiar with it. However, it is a relatively harmless condition that does not require medical attention in most cases. If the symptoms are particularly bothersome, medication such as clonazepam may be prescribed to alleviate the symptoms.

      In summary, sleep paralysis is a common occurrence that affects many people. It is characterized by temporary paralysis of the skeletal muscles and is often accompanied by hallucinations. While it can be a frightening experience, it is generally harmless and does not require medical attention.

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  • Question 54 - A 47-year-old woman presents complaining of ‘flashbacks’. Seven months earlier, she had been...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman presents complaining of ‘flashbacks’. Seven months earlier, she had been standing at a bus stop when a car swerved off the road into the queue, killing instantly a child standing near to her. Every day she experiences intrusive images of the child’s face as it saw the car mount the curb. She has not been able to go to that part of town since the day and she has avoided taking the bus anywhere. She feels she is always on edge and jumps at the slightest noise around the house. She thinks things are getting worse, rather than better, and asks you whether there are any psychological treatments that might help her.
      Which one of the following approaches is indicated?

      Your Answer: Hypnotherapy

      Correct Answer: Trauma-focused cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder: Focus on Trauma-Focused CBT

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a delayed and/or prolonged response to a traumatic event that can cause distress in almost anyone. Symptoms include intrusive flashbacks, avoidance of trauma-related triggers, emotional numbness, and hypervigilance. Trauma-focused cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) is the recommended first-line treatment for PTSD, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) in the United Kingdom. Other therapies, such as psychodynamic therapy, supportive therapy, and hypnotherapy, may be helpful but are not first-line approaches. Watchful waiting is only appropriate for mild symptoms present for less than a month. It is important to seek help for PTSD, and trauma-focused CBT is a proven effective treatment option.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 55 - A 65-year-old man is brought to the doctors by his son. Three weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man is brought to the doctors by his son. Three weeks ago his wife passed away from metastatic breast cancer. He reports feeling sad and tearful every day, but his son is worried because he keeps getting into arguments with him over small things and bringing up past family issues. The son also mentions that his father has mentioned hearing his wife's voice and even cooked a meal for her once. Despite this, he has started going for walks with his friends again and is determined to get his life back on track. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Depression without psychotic features

      Correct Answer: Normal grief reaction

      Explanation:

      Grief is a natural response to the death of a loved one and does not always require medical intervention. However, understanding the potential stages of grief can help determine if a patient is experiencing a normal reaction or a more significant problem. The most common model of grief divides it into five stages: denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. It is important to note that not all patients will experience all five stages. Atypical grief reactions are more likely to occur in women, sudden and unexpected deaths, problematic relationships before death, and lack of social support. Delayed grief, which occurs when grieving does not begin for more than two weeks, and prolonged grief, which is difficult to define but may last beyond 12 months, are features of atypical grief reactions.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 56 - A 50-year-old man visits his GP in a state of distress. He recently...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man visits his GP in a state of distress. He recently returned from a vacation and forgot to renew his prescriptions, resulting in him not taking his medications for the past week. The patient is currently experiencing general discomfort, nausea, and excessive diarrhea. Upon conducting a thorough examination and reviewing his medical history, the GP suspects that his symptoms are due to the discontinuation of one of his medications. The patient has a medical history of depression, gout, hypothyroidism, and type two diabetes mellitus. He also occasionally uses zopiclone to treat his insomnia. Which medication withdrawal is likely causing the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Metformin

      Correct Answer: Paroxetine

      Explanation:

      SSRI discontinuation syndrome can cause gastrointestinal side-effects such as diarrhoea, with paroxetine having a particularly high risk of such symptoms. Withdrawal of SSRIs should be done gradually over several weeks to reduce the incidence of discontinuation symptoms. Colchicine, a gout medication, is associated with gastrointestinal side effects but does not cause significant symptoms upon withdrawal. Levothyroxine withdrawal does not cause any particular symptoms, but stopping long-term use can lead to hypothyroidism symptoms such as constipation. Metformin withdrawal does not cause acute symptoms, but stopping long-term use can worsen diabetic control, and diarrhoea is a side effect of metformin treatment.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

      When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.

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  • Question 57 - You're on an acute take ward and you are asked to see a...

    Incorrect

    • You're on an acute take ward and you are asked to see a patient by your foundation doctor. The foundation doctor is concerned about this patient as he is uncertain of the next step in management and investigation.
      The patient is a 46-year-old male who has been admitted with excess tearing. He has a past medical history of allergic rhinitis. He uses nasal saline rinses several times a day. His father recently died of lung cancer with brain metastases.
      This patient has had extensive investigations in multiple other hospitals due to his concerns of a cancer diagnosis causing his excessively watery eyes. He has had three CT orbits in the last 12 months which have been reported as normal. On ophthalmic examination, he has some crusting and erythema of his lid margins, but it is a normal examination otherwise. The patient remains convinced that a cancer diagnosis still can't be excluded.
      What is the reason for this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer: Ectropion

      Correct Answer: Illness anxiety disorder

      Explanation:

      Illness anxiety disorder, also known as hypochondriasis, is characterized by a persistent belief that there is an underlying serious disease present, such as cancer. This can lead to recurrent visits to healthcare providers, even after a cause for the patient’s symptoms has been identified.

      In this particular case, the patient’s symptoms have been attributed to external eye disorders such as ectropion and blepharitis, which can affect tear drainage and cause dry or watery eyes. However, the patient still expresses a fear that there may be an undiscovered underlying cause for their symptoms.

      This fear is consistent with illness anxiety disorder, which is one of several psychological disorders that can lead to frequent healthcare visits. Another example is conversion disorder, which involves the loss of a function without a medical or structural cause. While patients may not be bothered by the symptoms themselves, they are often associated with previous distressing experiences and other mental health conditions.

      Psychiatric Terms for Unexplained Symptoms

      There are various psychiatric terms used to describe patients who exhibit symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. One such disorder is somatisation disorder, which involves the presence of multiple physical symptoms for at least two years, and the patient’s refusal to accept reassurance or negative test results. Another disorder is illness anxiety disorder, which is characterized by a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results.

      Conversion disorder is another condition that involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient does not consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Patients with this disorder may be indifferent to their apparent disorder, a phenomenon known as la belle indifference. Dissociative disorder, on the other hand, involves the process of ‘separating off’ certain memories from normal consciousness, and may manifest as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is the most severe form of dissociative disorder and was previously known as multiple personality disorder.

      Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms. Finally, malingering is the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms with the intention of financial or other gain. Understanding these psychiatric terms can help healthcare professionals better diagnose and treat patients with unexplained symptoms.

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  • Question 58 - A young adult is concerned about her ability to take her upcoming final...

    Incorrect

    • A young adult is concerned about her ability to take her upcoming final exams at university in three months. She experiences feelings of fluster, faintness, and dizziness specifically during written exams, but has no symptoms at any other time, including during physical activity. Her resting ECG is normal and clinical examination shows no abnormalities. What is the best course of action to take?

      Your Answer: Advise her to withdraw from examinations on medical grounds

      Correct Answer: Arrange counselling, with relaxation training

      Explanation:

      a Student’s Symptoms of Stress and Anxiety

      The symptoms described by the student are typical of stress and anxiety, which are common experiences for many people. It is important to reassure the student that these symptoms do not necessarily indicate an underlying medical condition. However, if the student is concerned, a 24-hour ECG monitoring can be done to provide further reassurance.

      It is important to note that prescribing diazepam may not be the best course of action as it can impair the student’s exam performance. Similarly, fluoxetine may not be the best option as it can increase feelings of anxiety. It is important to consider alternative treatments that can help the student manage their stress and anxiety in a way that does not negatively impact their academic performance. By the student’s symptoms and providing appropriate support, we can help them navigate this challenging time and achieve their academic goals.

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  • Question 59 - A 75-year-old male comes in for his routine check-up without specific concerns. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old male comes in for his routine check-up without specific concerns. During the examination, no abnormalities were detected. However, upon reviewing the blood test results sent by the nurse before the appointment, the following values were noted:
      Na+ 130 mmol/l
      K+ 3.5 mmol/l
      Urea 4 mmol/l
      Creatinine 85 µmol/l
      The patient's medications are now being reviewed. Which medication is the most probable cause of the electrolyte abnormality?

      Your Answer: Bisoprolol

      Correct Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Hyponatraemia is a known side effect of SSRIs, but not of aspirin or bisoprolol. Bisoprolol may cause bradycardia, while aspirin may cause dyspepsia. Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, is associated with hyperkalaemia in patients with reduced renal function.

      Understanding the Side-Effects and Interactions of SSRIs

      SSRIs, or selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, are commonly prescribed antidepressants that can have various side-effects and interactions with other medications. The most common side-effect of SSRIs is gastrointestinal symptoms, and patients taking these medications are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. To mitigate this risk, a proton pump inhibitor should be prescribed if the patient is also taking a NSAID. Hyponatraemia, or low sodium levels, can also occur with SSRIs, and patients should be vigilant for increased anxiety and agitation after starting treatment.

      Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and citalopram has been associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has advised that citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram has been reduced for certain patient populations.

      SSRIs can also interact with other medications, such as NSAIDs, warfarin/heparin, aspirin, and triptans. It is important to review patients after starting antidepressant therapy and to gradually reduce the dose when stopping treatment to avoid discontinuation symptoms. These symptoms can include mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

      In summary, understanding the potential side-effects and interactions of SSRIs is crucial for safe and effective treatment of depression and other mental health conditions. Patients should be closely monitored and counseled on the risks and benefits of these medications.

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  • Question 60 - You have been referred a 14-year-old girl who appears very upset by her...

    Incorrect

    • You have been referred a 14-year-old girl who appears very upset by her parents’ ongoing divorce. She has begun to engage in self-injurious behaviour by banging her head against walls at times of stress. Her intelligence quotient (IQ) has been assessed by her school as 62.

      With which of the following is this score most consistent?

      Your Answer: Around the population mean

      Correct Answer: Mild learning disability

      Explanation:

      Understanding Learning Disabilities: Levels of Intelligence Quotient (IQ)

      Learning disabilities are diagnosed through a combination of intelligence testing and functional assessments. The intelligence quotient (IQ) level is used to determine the severity of the learning disability. A score of 70 is considered within the normal range, while a score between 50-69 indicates a mild learning disability. A score of 35-49 is classified as a moderate learning disability, and a score of 20-34 is considered a severe learning disability. Scores below 20 indicate a profound learning disability. It’s important to note that a score of 60 falls within the mild learning difficulty range, which is still considered a learning disability. Understanding IQ levels can help individuals and their families better understand and manage their learning disabilities.

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  • Question 61 - A 65-year-old Asian woman presents with sudden onset paranoid thoughts and suicidal ideation....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old Asian woman presents with sudden onset paranoid thoughts and suicidal ideation. She has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and hypercholesterolemia. Given her age and first episode of psychosis, what crucial investigation is necessary to rule out other potential underlying causes?

      Your Answer: HbA1c

      Correct Answer: CT head

      Explanation:

      When elderly patients present with sudden onset psychosis, it is important to consider and rule out organic causes before attributing it to a primary psychotic disorder. In such cases, a CT head scan or even an MRI should be considered to detect any underlying organic causes such as a brain tumour, stroke or CNS infection. While HbA1c is typically used to assess diabetes control, PET scans are more commonly used to provide detailed information about metabolic processes in tissues, such as identifying active cancer cells. Chest X-rays may also be useful in certain cases.

      Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.

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  • Question 62 - A 27-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner for a follow-up appointment after being...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner for a follow-up appointment after being diagnosed with depression. She is currently undergoing treatment with citalopram and has started a course of cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT).
      What is used to assess the effectiveness of treatment in patients with depression?

      Your Answer: Modified Single-Answer Screening Question (M-SASQ)

      Correct Answer: Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-9)

      Explanation:

      Common Screening Tools Used in Primary Care

      Primary care physicians often use various screening tools to assess their patients’ mental and physical health. Here are some of the most commonly used screening tools:

      1. Patient Health Questionnaire-9 (PHQ-9): This tool is used to monitor the severity of depression and the response to treatment.

      2. Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE): This questionnaire is used to identify cognitive impairment and screen for dementia.

      3. Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test (AUDIT): This screening tool is used to identify signs of harmful drinking and dependence on alcohol.

      4. Generalised Anxiety Disorder Questionnaire (GAD-7): This tool consists of seven questions and is used to screen for generalised anxiety disorder and measure the severity of symptoms.

      5. Modified Single-Answer Screening Question (M-SASQ): This is a single question alcohol harm assessment tool designed for use in Emergency Departments. It identifies high-risk drinkers based on the frequency of consuming six or more units (if female) or eight or more units (if male) on a single occasion in the last year.

      By using these screening tools, primary care physicians can identify potential health issues early on and provide appropriate treatment and care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 63 - A 22-year-old female with paranoid schizophrenia is currently admitted as an inpatient and...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old female with paranoid schizophrenia is currently admitted as an inpatient and receiving treatment with antipsychotic medication under section 3 of the Mental Health Act. She has recently reported experiencing breast tenderness and enlargement. As the current antipsychotic regimen is not being well-tolerated, what would be the most suitable alternative antipsychotic medication to minimize these side effects?

      Your Answer: Aripiprazole

      Explanation:

      Compared to other atypical antipsychotics, aripiprazole is known for having a more tolerable side effect profile, particularly when it comes to causing hyperprolactinemia. This condition, which can result in breast tenderness, enlargement, and lactation, is a common side effect of most typical and some atypical antipsychotics such as risperidone and amisulpride.

      Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.

      Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 64 - A 30-year-old man is exhibiting changes in mental status. He has been staying...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man is exhibiting changes in mental status. He has been staying up most nights for the past month, working on four different novels simultaneously. He has not left his home or eaten in the last week and refuses to do so. Additionally, he has started gambling. During the consultation, he appears easily distracted and responds to questions with nonsensical sentences made up of random words. A collateral history was necessary to gather information. There is no evidence of drug misuse, and he is currently being treated for depression. When his family attempts to understand his behavior, he accuses them of trying to hold him back from achieving fame. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Schizophrenia

      Correct Answer: Bipolar disorder (type I)

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely suffering from bipolar disorder (type I) due to their elevated mood and energy following treatment for depression, which can often be a sign of bipolar disorder unmasked by antidepressants. The presence of disorganized speech in the form of ‘word salad’ is evidence of psychosis, which is a characteristic of bipolar I. The patient has also not slept or eaten in the last week, indicating severe functional impairment and the need for hospitalization, which is another DSM-V criteria for bipolar I. Additionally, the patient exhibits decreased need for sleep, increased risky activities, increased goal-directed behavior, and distractibility, which are all symptoms of bipolar I.

      Bipolar disorder (type II) is unlikely as the patient’s disorganized speech suggests psychosis, which is more commonly associated with bipolar I. Schizoaffective disorder is also unlikely as the patient’s elevated mood and history of depression do not fit the diagnostic criteria. Schizophrenia is less likely as it typically presents with negative symptoms followed by delusions and hallucinations, whereas the patient’s symptoms are primarily manic in nature.

      Understanding Psychosis

      Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in various ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. Associated features may include agitation/aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm. Psychotic symptoms can occur in a range of conditions, such as schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions, and drug use. The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 65 - The risk of developing schizophrenia if one monozygotic twin is affected is approximately:...

    Incorrect

    • The risk of developing schizophrenia if one monozygotic twin is affected is approximately:

      Your Answer: 75%

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Epidemiology of Schizophrenia

      Schizophrenia is a psychotic disorder that affects a significant portion of the population. The strongest risk factor for developing this condition is having a family history of the disorder. Individuals with a parent who has schizophrenia have a relative risk of 7.5. Additionally, monozygotic twins have a 50% chance of developing schizophrenia, while siblings have a 10% chance. In contrast, individuals without relatives with schizophrenia have a 1% chance of developing the disorder.

      Aside from family history, other factors can increase the risk of developing schizophrenia. Black Caribbean ethnicity has a relative risk of 5.4, while migration and living in an urban environment have relative risks of 2.9 and 2.4, respectively. Cannabis use also increases the risk of developing schizophrenia, with a relative risk of 1.4.

      Understanding the epidemiology of schizophrenia is crucial in identifying individuals who may be at risk of developing the disorder. By recognizing these risk factors, healthcare professionals can provide early interventions and support to prevent or manage the onset of schizophrenia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 66 - Sarah is a 35-year-old married woman with two children. She comes to you...

    Correct

    • Sarah is a 35-year-old married woman with two children. She comes to you in distress and expresses suicidal thoughts, stating that she has considered taking an overdose. She has no history of self-harm or suicide attempts, and no psychiatric background. Despite having a loving family and enjoying her job, she is struggling. What is a risk factor for suicide in this case?

      Your Answer: Male gender

      Explanation:

      Suicide Risk Factors and Protective Factors

      Suicide risk assessment is a common practice in psychiatric care, with patients being stratified into high, medium, or low risk categories. However, there is a lack of evidence on the positive predictive value of individual risk factors. A review in the BMJ concluded that such assessments may not be useful in guiding decision-making, as 50% of suicides occur in patients deemed low risk. Nevertheless, certain factors have been associated with an increased risk of suicide, including male sex, history of deliberate self-harm, alcohol or drug misuse, mental illness, depression, schizophrenia, chronic disease, advancing age, unemployment or social isolation, and being unmarried, divorced, or widowed.

      If a patient has attempted suicide, there are additional risk factors to consider, such as efforts to avoid discovery, planning, leaving a written note, final acts such as sorting out finances, and using a violent method. On the other hand, there are protective factors that can reduce the risk of suicide, such as family support, having children at home, and religious belief. It is important to consider both risk and protective factors when assessing suicide risk and developing a treatment plan.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 67 - A 32-year-old female is initiated on haloperidol for treatment-resistant schizophrenia. She visits her...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old female is initiated on haloperidol for treatment-resistant schizophrenia. She visits her primary care physician with a complaint of neck pain and limited neck movement for the past 24 hours. Upon examination, she displays normal vital signs except for a mild tachycardia of 105 and neck stiffness with restricted range of motion. Her neck is involuntarily flexed towards the right. Her facial movements are normal. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Torticollis

      Explanation:

      The patient is exhibiting symptoms of acute dystonia, which is characterized by sustained muscle contractions such as torticollis or oculogyric crisis. In this case, the patient’s symptoms are likely a result of starting a typical antipsychotic medication, specifically haloperidol. Torticollis, or a wry neck, is present with unilateral pain and deviation of the neck, restricted range of motion, and pain upon palpation. While neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a medical emergency that can occur in patients taking antipsychotics, the patient’s lack of altered mental state and normal observations make it unlikely. An oculogyric crisis, which involves sustained upward deviation of the eyes, clenched jaw, and hyperextension of the back/neck with torticollis, is another example of acute dystonia, but the patient does not exhibit any facial signs or symptoms. Tardive dyskinesia, on the other hand, is a condition that occurs in patients on long-term typical antipsychotics and is characterized by uncontrolled facial movements such as lip-smacking.

      Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 68 - A 50-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of palpitations, dizziness, and...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of palpitations, dizziness, and lightheadedness. Upon conducting an ECG, torsades de pointes is observed. Which medication is the most probable cause of the cardiac anomaly?

      Your Answer: Citalopram

      Explanation:

      Citalopram, an SSRI used to treat major depressive disorder, has been identified as the most likely to cause QT prolongation and torsades de pointes. In 2011, the MHRA issued a warning against its use in patients with long-QT syndrome. While fluoxetine and sertraline can also cause prolonged QT, citalopram is more frequently associated with this side effect. Gentamicin, a bactericidal antibiotic, does not appear to cause QT prolongation or torsades de pointes. Although sertraline is another SSRI that can cause prolonged QT, citalopram remains the most concerning in this regard.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

      When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 69 - A 32-year-old woman is brought to the edge of a roof by a...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman is brought to the edge of a roof by a trained practitioner and then left there for as long as possible until she overcomes her phobia of heights.

      What sort of behavioural therapy is this?

      Your Answer: Exposure response therapy

      Correct Answer: Flooding

      Explanation:

      Behavioural Therapies: Techniques for Overcoming Fears and Habits

      Behavioural therapies are a set of techniques used to treat various mental health conditions. These therapies aim to modify an individual’s behaviour by exposing them to their fears or habits and gradually desensitising them to the stimuli. Here are some common behavioural therapies:

      1. Flooding: This therapy involves exposing an individual directly to their worst fear to trigger desensitisation.

      2. Graded Exposure: Also known as systematic desensitisation, this therapy involves exposing the patient to the feared stimulus for progressively longer amounts of time or from a ‘virtual’ to a real exposure in an attempt to overcome the fear.

      3. Relaxation Training: This therapy involves activities that allow the individual to calm or relax in the exposed situation.

      4. Aversion Therapy: This therapy is used in the management of habits such as alcoholism and smoking. It involves exposing the individual to the behaviour while simultaneously evoking a noxious and/or painful stimulus to develop an aversion to the behaviour.

      5. Exposure Response Therapy: This therapy is often used as an effective treatment for OCD. It involves gradually increasing exposure to uncomfortable stimuli to build a tolerance and reduce anxiety that feeds obsessions and compulsions.

      Overall, behavioural therapies can be effective in treating various mental health conditions and helping individuals overcome their fears and habits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 70 - A 28-year-old patient presents with sudden paralysis in their right leg and left...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old patient presents with sudden paralysis in their right leg and left arm, four weeks after being involved in a car accident. Despite being discharged from the hospital without injuries, they woke up this morning unable to move these limbs. There is no pain, but the paralysis is causing significant distress. On examination, there are no visible injuries, normal tone, and intact sensation in all four limbs. All reflexes are normal, but power in the affected limbs is MRC 0/5, while the contralateral limbs are MRC 5/5. Hoover's sign is positive on the affected leg, and there are no abnormalities in the cranial nerve exam. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Factitious disorder

      Correct Answer: Conversion disorder

      Explanation:

      Conversion disorder is a condition that typically involves the loss of motor or sensory function and may be triggered by stress. In this case, the patient has experienced a stressful accident and is now exhibiting functional paralysis, without voluntary movement but some involuntary movements due to reflexes and a positive Hoover’s sign. This sign indicates that the unaffected leg is compensating for the affected leg’s lack of movement by contracting synergistically.

      It is unlikely that the patient is suffering from factitious disorder, which involves feigning symptoms to gain attention from healthcare professionals. This is because the neurological symptoms and the recent stressful event suggest conversion disorder, and the presence of Hoover’s sign is not consistent with feigned paralysis.

      Lacunar strokes, which cause paralysis on one side with contralateral sensory loss, would not present with this pattern of paralysis and would not be delayed in onset after the accident. Malingering, or faking symptoms for personal gain, is also unlikely at this stage.

      Psychiatric Terms for Unexplained Symptoms

      There are various psychiatric terms used to describe patients who exhibit symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. One such disorder is somatisation disorder, which involves the presence of multiple physical symptoms for at least two years, and the patient’s refusal to accept reassurance or negative test results. Another disorder is illness anxiety disorder, which is characterized by a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results.

      Conversion disorder is another condition that involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient does not consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Patients with this disorder may be indifferent to their apparent disorder, a phenomenon known as la belle indifference. Dissociative disorder, on the other hand, involves the process of ‘separating off’ certain memories from normal consciousness, and may manifest as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is the most severe form of dissociative disorder and was previously known as multiple personality disorder.

      Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms. Finally, malingering is the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms with the intention of financial or other gain. Understanding these psychiatric terms can help healthcare professionals better diagnose and treat patients with unexplained symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 71 - A 27-year-old man visits his GP and insists on getting a CT scan...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man visits his GP and insists on getting a CT scan of his abdomen, claiming that he is certain he has cancer despite previous negative test results. What type of disorder does this behavior exemplify?

      Your Answer: Munchausen's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Hypochondrial disorder

      Explanation:

      Somatisation refers to the manifestation of physical symptoms that cannot be explained by any underlying medical condition. On the other hand, hypochondria is a condition where a person constantly worries about having a serious illness, often believing that minor symptoms are signs of a life-threatening disease such as cancer.

      Psychiatric Terms for Unexplained Symptoms

      There are various psychiatric terms used to describe patients who exhibit symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. One such disorder is somatisation disorder, which involves the presence of multiple physical symptoms for at least two years, and the patient’s refusal to accept reassurance or negative test results. Another disorder is illness anxiety disorder, which is characterized by a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results.

      Conversion disorder is another condition that involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient does not consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Patients with this disorder may be indifferent to their apparent disorder, a phenomenon known as la belle indifference. Dissociative disorder, on the other hand, involves the process of ‘separating off’ certain memories from normal consciousness, and may manifest as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is the most severe form of dissociative disorder and was previously known as multiple personality disorder.

      Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms. Finally, malingering is the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms with the intention of financial or other gain. Understanding these psychiatric terms can help healthcare professionals better diagnose and treat patients with unexplained symptoms.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 72 - A 28-year-old new mum is seen by the midwife three days post-giving birth....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old new mum is seen by the midwife three days post-giving birth. She is tearful, has lost her appetite and worries she is a bad mother. Her midwife reassures her that this is most likely postpartum blues or ‘baby blues’.
      What is the incidence of this condition in new mothers?

      Your Answer: 0.1-0.5%

      Correct Answer: 50-75%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Postpartum Mood Disorders: From Baby Blues to Postpartum Psychosis

      Postpartum mood disorders are common among new mothers, but they can range from mild and transient to severe and potentially life-threatening. The most common form of postpartum mood disorder is postpartum blues, which affects an estimated 50-75% of mothers in the days following childbirth. Symptoms include crying, fatigue, anxiety, irritability, and labile mood, and typically last from hours to a few days. Postpartum blues is thought to be caused by hormonal changes in the body after labor and can be managed with supportive, non-pharmacological measures.

      Postpartum depression is a more serious condition that can occur up to a year after birth and affects 10-15% of pregnancies. It is similar to major depression and requires screening by midwives and at the 6-week postnatal check. The Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale (EPDS) is a screening questionnaire used to identify women with postnatal depression, and it is important to follow up with mothers who may be depressed on a regular basis.

      Postpartum psychosis is a rare but very serious mental health condition that usually develops in the days or weeks following childbirth and affects 0.1-0.5% of mothers. Symptoms may include mania, severe depression, hallucinations, abnormal behavior, and delusions. It is a medical emergency and typically requires inpatient psychiatric treatment.

      Understanding the different types of postpartum mood disorders and their symptoms is crucial for healthcare providers to provide appropriate support and treatment for new mothers.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 73 - A 25-year-old male has been taking antipsychotics for a few months and is...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male has been taking antipsychotics for a few months and is experiencing a severe side-effect that causes repetitive involuntary movements such as grimacing and sticking out the tongue. This side-effect is known to occur only in individuals who have been on antipsychotics for an extended period. What medication is the most appropriate for treating this side-effect?

      Your Answer: Procyclidine

      Correct Answer: Tetrabenazine

      Explanation:

      Tetrabenazine is an effective treatment for moderate to severe tardive dyskinesia, which is the condition that this patient is experiencing. Propranolol is typically used to alleviate symptoms of akathisia, while procyclidine and benztropine are commonly prescribed for acute dystonia.

      Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 74 - A 35-year-old patient is about to be discharged from hospital with a course...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old patient is about to be discharged from hospital with a course of diazepam to help with anxiety symptoms.
      Which feature of the history is the most important to ask about?

      Your Answer: Family history of self-harm

      Correct Answer: Presence of alcohol dependence

      Explanation:

      Factors that Influence Benzodiazepine Dependence: A Closer Look

      When it comes to benzodiazepine dependence, there are several factors that can increase the risk of developing this condition. One of the most important determinants is a history of substance dependence, particularly with alcohol. This is because alcohol can synergize with benzodiazepines to cause respiratory depression, which can be dangerous.

      While family history of anxiety or self-harm may be concerning, they are less likely to be risk factors for benzodiazepine dependence. Similarly, a past history of depression may be linked to future depression, but it is not as strongly associated with drug dependence as coexisting alcohol dependence.

      Overall, it is important to consider these factors when assessing the risk of benzodiazepine dependence in individuals. By identifying those who may be at higher risk, healthcare professionals can take steps to prevent or manage this condition.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 75 - A 40-year-old woman has been seen by her general practitioner (GP) with symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman has been seen by her general practitioner (GP) with symptoms of moderate anxiety, including frequent panic attacks, feeling very tired all the time, poor appetite and a short temper. She is taking time off work, arguing with her family and friends and becoming increasingly isolated as a result of the symptoms. She has tried cognitive behavioural therapy but found no benefit. She would like to try medication, and the GP has agreed to start citalopram.
      What advice should she be given before starting the medication?

      Your Answer: He will feel a significant improvement in his symptoms after one week of taking the medication

      Correct Answer: There is a risk he will develop discontinuation symptoms if he abruptly stops taking the medication

      Explanation:

      Understanding Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs)

      When taking an SSRI, it is important to be aware of potential discontinuation symptoms if the medication is stopped abruptly. These symptoms can include rebound anxiety or depressive symptoms, flu-like symptoms, dizziness, nausea, or sleep disturbances. Patients should seek advice from a doctor before reducing or withdrawing the medication, and it is recommended that the discontinuation is done over four weeks.

      While patients may feel some benefit after one week of taking an SSRI, the full benefit can take up to 12 weeks. It is important to be patient and continue taking the medication as prescribed.

      During the first three months of starting medication, patients should be seen every two to four weeks to monitor for adverse effects such as increased anxiety symptoms, sleep disturbance, or gastrointestinal upset. After this initial period, patients should be seen every three months, with the frequency of reviews potentially increasing if symptoms worsen.

      Possible side-effects of taking an SSRI include dyspepsia, worsening of anxiety symptoms, agitation, and sleep problems. Patients should be aware of these potential side-effects.

      While there is an increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm for patients under the age of 30 starting an SSRI, this risk is not present for everyone. Patients under 30 should be monitored more closely for signs of suicidal thoughts or self-harm and seen weekly for the first month after medication is started.

      In summary, understanding the potential risks and benefits of taking an SSRI is important for patients to make informed decisions about their mental health treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 76 - A young man arrives at the emergency department after taking a paracetamol overdose...

    Correct

    • A young man arrives at the emergency department after taking a paracetamol overdose following a recent break-up. He has since entered into a new relationship, but is struggling with frequent outbursts of anger. The patient has a history of childhood abuse and struggles with maintaining healthy relationships. He reports experiencing frequent mood swings between low and elevated states. The overdose was not premeditated and the patient has a history of similar incidents. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Borderline personality disorder

      Explanation:

      The young woman who overdosed on paracetamol after breaking up with her boyfriend is now in a new relationship, but it is troubled by her frequent outbursts of anger. These symptoms suggest that she may be suffering from borderline personality disorder, which is characterized by intense and rapidly changing emotions, difficulties with relationships, feelings of emptiness, fear of abandonment, impulsive behavior, and self-harm. Bipolar affective disorder, dependent personality disorder, and histrionic personality disorder are not likely diagnoses based on the information provided.

      Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.

      Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.

      Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 77 - A 35-year-old male with a history of agoraphobia for the past 3 months...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old male with a history of agoraphobia for the past 3 months presents for a telemedicine consultation to discuss his current issues. He reports feeling unable to leave his home due to a fear of contamination and illness. He explains that he feels the outside world is too dirty and that he will become sick and die if he leaves his house. He also reports washing his hands six times with soap and water after touching anything, which has resulted in his hands becoming dry, cracked, and erythematosus. He has lost his job as a result of missing deadlines and not being able to complete his work due to his compulsive hand washing behavior. Despite his awareness of the negative impact of his behavior, he feels unable to stop himself from washing his hands exactly six times every time.

      During the telemedicine consultation, his mental state examination is unremarkable. However, upon requesting to see his hands over the video conversation, it is noted that they appear dry, cracked, and erythematosus.

      What is the most appropriate management strategy for this patient?

      Your Answer: SSRI and CBT (including ERP)

      Explanation:

      Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is characterized by the presence of obsessions and/or compulsions that can cause significant functional impairment and distress. Risk factors include family history, age, pregnancy/postnatal period, and history of abuse, bullying, or neglect. Treatment options include low-intensity psychological treatments, SSRIs, and more intensive CBT (including ERP). Severe cases should be referred to the secondary care mental health team for assessment and may require combined treatment with an SSRI and CBT or clomipramine as an alternative. ERP involves exposing the patient to an anxiety-provoking situation and stopping them from engaging in their usual safety behavior. Treatment with SSRIs should continue for at least 12 months to prevent relapse and allow time for improvement.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 78 - A 30-year-old woman presents to you with complaints of feeling down and fatigued....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents to you with complaints of feeling down and fatigued. She struggles to fall asleep at night and has difficulty getting up in the morning. Despite her love for exercise, she lacks motivation and finds it hard to engage in physical activity.

      What is the duration of her symptoms that would warrant a diagnosis of a depressive episode?

      Your Answer: Two months

      Correct Answer: Two weeks

      Explanation:

      DSM-IV Criteria for Diagnosing Depression

      Depression is a mental health condition that can significantly impact a person’s daily life. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has adopted the DSM-IV criteria for diagnosing depression. The key symptoms include persistent sadness or low mood and marked loss of interests or pleasure. These symptoms must be present for at least two weeks, most days, most of the time.

      In addition to the core symptoms, other associated symptoms may include disturbed sleep, changes in appetite and weight, fatigue, agitation or slowing of movements, poor concentration or indecisiveness, feelings of worthlessness or excessive guilt, and suicidal thoughts or acts.

      It is important to note that these symptoms can vary in duration. Some individuals may experience symptoms for only two days, while others may experience them for up to two months. If you or someone you know is experiencing symptoms of depression, it is important to seek professional help.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 79 - A 32-year-old Welsh Guard returning from operational duty overseas has been suffering from...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old Welsh Guard returning from operational duty overseas has been suffering from nightmares and intrusive memories of his military experiences for the past 6 months. He avoids anything that reminds him of his tour of duty and is emotionally detached. He has trouble sleeping, concentrating, and is easily startled by loud noises. Additionally, he has been abusing alcohol. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Types of Anxiety Disorders

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is characterized by a mix of anxiety and dissociative symptoms that persist for several months. Patients with PTSD often experience unintentional recollection, flashbacks, and nightmares of the traumatic event. They may also exhibit symptoms of chronic hyperarousal, such as sleep disruptions, irritability, and hypervigilance.

      Panic disorder with agoraphobia is diagnosed in patients who avoid situations that they believe may trigger a panic attack or where it would be dangerous or embarrassing to have one.

      Acute stress disorder is a condition that typically subsides within a month and is most common in patients who use dissociation to separate the events from the associated painful emotions.

      Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by a mental state of dread or fear and somatic manifestations, such as palpitations, churning stomach, and muscle tension. Patients with this disorder often have fears concerning many aspects of their personal security.

      Somatization disorder is a condition where patients seek medical attention for cryptic physical symptoms that are difficult to explain. Patients with this disorder complain of problems in at least four different organ systems, usually without clear physical cause. They often deny anxiety or psychic distress, except for distress about their physical condition.

      Overall, understanding the different types of anxiety disorders and their symptoms can help with proper diagnosis and treatment.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 80 - A 32-year-old male visits his primary care physician complaining of new and concerning...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male visits his primary care physician complaining of new and concerning symptoms. He has a medical history of schizophrenia, which was diagnosed at the age of eighteen and is currently managed with olanzapine. He has not undergone any surgical procedures and is generally in good health.
      What are the symptoms he is likely to be experiencing?

      Your Answer: Tinnitus

      Correct Answer: Polyuria and polydipsia

      Explanation:

      Long-term use of atypical antipsychotics can result in glucose dysregulation and diabetes, with polyuria and polydipsia being common symptoms. While these drugs are preferred for treating schizophrenia due to their reduced extrapyramidal side effects, they can also cause metabolic dysregulation leading to insulin resistance and diabetes. Diarrhoea is an unlikely side effect, as these drugs tend to cause constipation instead. Sexual dysfunction is a more common side effect than priapism, and the mechanism behind it is not fully understood. Tinnitus is not a likely side effect in this case, as the patient does not have a history of depression or SSRI use. Weight gain is the most common side effect of long-term atypical antipsychotic use, due to the metabolic disturbances they cause.

      Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 81 - Samantha, a 35-year-old woman, arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe, sharp...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha, a 35-year-old woman, arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe, sharp pain on her left side that radiates to her lower abdomen and groin. The pain comes and goes in waves and has been ongoing for 10 hours. She also reports an increased frequency of urination and a burning sensation while urinating. A urine dip reveals haematuria but no signs of infection. You request the following blood tests:
      Calcium 3.3 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
      Corrected Calcium 3.4 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
      Phosphate 0.6 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
      Magnesium 0.8 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
      Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 4.9 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
      Free thyroxine (T4) 9.5 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
      Parathyroid hormone 85 pg/mL (10-65 )
      Which medication's long-term use is responsible for Samantha's condition?

      Your Answer: Amitriptyline

      Correct Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Hyperparathyroidism and subsequent hypercalcaemia can occur with prolonged use of lithium. This can lead to the formation of kidney stones due to excessive calcium concentration. Amitriptyline, a sedative tricyclic antidepressant, is not likely to cause nephrolithiasis or explain the patient’s elevated calcium and parathyroid hormone levels. Similarly, clozapine, a second-generation antipsychotic, is not known to cause hypercalcaemia or hyperparathyroidism. Sertraline, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor, typically causes side effects during initiation or discontinuation, such as sexual dysfunction and gastrointestinal issues. Checking thyroid function tests may also be helpful as lithium use can lead to hypothyroidism.

      Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in treatment-resistant depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate and cAMP formation. Adverse effects may include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, nephrotoxicity, thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, hyperparathyroidism, and hypercalcemia.

      Monitoring of patients taking lithium is crucial to prevent adverse effects and ensure therapeutic levels. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until levels are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every three months. Thyroid and renal function should be monitored every six months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book to ensure proper management of their medication. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 82 - A middle-aged couple visits the clinic with concerns about the husband's behavior. The...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged couple visits the clinic with concerns about the husband's behavior. The wife reports that her partner has been acting strangely, constantly checking on their son throughout the day and night, sometimes up to twenty times. When questioned, he reveals that he had a frightening experience with his son last month and cannot stop reliving it in his mind. He avoids going to places where he might lose sight of his son and has trouble sleeping. There is no significant medical or psychiatric history. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD)

      Correct Answer: Post traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include experiences such as natural disasters, accidents, or even childhood abuse. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of situations or people associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and even substance abuse.

      Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, depending on the severity of the symptoms. Single-session interventions are not recommended, and watchful waiting may be used for mild symptoms lasting less than four weeks. Military personnel have access to treatment provided by the armed forces, while trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) or eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy may be used in more severe cases.

      It is important to note that drug treatments for PTSD should not be used as a routine first-line treatment for adults. If drug treatment is used, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), such as sertraline, should be tried. In severe cases, NICE recommends that risperidone may be used. Overall, understanding the symptoms and effective management of PTSD is crucial in supporting individuals who have experienced traumatic events.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 83 - A 36-year-old woman is admitted to the Emergency Department following taking approximately 18...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman is admitted to the Emergency Department following taking approximately 18 paracetamol tablets three hours earlier. She had a row with her husband and took the tablets as she was angry and upset. She called her husband after she took the tablets, who rang for an ambulance.
      This is the first time she has ever done anything like this, and she regrets the fact that she did it. She is currently studying at university, and only drinks recreationally. She is normally fit and well and has no history of mental health conditions.
      Which of the following factors are associated with increased risk of a further suicide attempt in someone who has already made a suicide attempt?

      Your Answer: Alcohol or drug abuse, history of violence and single, divorced or separated

      Explanation:

      Risk Factors for Repeated Suicide Attempts

      Individuals who have previously attempted suicide are at an increased risk of making another attempt. Factors that contribute to this risk include a history of previous attempts, personality disorders, alcohol or drug abuse, previous psychiatric treatment, unemployment, lower social class, criminal record, history of violence, and being between the ages of 25 and 54, as well as being single, divorced, or separated. Rates of further suicide attempts in the year following an attempt are high, ranging from 15 to 25 percent. However, being married or having short stature does not appear to be a significant risk factor for repeated suicide attempts.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 84 - A 20-year old man with suspected schizophrenia is reviewed in clinic. During the...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year old man with suspected schizophrenia is reviewed in clinic. During the consultation the patient informs you that there is a plot to destroy the world and that he has been chosen as a saviour.
      Which of the following terms most appropriately describes this patient's belief?

      Your Answer: Hallucination

      Correct Answer: Delusion

      Explanation:

      Understanding Psychotic Symptoms: Delusions, Illusions, Perseveration, and Hallucinations

      Psychotic symptoms are not simply exaggerations of normal experiences like anxiety or depression. They include hallucinations, delusions, and thought disorder. Delusions are false beliefs that are not shared by others in a cultural group and can be characteristic of different psychiatric disorders. Persecutory delusions are the most common form in schizophrenia and delusional disorder. Schizophrenia is characterized by episodes of delusions, hallucinations, bizarre behavior, incoherent thought processes, and flat or inappropriate affect. Illusions, on the other hand, are misinterpretations of existing sensory stimuli and suggest delirium or intoxication. Perseveration is the persistent repetition of words, phrases, or simple motor behavior and can occur in delirium, dementia, or psychosis. Hallucinations are perceptions of stimuli that are not there and are less common than delusions in schizophrenia. Mood-congruent delusions are consistent with the reported or observed mood and may be markers of the severity of mood disturbance, while mood-incongruent delusions are less easily explained but are commonly associated with a worse prognosis.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 85 - A 30-year-old man is brought to his psychiatrist by his sister. His sister...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man is brought to his psychiatrist by his sister. His sister is worried that her brother firmly believes that he is a superhero, despite having no evidence or abilities to support this belief. Upon assessment, the man appears physically healthy. There are no signs of delusions, disorientation, or unusual speech patterns. However, he maintains an unyielding conviction that Beyonce is in live with him. What is the appropriate diagnosis for this condition?

      Your Answer: Othello syndrome

      Correct Answer: De Clerambault's syndrome

      Explanation:

      The correct term for the delusion that a famous person is in love with someone, without any other psychotic symptoms, is De Clerambault’s syndrome. Capgras syndrome, on the other hand, refers to the delusion that a close relative has been replaced by an impostor, while De Frégoli syndrome is the delusion of seeing a familiar person in different individuals.

      De Clerambault’s Syndrome: A Delusional Belief in Famous Love

      De Clerambault’s syndrome, also known as erotomania, is a type of paranoid delusion that has a romantic aspect. Typically, the patient is a single person who firmly believes that a well-known person is in love with them. This condition is characterized by a persistent and irrational belief that the famous person is sending secret messages or signals of love, even though there is no evidence to support this belief. The patient may engage in behaviors such as stalking, sending letters or gifts, or attempting to contact the object of their affection. Despite repeated rejections or lack of response, the patient remains convinced of the love affair. This syndrome can be distressing for both the patient and the object of their delusion, and it often requires psychiatric treatment.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 86 - A 24-year-old man is brought into the emergency department by his friends. They...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old man is brought into the emergency department by his friends. They report that for the past 6 days, he has not slept or eaten, and he believes that aliens are communicating with him through his phone.
      During the examination, he speaks rapidly and loudly. When asked about his condition, he describes in detail what the aliens have been telling him, including the frequency and duration of the calls, as well as the tone and pitch of their voices. He also expresses feelings of anxiety and paranoia.
      What type of thought disorder is present in this man?

      Your Answer: Flight of ideas

      Correct Answer: Circumstantiality

      Explanation:

      Circumstantiality is when a person provides excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question. This can be a symptom of a manic episode, which is likely the case for this patient. The woman has been experiencing irrational thoughts for the past 5 days, which has resulted in a lack of sleep and eating. Her speech is loud and pressured, and she has a delusion that the government has given her a special mission to stop global warming. This delusion is a sign of a formal thought disorder, which is further demonstrated by her circumstantiality. She is unable to answer a question without providing excessive detail, such as describing the color of the television before finally expressing that she feels stressed. Echolalia, the repetition of someone else’s speech, is not observed in this woman. Flight of ideas, which involves accelerated speech and wandering ideas, is also not present. Knight’s move thinking, which involves poor associations to the previous topic, is also not observed.

      Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 87 - A 32-year-old man comes to you seeking help as he feels like he...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man comes to you seeking help as he feels like he is not himself lately. He has been struggling since his divorce 8 months ago. For the past 5 weeks, he has been experiencing low moods for most of the day, particularly in the mornings when he wakes up early. He has lost interest in his usual hobbies, including going to the gym. He has not been to any of his regular workout classes. He has had thoughts of taking a bottle of pills to end it all, but he knows he won't do it because he has a supportive family. He has no significant medical or psychiatric history.

      Which of the following treatments would be the most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Depression: Choosing the Right Antidepressant

      Depression is a serious mental health condition that requires a comprehensive treatment plan. Antidepressants are often prescribed as part of this plan, along with high-intensity psychological interventions like cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT). However, not all antidepressants are created equal. Here are some of the most commonly used antidepressants and their indications:

      Fluoxetine: This selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) is the most suitable first-line treatment for depression due to its efficacy, patient acceptability, and lower toxicity in overdose.

      Imipramine: This tricyclic antidepressant is not usually used as a first-line treatment for depression but has a role in nocturnal enuresis.

      Lithium: While lithium has antidepressant properties, it is not a first-line treatment for unipolar depression due to its side-effects and the need for blood monitoring. It is commonly used in the treatment of bipolar affective disorder.

      Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT): ECT is reserved for more severe depression where there is an immediate risk to life or where other treatments have been ineffective.

      Phenelzine: This monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) is not commonly used as a first-line treatment for depression but is helpful in treatment-resistant depression.

      It’s important to work closely with a healthcare professional to determine the best treatment plan for your individual needs. Antidepressants may take several weeks to take effect, and patients should be aware of potential side-effects and the importance of adhering to their medication regimen.

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  • Question 88 - A 35-year-old female comes to your clinic with concerns that her husband is...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female comes to your clinic with concerns that her husband is cheating on her. They have been married for 10 years and have always been faithful to each other. She is a stay-at-home mom and her husband works long hours. You wonder about the likelihood of her claims being true.

      What is the medical term for this type of delusional jealousy?

      Your Answer: Fregoli syndrome

      Correct Answer: Othello syndrome

      Explanation:

      Othello syndrome is a condition characterized by delusional jealousy, where individuals believe that their partner is being unfaithful. This belief can stem from a variety of underlying conditions, including affective states, schizophrenia, or personality disorders. Patients with Othello syndrome may become fixated on finding evidence of their partner’s infidelity, even when none exists. In extreme cases, this can lead to violent behavior.

      Understanding Othello’s Syndrome

      Othello’s syndrome is a condition characterized by extreme jealousy and suspicion that one’s partner is being unfaithful, even in the absence of any concrete evidence. This type of pathological jealousy can lead to socially unacceptable behavior, such as stalking, accusations, and even violence. People with Othello’s syndrome may become obsessed with their partner’s every move, constantly checking their phone, email, and social media accounts for signs of infidelity. They may also isolate themselves from friends and family, becoming increasingly paranoid and controlling.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 89 - A 78-year-old woman complains of feeling down, having low energy, and losing interest...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old woman complains of feeling down, having low energy, and losing interest in activities. She has been experiencing poor sleep for the past 2 weeks and has had no appetite. Her physician prescribes mirtazapine. What category of medications does mirtazapine fall under?

      Your Answer: Serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors

      Correct Answer: Noradrenergic and specific serotonergic antidepressants

      Explanation:

      By blocking alpha2 adrenoreceptors, mirtazapine increases the release of neurotransmitters and functions as a noradrenergic and specific serotonergic antidepressant.

      Mirtazapine: An Effective Antidepressant with Fewer Side Effects

      Mirtazapine is an antidepressant medication that functions by blocking alpha2-adrenergic receptors, which leads to an increase in the release of neurotransmitters. Compared to other antidepressants, mirtazapine has fewer side effects and interactions, making it a suitable option for older individuals who may be more susceptible to adverse effects or are taking other medications.

      Mirtazapine has two side effects that can be beneficial for older individuals who are experiencing insomnia and poor appetite. These side effects include sedation and an increased appetite. As a result, mirtazapine is typically taken in the evening to help with sleep and to stimulate appetite.

      Overall, mirtazapine is an effective antidepressant that is well-tolerated by many individuals. Its unique side effects make it a valuable option for older individuals who may have difficulty sleeping or eating.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 90 - A 72-year-old female visits her GP due to concerns about memory loss. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old female visits her GP due to concerns about memory loss. She has been experiencing forgetfulness and absent-mindedness for the past three weeks. She cannot recall conversations that occurred earlier in the day and has forgotten to lock her front door. Additionally, she has been feeling fatigued and has lost interest in her usual activities, such as going out for walks. Living alone, she is worried about the potential risks associated with her memory loss. Although initially appearing cheerful, she becomes emotional and starts crying while discussing her symptoms. The following blood test result is obtained: TSH 2 mU/L. What is the most probable cause of her presentation?

      Your Answer: Lewy body dementia

      Correct Answer: Depression

      Explanation:

      Depression and dementia can be distinguished based on their respective characteristics. Depression typically has a short history and a sudden onset, which can cause memory loss due to lack of concentration. Other symptoms include fatigue and loss of interest in usual activities. Hypothyroidism can be ruled out if TSH levels are normal. On the other hand, dementia progresses slowly and patients may not notice the symptoms themselves. It is usually others who notice the symptoms, and memory loss is not a concern for patients with dementia. Finally, there is no indication of bipolar disorder as there is no history of manic episodes.

      Differentiating between Depression and Dementia

      Depression and dementia are two conditions that can have similar symptoms, making it difficult to distinguish between the two. However, there are certain factors that can suggest a diagnosis of depression over dementia.

      One of the key factors is the duration and onset of symptoms. Depression often has a short history and a rapid onset, whereas dementia tends to develop slowly over time. Additionally, biological symptoms such as weight loss and sleep disturbance are more commonly associated with depression than dementia.

      Patients with depression may also express concern about their memory, but they are often reluctant to take tests and may be disappointed with the results. In contrast, patients with dementia may not be aware of their memory loss or may not express concern about it.

      The mini-mental test score can also be variable in patients with depression, whereas in dementia, there is typically a global memory loss, particularly in recent memory.

      In summary, while depression and dementia can have overlapping symptoms, careful consideration of the duration and onset of symptoms, biological symptoms, patient concerns, and cognitive testing can help differentiate between the two conditions.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Psychiatry (15/90) 17%
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